Final Flashcards by cloud study

When speaking to a flight service weather briefer, you should state

A. the pilot in command’s fulll name and address
B. A summary of your qualifications
C. whether the flight is VFR or IFR

C. whether the flight is VFR or IFR

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To get a complete weather briefing for the planning flight, the pilot should request:

a) a general briefing
b) an abbreviated briefing
c) a standard briefing

a) a general briefing

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Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?

a) outlook briefing
b) abbreviated briefing
c) standard briefing

c) standard briefing

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A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is:

a) an outlook briefing
b) a forecast briefing
c) a prognostic briefing

a) an outlook briefing

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What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?

a) The intended route of flight radio frequencies
b) The intended route of flight and destination
c) The address of the pilot in command

b) The intended route of flight and destination

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When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request:

a) an outlook briefing
b) a standard briefing
c) an abbreviated breifing

a) an outlook briefing

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Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?

a) outlook briefing
b) abbreviated briefing
c) standard briefing

c) standard briefing

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You plan to phone a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information. You should:

a) provide the number of occupants on board
b) identify yourself as a pilot
c) begin with your route of flight

a) provide the number of occupants on board

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What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?

a) tell the number of occupants on board
b) state their total flight time
c) identify themselves as pilots

c) identify themselves as pilots

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When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state:

a) the aircraft identification or the pilot’s name
b) true airspeed
c) fuel on board

a) the aircraft identification or the pilot’s name

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To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request:

a) an abbreviated briefing
b) a standard briefing
c) an outlook briefing

a) an abbreviated briefing

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For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the:

a) lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast.
b) lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
c) lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken, or thin.

b) lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.

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what are the current conditions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?

A. Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, rain
B. Sky 7000feet overcast visibility 1-1/2 SM, heavy rain
C. Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM heavy rain

A. Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, rain

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The wind direction & velocity @ KJFK is from (18004KT)

A.180 degrees true @ 4 knots.
B.180 degrees magnetic @ 4 knots.
C. 040 degrees true at 18 knots

A.180 degrees true @ 4 knots.

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What are the wind conditions @ Wink, Texas (KINK)? (11012G18KT)

A.Calm
B.110 degrees @ 12 knots, peak gusts 18 knots.
C.111 degress @ 12 knots, gusts 18 knots

B.110 degrees @ 12 knots, peak gusts 18 knots.

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The remarks section for KMDW has RAB35 listed. This entry means

a) blowing mist has reduced the visibility to 1-1/2 SM
b) rain began at 1835Z
c) the barometer has risen .35 inches Hg

b) rain began at 1835Z

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Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?

a) All
b) KINK, KBOI, and KJFK
c) KINK, KBOI, and KLAX

c) KINK, KBOI, and KLAX

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If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling?

a) 505 feet AGL
b) 1,295 feet AGL
c) 6,586 feet AGL

a) 505 feet AGL

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The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are

a) 1,800 feet MSL and 5,500 feel MSL
b) 5,500 feet AGL and 7,200 feet MSL
c) 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL

c) 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL

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The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is

a) moderate from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet
b) moderate at 5,500 feet and at 7,200 feet
c) light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet

c) light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet

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The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are

a) 080 degrees at 21 knots and -7 degrees Celsius
b) 090 degrees at 21 MPH and -9 degrees Fahrenheit
c) 090 degrees at 21 knots and -9 degrees Celsius

a) 080 degrees at 21 knots and -7 degrees Celsius

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The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is

a) light to moderate rime
b) light to moderate
c) light to moderate clear

a) light to moderate rime

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What is the base of the ceiling in the following pilot report?

KMOB UA/OV APE230010/TM 1515/FL085/TP
BE20/SK BKN065/WX FV03SM HZ FU/TA 20/TB
LGT

A. There is not a defined ceiling in this report
B. There is a layer reported at 8,500 feet
C.there is a broken layer at 6,500 feet

C) there is a broken layer at 6,500 feet

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What is indicated by the following report?

TYR UUA/OV TYR180015/TM 1757/FL310/TP B737/TB MOD-SEV CAT 350-390

A.A special METAR issued on the 18th day of the month at 1757Z
B.A routine pilot report for overcast conditions from flight levels 350-390
C.An urgent pilot report for moderate to severe clear air turbulence

C.An urgent pilot report for moderate to severe clear air turbulence

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In the TAF for KMEM, what does "SHRA" stand for? A.A significant change in precipitation is possible B.Rain showers C.A shift in wind direction is expected

B.Rain showers

Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be? A.6 statute miles B.3 statute miles C.1/2 statute mile

B.3 statute miles

In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes | A.overcast at 200 feet with a 40 percent probability of becoming overcast at 600 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z B.overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z C.overcast at 200 feet with the probability of becoming overcast at 400 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z

B.overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z

During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC? A. Greater than 6 statute miles B.Possibly 6 statute miles C.Not forecasted

B.Greater than 6 statute miles

What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM? A.1200Z to 1200Z B.1200Z to 1800Z C. 1800Z to 2400Z

C. 1800Z to 2400Z

What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast? A. Variable in direction at 4 knots B.Variable in direction at 6 knots C.No significant wind

B.Variable in direction at 6 knots

In the TAF from KOKC, the "FM (FROM) Group" is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from A.180° at 10 knots, becoming 200° at 13 knots B. 180° at 10 knots C.160° at 10 knots

B.180° at 10 knots

In the following METAR/TAF for HOU, what is the ceiling and visibility forecast on the 7th day of the month at 0600Z? KHOU 061734Z 0618/0718 16014G22KT P6SM VCSH BKN018 BKN035 FM070100 17010KT P6SM BKN015 OVC025 FM070500 17008KT 4SM BR SCT008 OVC012 FM071000 18005KT 3SM BR OVC007 FM071500 23008KT 5SM BR VCSH SCT008 OVC015 A.4 nautical miles of visibility and an overcast ceiling at 700 feet MSL B.Visibility 6 miles with a broken ceiling at 15,000 feet MSL C.4 statute miles visibility and an overcast ceiling at 1,200 feet AGL

C.4 statute miles visibility and an overcast ceiling at 1,200 feet AGL

The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is A.Scattered cumulus B.Cumulonimbus C.Nimbostratus

B.Cumulonimbus

Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate A. location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and trend B. location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation C.large areas of low ceilings and fog location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation

B.location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation

How should contact be established with a Flight Service Station, and what service would be expected? A.Call Flight Service on 122.2 for routine weather, current reports on hazardous weather, and altimeter settings B.Call Flight Service on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route C.Call flight assistance on 122.5 for advisory service pertaining to severe weather

A.Call Flight Service on 122.2 for routine weather, current reports on hazardous weather, and altimeter settings

What service should a pilot normally expect from Flight Service? A.Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route B.Local information about restaurants, hotels, and rental car services C.Preferential routing and radar vectoring to circumnavigate severe weather

A.Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route

En route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on A.122.2 MHz B.122.1 MHz C.123.6 MHz

A.122.2 MHz

How could you receive in-flight weather information about your destination while still 150 NM away? A. Tune your frequency and listen to the ATIS for your destination. B. Review the destination METAR and TAF through FIS-B. C. Contact Flight Service on the frequency 121.5.

B. Review the destination METAR and TAF through FIS-B.

(Refer to Figure 17 on page 297) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 ft? A. 230° magnetic at 39 knots. B. 230° true at 39 knots. C. 230° true at 106 knots.

B. 230° true at 39 knots.

(Refer to Figure 17 on page 297) Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for MKC at 6,000 ft. A. 050° true at 7 knots, temperature missing. B. 200° magnetic at 6 knots, temperature at +3°C. C. 200° true at 6 knots, temperature +3°C.

C. 200° true at 6 knots, temperature +3°C.

(Refer to Figure 17 on page 297) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 ft? A. 230° magnetic at 39 knots. B. 230° true at 39 knots. C. 230° true at 106 knots.

B. 230° true at 39 knots.

(Refer to Figure 17 on page 297) Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for DEN at 9,000 ft. A. 230° magnetic at 53 knots, temperature 47°C. B. 230° true at 53 knots, temperature -47°C. C. 230° true at 21 knots, temperature -4°C.

C. 230° true at 21 knots, temperature -4°C.

(Refer to Figure 17 on page 297) What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 ft? A. 230° magnetic at 25 knots. B. 230° true at 32 knots. C. 230° true at 25 knot

B. 230° true at 32 knots.

What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts? A.Magnetic direction and knots B. Magnetic direction and miles per hour C.True direction and knots.

C.True direction and knots.

What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts? Magnetic direction and knots B. Magnetic direction and miles per hour C.True direction and knots.

C.True direction and knots.

(Refer to figure 20) At what altitude is the freezing level over the middle of Florida on the 12 hour significant weather prognostic chart? A.4,000 feet B.8,000 feet C.12,000 feet

C.12,000 feet

You are preparing for a flight with a planned arrival in southern Georgia at 0600Z. What conditions should you expect when landing? A.Marginal VFR conditions B.Instrument meteorological conditions C.Moderate turbulence

B.Instrument meteorological conditions

How are significant weather prognostic charts best used by a pilot? A.For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence) B.For overall planning at all altitudes C.For analyzing current frontal activity and cloud coverage

A.For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence)

The distance measured in millibars separating isobars on surface analysis charts is typically A.2MB B.4 MB C.6MB

B.4 MB

SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft? A. Small aircraft only B. Large aircraft only C. All aircraft

C. All aircraft

AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to A. only IFR pilots B.All pilots C. Only VFR pilots

B.All pilots

Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms? A. Convective SIGMET B. SIGMET C.AIRMET

B. SIGMET

What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET A.Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter. B. Severe icing , severe turbulence , or widespread dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles . C. Surface winds greater than 40 knots or thunderstorms equal to or greater than video integrator processor (VIP) level 4.

A.Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.

What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms ?* A. Moderate thunderstorms covering 30 percent B. Moderate or severe turbulence . C. Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers

C. Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers

To determine the freezing level and area of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the: A. Inflight aviation weather advisories B. CVA Chart C. Surface analysis chart s

A. Inflight aviation weather advisories

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately? A. 008° and 026° true. B. 080° and 260° true. C. 080° and 260° magnetic.

C. 080° and 260° magnetic.

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately? A. 009° and 027° true. B. 090° and 270° true. C. 090° and 270° magnetic.

C. 090° and 270° magnetic.

Enhanced taxiway centerline marking are enhanced for a maximum of how many feet prior to the runway holding position marking? A. 50 B. 100 C. 150

C. 150

(Refer to Figure 48 on page 79.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true? A. Position E on Runway 30 is available for landing. B. Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B. C. The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B.

B. Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.

The purpose of an enhanced taxiway centerline is to A. identify the location of taxiing aircraft during low visibility operations B. highlight an approaching runway holding position marking C. supplement location signs in confirming the designation of the taxiway

B. highlight an approaching runway holding position marking

(Refer to Figure 48 on page 79.) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted? A. “A” may be used for taxi and takeoff; “E” may be used only as an overrun. B. “A” may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; “E” may be used only as an overrun. C. “A” may be used only for taxiing; “E” may be used for all operations except landings. erm

A. “A” may be used for taxi and takeoff; “E” may be used only as an overrun.

4. (Refer to Figure 48 below.) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a A. stabilized area. B. multiple heliport. C. closed runway.

C. closed runway.

(Refer to Figure 48 on page 79.) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for A. landing. B. taxiing and takeoff. C. taxiing and landing

B. taxiing and takeoff.

(Refer to Figure 65 on page 80.) Which sign identifies where aircraft are prohibited from entering? A. D. B. G. C. B.

A. D.

Te7. (Refer to Figure 65 on page 80.) Which sign is a designation and direction of an exit taxiway from a runway? A. J. B. F. C. K.

C. K.

(Refer to Figure 65 on page 80.) Which sign identifies where aircraft are prohibited from entering? A. D. B. G. C. B.

A. D

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign? a. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. b. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway. c. Denotes intersecting runways.

c. Denotes intersecting runways.

What does the outbound destination sign identify? a. Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway. b. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located. c. Identifies direction to take-off runways.

c. Identifies direction to take-off runways.

10. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot a.May continue taxiing b.Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance c.Should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines

b.Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign? A) Indicates direction to take-off runway. B) Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway. C) Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

C) Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve? a) provides general taxiing direction to named runway b) denotes entrance to runway form a taxiway c) identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located

c) identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located

The 'yellow demarcation bar' marking indicates a) runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway b) a hold line from a taxiway to a runway c) the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side

a) runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway

(Refer to Fig 65 pg.90) (Refer to G) From the flight deck, this marking confirms the aircraft to be a) on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone b) on a runway, about to clear c) near an instrument approach clearance zone

b) on a runway, about to clear

A lighted heliport may be identified by a a) green,yellow, and white rotating beacon b) flashing yellow light c) blue lighted square landing area

a) green,yellow, and white rotating beacon

A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon the emits a) white and green alternating flashes b) two quick, white flashes between green flashes c) green, yellow, and white flashes

b) two quick, white flashes between green flashes

A lighted heliport may be identified by a a) green,yellow, and white rotating beacon b) flashing yellow light c) blue lighted square landing area

a) green,yellow, and white rotating beacon

A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon the emits a) white and green alternating flashes b) two quick, white flashes between green flashes c) green, yellow, and white flashes

b) two quick, white flashes between green flashes

An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates a) there are obstructions on the airport b) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums c) the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation

b) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums

How can a military airport be identified at night? a) Alternate white and green light flashes b) Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes c) White flashing lights with steady green at the same location

b) Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by a) white directional lights b) blue omnidirectional light c) alternate red and green lights

b) blue omnidirectional light

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it a) one time within 4 seconds b) three times within 3 seconds c) five times within 5 seconds

c) five times within 5 seconds

(Refer to Fig 49 pg. 95) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on a) Runway 18 and expected a crosswind from the right b) Runway 22 directly into the wind c) Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right

a) Runway 18 and expected a crosswind from the right

(Refer to Fig 49 pg. 95) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area a) may be used only for taxiing b) is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing c) cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff

c) cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff

(Refer to Fig 49 pg. 95) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing a) Left-hand traffic and Runway 18 b) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18 c) Left-hand traffic and Runway 22

b) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18

(Refer to Fig 49 pg. 95) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing a) Left-hand traffic and Runway 18 b) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18 c) Left-hand traffic and Runway 22

b) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18

(Refer to Fig 50 pg. 96) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle a) Right-hand traffic on Runway 9 b) Right-hand traffic on Runway 18 c) Left-hand traffic on Runway 36

c) Left-hand traffic on Runway 36

(Refer to Fig 50 pg. 96) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is a) left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18 b) left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36 c) right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27

a) left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18

(Refer to Fig 50 pg. 96) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the a) south of the airport b) north of the airport c) southeast of the airport

a) south of the airport

(Refer to Fig 50 pg. 96) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 be with a a) right-quartering headwind b) left-quartering headwind c) right-quartering tailwind

a) right-quartering headwind

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at noncontrolled airport a) Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary b) Make all turns to the left c) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

c) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is a) 45 degrees to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude b) to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude c) to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg

b) to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude

You are on approach to land on Runway 19 of a non-towered airport. You observe ripples on the southeast side of a small lake 3/4 mi. east of the airport. What is the most appropriate course of action? A.Proceed with approach to Runway 19 B.Maneuver for an approach to Runway 01 C.Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway.

C.Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway.

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall a) maintain an altitude the captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope c) remain on the glide slope and land between to two-light bar

b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a a) pulsating white light b) steady white light c) pulsating red light

c) pulsating red light

While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall a) maintain a 3 degree glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing c) stay high the runway can be reached in a power-off landing

b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI? a) Runway identification and course guidance b) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area c) lateral course guidance to the runway

b) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

(Refer to Fig 47 pg. 98) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is a) below the glide slope b) on the glide slope c) above the glide slope

b) on the glide slope

(Refer to Fig 47 pg. 98) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is a) above the glide path b) below the glide path c) on the glide path

b) below the glide path

(Refer to Fig 47 pg. 98) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is a) off course to the left b) above the glide slope c) below the glide slope

b) above the glide slope

b) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is a) four white lights b) three white lights and one red light c) two white lights and two red lights

b) three white lights and one red light

Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is a) operating at high airspeeds b) heavily loaded c) developing lift

c) developing lift

Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is a) operating at high airspeeds b) heavily loaded c) developing lift

c) developing lift

(Refer to Fig 48 pg. 100) With winds reported as from 300 degrees at 4 knots, you are given instructions to a taxi to runway 30 for departure and to expect to take off after an airliner, which is departing from runway 35L. What effect would you expect from the airliner's vortices? a) The winds will push the vortices into your takeoff path b) The crosswind will prevent lateral movement of the vortices c) The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate

a) The winds will push the vortices into your takeoff path

When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to a) rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path b) rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport c) sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence

c) sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence

When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying a) above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point b) below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point c) above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point

a) above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point

The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a a) light, quartering headwind b) light , quartering tailwind c) strong headwind

b) light , quartering tailwind

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? a) Inward, upward, and around each tip b) Inward, upward, and counterclockwise c) Outward, upward, and around each tip

c) Outward, upward, and around each tip

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? a) Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown b) Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath c) Stay well below its final approach fligthpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind

a) Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is a) light, dirty, and fast b) heavy, dirty, and fast c) heavy, clean, and slow

c) heavy, clean, and slow

When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft a) below and downwind from the heavy aircraft b) above and upwind from the heavy aircraft c) below and upwind from the heavy aircraft

b) above and upwind from the heavy aircraft

Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices you should fly a) at the same altitude as the large aircraft b) below the altitude of the large aircraft c) above the flight path of the large aircraft

c) above the flight path of the large aircraft

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light a head and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left b) The other aircraft is crossing to the right c) The other aircraft is approaching head-on

a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left

During a night flight, you observe a steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? a) The other aircraft is flying away from you b) the other aircraft is crossing to the left c) the other aircraft is approaching head-on

c) the other aircraft is approaching head-on

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft ? a) The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate b) The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space c) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

c) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should a) not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second b) be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds c) use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing

a) not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o' clock positions b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degree sector c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing

c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o' clock positions b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing

b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector

Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should a) check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications b) visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance c) announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF

b) visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway? a) execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace b) advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes c) Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude

a) execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace

c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing

Most midair collision accidents occur during a) hazy days b) clear days c) cloudy nights

b) clear days

Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with a) the controlling agency b) all pilot c) Air Traffic Control

b) all pilot

The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating a) in Class B airspace b) in conditions of reduced visibility c) within 15 miles of a towered airport

b) in conditions of reduced visibility

It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least a) 50 feet or less to another aircraft b) 500 feet or less to another aircraft c) 1000 feet or less to another aircraft

b) 500 feet or less to another aircraft

70. ADS-B equipment is not required for aircraft in flight above 10,000 ft. MSL A. because Class A airspace begins at 18,000 ft. MSL. B. while that flight is still being conducted below 2,500 ft. AGL. C. because the equipment is not required above this altitude. B

B. while that flight is still being conducted below 2,500 ft. AGL.

Can aircraft without ADS-B Out equipment overfly Class C airspace? A. Yes, as long as contact with the controlling facility is maintained for the duration of the overflight. B. Yes, if flight is maintained at or above 10,000 ft. MSL. C. Yes, but only in exceptional circumstances because flight over Class C airspace is not permitted without appropriate ADS-B equipment.

C. Yes, but only in exceptional circumstances because flight over Class C airspace is not permitted without appropriate ADS-B equipment.

ADS-B equipment offers many benefits to pilots; however, the range of coverage for air traffic controllers is A. limited, and often worse than radar. B. restricted in remote areas such as mountainous terrain, C. often better than radar, even in remote areas.

C. often better than radar, even in remote areas

Any airspace that requires the use of a transponder also requires aircraft to be A. equipped with specific ADS-B Out equipment. B. on a VFR flight plan with ADS-B Out in the transmit mode at all times. C. on an IFR flight plan with ADS-B Out equipment.

A. equipped with specific ADS-B Out equipment.

Onboard ADS-B Out equipment is useful to pilots and ATC controllers A. all the time, even when aircraft are positioned on the airport surface. B. any time the aircraft is above 2,500 ft. AGL C. only during the times ATC requires it to be active

A. all the time, even when aircraft are positioned on the airport surface.

When should ADS-B equipment be operated on the ground while taxiing? A. Only when ATC specifically requests your ADS-B equipment be activated. B. Any time when the airport is operating under IF conditions. C. All the time when on the airport surface.

C. All the time when on the airport surface.

76. After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control? A. When advised by the tower to do so. B. Prior to turning off the runway. C. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area.

A. When advised by the tower to do so.

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning A. pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction. B. nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion. C. noncontrol information in selected high- activity terminal areas.

C. noncontrol information in selected high- activity terminal areas.

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that A. weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums. B. the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted. C. the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

C. the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

When a control tower located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation? A. The airspace designation normally will not change. B. The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available. C. The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

C. The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the A. satellite airport's UNICOM. B. associated Flight Service Station. C. primary airport's control tower.

C. primary airport's control tower.

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on A. the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace. B. 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport. C. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

C. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

C. The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

C. primary airport's control tower.

C. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports A. regardless of weather conditions. B. only when weather conditions are less than VFR C. within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

A. regardless of weather conditions.

84. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only A. when the weather minimums are below basic VFR. B. when the associated control tower is in operation. C. when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.

B. when the associated control tower is in operation.

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff? A. When visibility is less than 1 mile. B. When parallel runways are in use. C. When departing from a runway intersection.

C. When departing from a runway intersection.

The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally A. 10 NM. B. 20 NM. C. 30 NM.

B. 20 NM.

87. Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace? A. The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure. B. The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace. C. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

C. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

All operations within Class C airspace must be in A. accordance with instrument flight rules. B. compliance with ATC clearances and instructions. C. an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.

C. an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace? A. Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency. B. Contact the tower and request permission to enter. C. Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.

A. Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.

The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally A. 1,200 feet AGL. B. 3,000 feet AGL. C. 4,000 feet AGL.

C. 4,000 feet AGL.

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace? A. Class C. B. Class E. C. Class G.

A. Class C.

92. With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with A. an operable VOR or TACAN receiver. B. instruments and equipment required for IFR operations. C. an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.

C. an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.

93. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? A. Recreational Pilot Certificate. B. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. C. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

B. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? A. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. B. Commercial Pilot Certificate. C. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

A. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited? A. Class A. B. Class B C. Class C.

A. Class A.

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C. 5 miles.

C. 5 miles.

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of A. 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace. B. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes. C. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.

A. 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is A. 1.000 feet. B. 2.000 feet. C. 1 mile.

C. 1 mile.

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL? A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C. 4 miles.

B. 3 miles.

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL A. remain clear of clouds. B. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2.000 feet horizontally. C. 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

B. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2.000 feet horizontally.

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours? A. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds. B. 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds. C. 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.

A. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum fight visibility for VFR 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C. 5 miles.

B. 3 miles.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1.200 feet AGL. but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is A. 1 mile. B. 3 miles. C. 5 miles.

A. 1 mile

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is A. 500 feet. B. 1,000 feet. C. 1,500 feet.

B. 1,000 feet.

Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance- Broadcast (ADS-B)? A. Landing at an airport with an operating control tower. B. Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL. C. Flying under the shelf of Class C airspace.

C. Flying under the shelf of Class C airspace.

Unless otherwise authorized, which airspace requires the appropriate Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment installed? A. Within Class E airspace below the upper shelf of Class C Airspace. B. Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class D airspace up to 10.000 feet MSL. C. Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles from a Class B airport.

C. Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles from a Class B airport.

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the A. flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile. B. ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile. C. ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

C. ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet ÄGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is A. 500 feet. B. 1,000 feet. C. 1,500 feet.

B. 1,000 feet.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds for VFR flight at night is A.500 feet B.1,000 feet C.1,500 feet

B.1,000 feet

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirements for VFR flight is a) 1,000 feet b) 1,500 feet c) 2,000 feet

c) 2,000 feet

a) 500 feet

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least a) 1,000 feet and 1 mile b) 1,000 feet and 3 miles c) 2,500 feet and 3 miles

b) 1,000 feet and 3 miles

Your VFR flight will be conducted above 10,000 ft. MSL in Class E airspace. What is the minimum flight visibility? a) 3 SM b) 5 SM c) 1 SM

b)5 SM

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace? a) Automated Flight Service Station b) Air Traffic Control Tower c) Air Route Traffic Control Center B

b) Air Traffic Control Tower

A special VFR clearance authorize the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is a) less than 1 mile and the ceiling less than 1,000 feet. b) at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds c) at least 3 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds

b) at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the a) flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds b) airplane is equipped for instrument flight c) flight visibility is at least 3 miles

b) airplane is equipped for instrument flight

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night? a) The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace b) The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder c) The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped

c) The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplane operating under special VFR in Class D airspace? a) 1 mile flight visibility b) 1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling c) 3 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling

a) 1 mile flight visibility

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace? a) Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder b) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter c) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver

b) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? a) Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder b) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME c) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter

c) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter

Unless otherwise specified Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upwards from A. 700 Feet above he surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL B.1200 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. C.the surface, up to and including 18,000 feet MSL>

B.1200 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

TRSA SERvice in the terminal radar program provides a) IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft b) warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft c) Sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft

c) Sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft

If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code a) 0000 b) 1200 c) 4096

b) 1200

From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations? a) clearance delivery b) Tower, just before takeoff c) Ground control, on initial contact

c) Ground control, on initial contact

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as a) safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft b) mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) c) wind-shear warning at participating airports

a) safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes? a) 7200 b) 7000 C) 7500

C) 7500

If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code a) 0000 b) 1200 c) 4096

b) 1200

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes? a) 7200 b) 7000 C) 7500

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots avoid inadvertent selection of which code? a) 1200 b) 7600 c) 4096

b) 7600

When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected? a) 1200 b) 7600 c) 7700

a) 1200

At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which transponder code should be selected? a) Mode A/3, Code 1200 b) Mode F, Code 1200 c) Mode C, Code 4096

a) Mode A/3, Code 1200

Which of the following codes should be set for VFR flight in Class E airspace? a) 1200, Mode A/3 b) 1200, Mode F c) 4600, Mode S

a) 1200, Mode A/3

Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code? a) 1200 b) 7600 c) 7700

a) 1200

134. What is the hijack code? A. 7200 B. 7500 C. 7777

B. 7500

135. What is the appropriate transponder code in response to lost communications? A. 7400 B. 7500 C. 7600

C. 7600

136. In the event of unlawful interference or hijacking, which transponder code should you input immediately? A. 7500 B. 7600 C. 7777

A. 7500

137. The transponder should be cycled to 7700 in the event of A. a hijacking. B. an emergency. C. lost communications.

B. an emergency.

138. When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester FSS is A. "MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER B. "MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER. C "MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION. HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."

A. "MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER

139. The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is A."FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED." B."FOUR POINT FIVE." C."FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL."

A."FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED."

140. The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is A. "TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET." B. "TEN POINT FIVE " C. "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."

C. "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."

ATC advises, "traffic 12 o'clock," this advisory is relative to your A. true course. B. ground track. C. magnetic heading

B. ground track.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°: "TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND... Where should the pilot look for this traffic? A. East. B. South. C. West.

B. South.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°: "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND... Where should the pilot look for this traffic? A. Northwest. B. Northeast. C. Southwest.

A. Northwest.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic? A. Between directly ahead and 90° to the left. B. Between directly behind and 90° to the right. C. Between directly ahead and 90° to the right.

C. Between directly ahead and 90° to the right.

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind: "TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND... Where should the pilot look for this traffic? A. South. B. North. C. West.

C. West.

While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should A. discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land. B. exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing. C. abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing.

B. exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.

If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport? A. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower. B. Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings. C. Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport.

A. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.

A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot A. is cleared to land. B. should give way to other aircraft and continue circling. C. should return for landing.

A. is cleared to land.

A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to A. taxi at a faster speed. B. taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways. C. return to the starting point on the airport.

C. return to the starting point on the airport.

If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be A. flashing red, B. steady red. C. alternating red and green.

B. steady red.

Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi? A. Flashing green. B. Steady green. C. Flashing white.

A. Flashing green.

An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to A. hold position. B. exercise extreme caution. C. not land; the airport is unsafe.

B. exercise extreme caution.

When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on A. 118.0 MHZ. B. 406 MHz. C. 123.0 MHZ.

B. 406 MHz.

While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency? A. 121.5 MHz. B. 122.5 MHz. C. 128.75 MHz.

A. 121.5 MHz.

ho should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program? A. Recreational pilots only. B. Military pilots. C. Student pilots.

C. Student pilots.

Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? A. Pilot in command. B. Owner/operator. C. Second-in-command.

A. Pilot in command.

Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? A. Pilot in command. B. Air Traffic Controller. C. Second in command.

A. Pilot in command.

Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)? A. Special Notices section of the Chart Supplement. B. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). C. 14 CFR Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules.

A. Special Notices section of the Chart Supplement.

When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? A. When it will compromise safety. B. Only when the tower operator concurs. C. Pilots cannot decline clearance.

A. When it will compromise safety.

What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance? A. 3 nautical miles. B. 3 statute miles. C. 1 statute mile.

B. 3 statute miles.

What should you expect when you are told that LAHSO operations are in effect at your destination airport? A. All aircraft must operate on an IFR clearance due to high traffic volume. B. That ATC will give you a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on the runway. C. Delays due to low IFR conditions and high traffic volume.

B. That ATC will give you a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on the runway.

If given a landing clearance on runway 16and told to hold short runway 6, how can a pilot determine the available landing distance? A. The full runway length is available. B. Use rule of thumb to determine the distance. C. Ask the controller.

C. Ask the controller.

What regulation allows a private pilot to preform preventive maintenance? a. 14 CFR Part 91.403 b. 14 CFR Part 43.3 c. 14 CFR Part 61.113

b. 14 CFR Part 43.3

Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service? a. Student or Recreational pilot b. Private or Commercial pilot c. None of the answers are correct

b. Private or Commercial pilot

Preventative maintenance has been preformed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required? a. A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook b. The date the work was completed and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook c. The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records

c. The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records

What documentation is required when a pilot has performed preventive maintenance on an aircraft? a) pilot performed maintenance does not need to be documented b) only major repairs and alterations need to be documented c) the pilot is to make an entry in the aircraft's maintenance records

c) the pilot is to make an entry in the aircraft's maintenance records

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? a) servicing landing gear wheel bearings b) alteration of main seat support brackets c) engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used

a) servicing landing gear wheel bearings

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? a) repair of landing gear brace struts b) replenishing hydraulic fluid c) repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional

b) replenishing hydraulic fluid

Is it legal to fly on the dealer's registration after a buyer purchased an airplane from that dealer? a) Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 30 days b) No, the airplane cannot be flown by the buyer and has to be registered c) Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 120 days

b) No, the airplane cannot be flown by the buyer and has to be registered

When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft? a) When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery b) only when passengers are carried c) any time when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember

c) any time when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember

A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current a) logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished b) medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate c) endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished

b) medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate

What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft? a) Certificates showing accomplishments of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review b) A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience c) An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required

c) An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any a) authorized representative of the Department of Transportation b) person in a position of authority c) local law enforcement officer

c) local law enforcement officer

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, and which department should this be reported to? a) Within 60 days to the Airmen Certification Branch b) Within 60 days to the Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office c) Within 60 days to the Regulatory Support Division

b) Within 60 days to the Security and Hazardous Materials Safety O

A third-class medical certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on a) August 10, 3 years later b) August 31, 5 years later c) August 31, 3 years later

b) August 31, 5 years later

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year old pilot of May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on a) May 3, 1 year later b) May 31, 1 year later c) May 31, 2 years later

c) May 31, 2 years later

For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on a) July 15, 2 year later b) July 31, 1 year later c) July 31, 2 years later

c) July 31, 2 years later

A third-class medical certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on a) August 10, 2 years later b) August 31, 5 years later c) August 31, 2 years later

b) August 31, 5 years later

For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on a) October 21, 2 years later b) October 31, next year c) October 31, 5 years later

c) October 31, 5 years later

A Third-Class Medical Certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Recreational or Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on A. August 10, 2 years later B. August 31, 5 year later C. August 31, 2 year later

B<.August 31, 5 years later

For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on... a. October 21, 2 years later b. October 31, next year c. October 31, 5 years later

c. October 31, 5 years later

In order to qualify for BasicMed, you must have received a comprehensive examination from: a) An FAA-designated Aviation Medical Examiner within the previous 60 months b) A state-licensed physician within the previous 24 months c) A state-licensed physician within the previous 48 months

c) A state-licensed physician within the previous 48 months

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have a) passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector b) an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command c) received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook

c) received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook

In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have a) made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane b) received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower c) passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane

b) received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft? a) aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator b) Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds c) Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights

b) Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on October 30, this year, when is the next flight review required? a) October 30, 2 years later b) October 31, next year c) October 31, 2 years later

c) October 31, 2 years later

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding a) 6 calendar months b) 12 calendar months c) 24 calendar months

c) 24 calendar months

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding a) 90 days b) 12 calendar months c) 24 calendar mon

a) 90 days

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is a) 1829 b) 1859 c) 1929

c) 1929

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same a) make and model b) category and class, but not type c) category, class, and type, if a type rating is requried

c) category, class, and type, if a type rating is requried

The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from a) sunset to sunrise b) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise c) the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight

b) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise

To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in a) the same category and class of aircraft to be used b) the same type of aircraft to be used c) any aircraft

a) the same category and class of aircraft to be used

The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experiencing requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane a) may be touch and go or full stop b) must be a touch and go c) must be to a full stop

c) must be to a full stop

You have accomplished 25 takeoffs and landings in multi-engine land airplanes in the previous 45 days. For a flight you plan to conduct today, this meets the PIC recency of experience requirements to carry passengers in which airplanes? a) Multi- or single engine land b) Single-engine land airplane c) Multi-engine land airplane

c) Multi-engine land airplane

Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding a) 90 days b) 60 days c) 30 days

a) 90 days

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only a) 30 days after the date of the move b) 60 days after the date of the move c) 90 days after the date of the move

a) 30 days after the date of the move

A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook minimum of a) 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft the pilot is using to tow a glider b) 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider c) 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider

b) 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months a) at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft b) at least three flights in a powered glider c) at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot

c) at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot

If you are operating under BasicMed, you may fly an aircraft with a) an actual takeoff weight of no more than 6,000 lb b) a maximum certificated takeoff weight of no more than 6,000 lb c) any weight, as long as you do not exceed the aircraft's maximum certificated takeoff weight

b) a maximum certificated takeoff weight of no more than 6,000 lb

In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may a) act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment b) not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditure, or rental fees c) not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight

b) not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditure, or rental fees

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may a) be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days b) not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditure, or rental fees c) not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight

b) not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditure, or rental fees

What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight? a) If the passengers pay all the operating expenses b) If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight c) There is no exception

b) If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight

If you are operating under BasicMed, what is the maximum speed at which you may fly? a) 250 KIAS b) 250 KIAS below 10,000 feet, and 230 KIAS above 10,000 feet c) 200 KIAS below 10,000 feet, and 230 KIAS above 10,000 feet

a) 250 KIAS

You own an aircraft which is certificated to carry 8 occupants and has a total of 8 seats installed, including the pilot's seat. You have recently elected to fly under BasicMed. May you continue to fly the aircraft? a) Yes, if you remove two of the seats b) Yes, as long as you carry no more than 5 passengers c) No

c) No

A private pilot acting as pilot in command, operating under the provisions of BasicMed is limited to an airspeed of A. 200 KIAS below 10,000 feet MSL. B. 250 KIAS below 10,000 feet MSL. C. 250 KIAS

C. 250 KIAS

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the a) Federal Aviation Administration b) pilot in command c) aircraft manufacturer

b) pilot in command

When must a pilot deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator ? A) Wihtin 7 days b) Within 10 days c) Upon request

c) Upon request

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? a) A certified aircraft mechanic b) The pilot in command c) The owner or operator

b) The pilot in command

You are PIC of a flight. During your preflight, you notice a mechanical discrepancy that you think makes the aircraft unairworthy. Who is responsible for this determination? a) A certified aircraft mechanic b) The pilot-in-command c) The owner or operator

b) The pilot-in-command

Where may an aircraft's operating limitation be found? a) On the Airworthiness Certificate b) In the current, FAA-approved flight maual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof c) In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks

b) In the current, FAA-approved flight maual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof

Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate? A. Attached to the airworthiness cert B. In current, FAA Approved fligth manual C. In the aircraft airframe and engine log book

A. Attached to the airworthiness cert

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? a) Only in an emergency b) If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface c) If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration

b) If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with a) .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood b) .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood c) .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood

c) .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood

Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft ? a) In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care b) Only if the person does not have access to the flight deck or pilot's compartment c) Under no conditions

a) In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care

You attended a party last night, and you consumed several glasses of wine. You are planning to fly your aircraft home and have been careful to make sure 8 hours have passed since your last alcoholic drink. You can make the flight now only if you are not under the influence of alcohol and your blood alcohol level is a) below .04% b) below .08% c) 0.0%

a) below .04%

A person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding a) 8 hours b) 12 hours c) 24 hours

a) 8 hours

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to a) review traffic control light signal procedures b) check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) c) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data

c) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight a) Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries b) Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight c) Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures

b) Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight

For a VFR flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the PIC must a) file a VFR flight plan with the nearest flight service b) obtain and squawk a discrete transponder code c) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use

c) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use

You are pilot-in-command of a VFR flight that you think will be within the fuel range of your aircraft. As part of your preflight planning you must a) be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport b) list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport c) obtain weather reports, forecasts, and fuel requirements for the flight

c) obtain weather reports, forecasts, and fuel requirements for the flight

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harness fastened during a) takeoffs and landings b) all flight conditions c) flight in turbulent air

a) takeoffs and landings

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened? a) Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing b) Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during and while en route c) Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing

a) Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? a) The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight b) The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing c) The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts

b) The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during a) taxi, takeoffs, and landings b) all flight conditions c) flight in turbulent air

a) taxi, takeoffs, and landings

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when? a) Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings b) Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only c) Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight

b) Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only

You are planning a trip and one of your passengers states that he prefers not to use his shoulder harness because its uncomfortable. You should a) explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing b) allow him to use his seat belt for the entire trip without the shoulder harness c) allow him to use his seat belt for takeoff and landing and the shoulder harness while en route

a) explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight a) over a densely populated area b) in Class D airspace under special VFR c) except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft

c) except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way? a) The airship b) The airplane c) Each pilot should alter course to the right

a) The airship

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft a) that has the other to its right b) that is the least maneuverable c) at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another

c) at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? a) glider b) Airship c) Aircraft refueling other aircraft

a) glider

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic? a) a balloon b) an aircraft in distress c) an aircraft on final approach to land

b) an aircraft in distress

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course? a) The airplane pilot should give way to the left b) The glider pilot should give way to the right c) Both pilots should give way to the right

c) Both pilots should give way to the right

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on? a) The faster aircraft shall giveway b) The aircraft on the left shall give way c) Each aircraft shall give way to the right

b) The aircraft on the left shall give way

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? a) Airship b) Aircraft towing other aircraft c) Gyroplane

b) Aircraft towing other aircraft

A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way? a) The motorboat b) The seaplane c) Both should alter course to the right

b) The seaplane

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is a) 180 knots b) 200 knots c) 250 knots

b) 200 knots

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? a) 200 knots b) 250 knots c) 288 knots

b) 250 knots

c) except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft

a) The airship

c) at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? a) glider b) Airship c) Aircraft refueling other aircraft

a) glider

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic? a) a balloon b) an aircraft in distress c) an aircraft on final approach to land

b) an aircraft in distress

c) Both pilots should give way to the right

b) The aircraft on the left shall give way

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? a) Airship b) Aircraft towing other aircraft c) Gyroplane

b) Aircraft towing other aircraft

b) The seaplane

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is a) 180 knots b) 200 knots c) 250 knots

b) 200 knots

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? a) 200 knots b) 250 knots c) 288 knots

b) 250 knots

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is a) 200 knots b) 230 knots c) 250 knots

a) 200 knots

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is a) 200 knots b) 230 knots c) 250 knots

a) 200 knots

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere? a) an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface b) An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure c) An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet

a) an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? a) An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure b) An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft c) An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

c) An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure? a) 500 feet b) 700 feet c) 1,000 feet

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area? a) An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface b) An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure c) An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet

b) An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure

According to 14 CFR part 91, at what minimum altitude may an airplane be operated unless necessary for takeoff and landing? a) In congested areas, you must maintain 500 feet over obstacles, and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure b) In uncongested area 1,000 feet over any obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet c) An altitude allowing for an emergency landing without undue hazard, if a power unit fails

c) An altitude allowing for an emergency landing without undue hazard, if a power unit fails

c) An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

c) An altitude allowing for an emergency landing without undue hazard, if a power unit fails

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting? a) The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation b) The corrected density altitude of the departure airport c) The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport

a) The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter? a) The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level b) The elevation of the departure area c) Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

b) The elevation of the departure area

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level? a) 14,500 feet MSL b) 18,000 feet MSL c) 24,000 feet MS

b) 18,000 feet MSL

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance? a) Within 48 hours if requested by ATC b) Immediately c) within 7 days

a) Within 48 hours if requested by ATC

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may a) deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours b) deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency c) not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator

b) deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency

As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance? a) When operating in Class A airspace at night b) If an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions c) In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory

c) In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is a) when the clearance states, "at pilot's discretion" b) an emergency c) if the clearance contains a restriction

b) an emergency

What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority? a) Take no special action since you are pilot in command b) File a detailed report within 48 hrs to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested c) File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible

b) File a detailed report within 48 hrs to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested

As pilot-in-command of an aircraft, you may deviate from an ATC clearance when a) flying in the outer ring of Class C airspace b) operating under VFR in Class B airspace c) there is an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action

c) there is an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane? a) Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions b) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed c) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

c) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane? a) Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions b) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing an to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed c) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly for 45 minutes at normal

b) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing an to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175 degrees? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet a) 4,500 feet b) 5,000 feet c) 5,500 feet

c) 5,500 feet

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight a magnetic course of 135 degrees? a) Even thousand b) Even thousand plus 500 feet c) Odd thousand plus 500 feet

c) Odd thousand plus 500 feet

Which VFR crusing altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees? a) 4,000 feet b) 4,500 feet c) 5,000 feet

b) 4,500 feet

Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a a) magnetic heading of 0 degrees through 179 degrees b) magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees c) true course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees

b) magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees

According to 14 CFR Part 91, what is the appropriate VFR cruising altitude, when above 3,000 ft. AGL, for a flight on a magnetic course of 090 degrees? a) 4,500 ft b) 5,500 ft c) 5,000 ft

b) 5,500 ft

In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight? a) Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual b) Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms c) Operating limitations and Registration Certificate

c) Operating limitations and Registration Certificate

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargable? a) After an inadvertent activation of the ELT b) When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour c) When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver

b) When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour

When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested? a) Anytime b) At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour c) During the first 5 minutes after hour

c) During the first 5 minutes after hour

Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175 degrees? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet a) 4,500 feet b) 5,000 feet c) 5,500 feet

c) 5,500 feet

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight a magnetic course of 135 degrees? a) Even thousand b) Even thousand plus 500 feet c) Odd thousand plus 500 feet

c) Odd thousand plus 500 feet

Which VFR crusing altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees? a) 4,000 feet b) 4,500 feet c) 5,000 feet

b) 4,500 feet

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight a magnetic course of 135 degrees? a) Even thousand b) Even thousand plus 500 feet c) Odd thousand plus 500 feet

c) Odd thousand plus 500 feet

b) magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees

According to 14 CFR Part 91, what is the appropriate VFR cruising altitude, when above 3,000 ft. AGL, for a flight on a magnetic course of 090 degrees? a) 4,500 ft b) 5,500 ft c) 5,000 ft

b) 5,500 ft

c) Operating limitations and Registration Certificate

b) When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour

When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested? a) Anytime b) At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour c) During the first 5 minutes after hour

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced? a) Every 24 months b) When 50 percent of their useful life expires c) At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection

b) When 50 percent of their useful life expires

You are conducting your preflight of an aircraft and notice that the last inspection of the emergency locator transmitter was 11 calendar months ago. You may a) depart if you get a special flight permit b) depart because the ELT is within the inspection requirements c) not depart until a new inspection is conducted

b) depart because the ELT is within the inspection requirements

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft? a) End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight b) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise c) Sunset to sunrise

c) Sunset to sunrise

Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of a) 12,500 feet MSL b) 14,000 feet MSl C) 15,000 feet MSL

C) 15,000 feet MSL

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during a) the entire flight time at those altitudes b) that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes c) that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes

c) that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes

An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace? a) Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C b) Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL) c) Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL)

a) Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in a) Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary report b) Class D airspace c) Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSl

a) Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary report

Your transponder is inoperative. In order to enter Class B airspace, you must submit a request for a deviation from the a) ATC facility no less than 24 hr, before the proposed operation b) nearest FSDO 24 hr, before the proposed operation c) controlling ACT facility at least 1 hr. before the proposed flight

c) controlling ACT facility at least 1 hr. before the proposed flight

Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out is mandated for aircraft operations in A.Class A, B, and C airspace. BClass A, B, and C airspace above 2,500 ft. AGL C. all airspace within the 48 contiguous states above 2,00 ft. AGl

A.Class A, B, and C airspace.

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute? a) When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers b) When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more c) When intentionally banking in excess of 30 degrees

b) When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more

A parachute composed of nylon, rayon, or other synthetic fibers must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding a) 60 days b) 90 days c) 180 days

c) 180 days

An approved parachute constructed of natural fibers may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding a) 60 days b) 120 days c) 180 days

a) 60 days

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft? a) Flight under instrument flight rules b) Flight over a densely populated area c) Flight within Class D airspace

b) Flight over a densely populated area

Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate a) beneath the floor of Class B airspace b) over a densely populated area or in a congested airway c) from the primary airport within Class D airspace

b) over a densely populated area or in a congested airway

Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are complied with? a) Owner or operator b) Repair station c) Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA)

a) Owner or operator

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the a) pilot in command b) owner or operator c) mechanic who performs the work

b) owner or operator

You are PIC of a flight and determine that the aircraft you planned to fly has an overdue Airworthiness Directive (AD). Which of the following is an appropriate decision? a) No maintenance is available so you wait until after the trip to comply with the AD b) You make the flight because you can overfly an AD by 10 hours c) You cancel the flight and have the aircraft scheduled for maintenance

c) You cancel the flight and have the aircraft scheduled for maintenance

The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the a) owner a operator b) pilot in command c) mechanic who performed the work

a) owner a operator

Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service? a) Owner or operator b) Certified mechanic c) Repair station

a) Owner or operator

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated a) by any private pilot b) with passengers aboard c) for compensation or hire

b) with passengers aboard

Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a a) Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating b) Private Pilot Certificate c) Commercial Pilot Certificate and mechanic's certificate

b) Private Pilot Certificate

A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? a) 3312.5 hours b) 3402.5 hours c) 3395.5 hours

b) 3402.5 hours

An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than a) July 1, next year b) July 13, next year c) July 31, next year

c) July 31, next year

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the a) pilot in command b) owner or operator c) mechanic who performs the work

b) owner or operator

c) You cancel the flight and have the aircraft scheduled for maintenance

a) owner a operator

a) Owner or operator

b) with passengers aboard

b) Private Pilot Certificate

A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? a) 3312.5 hours b) 3402.5 hours c) 3395.5 hours

b) 3402.5 hours

An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than a) July 1, next year b) July 13, next year c) July 31, next year

c) July 31, next year

An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than a) July 1, next year b) July 13, next year c) July 31, next year

c) July 31, next year

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction? a) Annual condition and 100-hour inspections b) Biannual condition and 100-hour inspections c) Annual condition and 50-hour inspections

a) Annual condition and 100-hour inspections

An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? a) 1349.6 hours b) 1359.6 hours c) 1369.6 hours

b) 1359.6 hours

No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding a) 6 calendar months b) 12 calendar months c) 24 calendar months

c) 24 calendar months

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than a) September 30, 2015 b) September 1, 2016 c) September 30, 2016

c) September 30, 2016

Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by a) the relicensing date on the Registration Certificate b) an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records c) an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date

b) an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records

To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the a) airworthiness certificate b) registration certificate c) aircraft maintenance records

c) aircraft maintenance records

Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive? a) Aircraft Maintenance records b) Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot's Operating Handbook c) Airworthiness and registration certificates

a) Aircraft Maintenance records

The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a a) statement from the owner or operator that the aircraft is airworthy b) log book endorsement from a flight instructor c) review of the maintenance records

c) review of the maintenance records

Under what condition could an aircraft's engine logbook shows no previous operating history? a) If the aircraft had been imported from a foreign country b) This would indicate an error by maintenance personnel c) When the aircraft's engine has been rebuilt by the manufacturer

c) When the aircraft's engine has been rebuilt by the manufacturer

The party directly responsible for the pre-takeoff briefing of passengers is the a) pilot in command b) safety officer c) ground crew

a) pilot in command

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of a) all passengers b) the pilot c) a crewmember

b) the pilot

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified a) immediately b) within 48 hours c) within 7 hours

a) immediately

Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? a) An in-flight generator/alternator failure b) An in-flight fire c) An in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability

b) An in-flight fire

Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office? a) An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident b) An in-flight radio communications failure c) An in-flight generator or alternator failure

a) An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident

Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? a) a forced landing due to engine failure b) Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing c) Flight control system malfunction or failure

c) Flight control system malfunction or failure

On a post flight inspection of your aircraft after an aborted takeoff due to an elevator malfunction, you find that the elevator control cable has broken. According to NTSB 830, you a) must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office b) should notify the NTSB within 10 days c) must file a NASA report immediately

a) must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office

The NTSB must be notified immediately when there is a) an in-flight fire b) a ground fire c) a hangar fire

a) an in-flight fire

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody? a) Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer b) Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage c) No, it may not be moved under any circumstances

b) Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days? a) 5 b) 7 c) 10

c) 10

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB a) within 7 days b) within 10 days c. when requested

c. when requested

Which is not a type of hypoxia? a) Histotoxic b) Hypoxic c) Hypertoxic

c) Hypertoxic

Which of the following is a correct response to counteract the feelings of hypoxia in flight? a) Promptly descend to a lower altitude b) Increase cabin air flow c.Avoid sudden inhalations

a) Promptly descend to a lower altitude

A pilot making a blood donation in order to help a sick associate should be aware that for several weeks A. sufficient oxygen may not reach reach the cells in the body b.fewer oxygen molecules will be avalibale tot he respitory membrane c. the avility of the body tissue to effectively use oxygen is decreased

A. sufficient oxygen may not reach reach the cells in the body

6. Altitude-induced hypoxia is caused by what atmospheric condition? A. Significantly less oxygen molecules at high altitude. B. Insufficient partial pressure of the inhaled oxygen. C. Incorrect balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

B. Insufficient partial pressure of the inhaled oxygen.

7. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by A. closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane, B. slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud, C. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.

B. slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud,

8. Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as A. hyperventilation. B. aerosinusitis. C. aerotitis.

A. hyperventilation.

9. When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as A. hyperventilation. B. aerosinusitis. C. aerotitis.

A. hyperventilation.

10. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A. Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear. B. The excessive consumption of alcohol. C. An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.

A. Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear.

11. A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by A. slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud. B. breathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining mental control of the situation. C. increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation

B. breathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining mental control of the situation.

Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A. Tingling sensations B. Visual acuity. C. Decreased breathing rate.

A. Tingling sensations

13. Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if A. they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B. visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). C. eyes are moved often in the process of cross- checking the flight instruments.

B. visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).

15. If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to A. rely upon the aircraft instrument indications. B. concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations. C. consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing rate.

A. rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.

A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as A. spatial disorientation. B. hyperventilation. C. hypoxia.

A. spatial disorientation.

A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as A. spatial disorientation. B. hyperventilation. C. hypoxia.

A. spatial disorientation.

Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if A. they ignore the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B. visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). C. eyes are moved often in the process of cross- checking the flight instruments.

B. visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).

Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in a) tightness across the forehead b) loss of muscular power c) an increased sense of well-being

b) loss of muscular power

Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as a) altitude increases b) altitude decreases c) air pressure increases

a) altitude increases

What is a correct response if an exhaust leak were to be detected while in flight? a) Increase altitude so the effect of CO would be decreased b) Take deep breaths so as to inhale more oxygen c) Open air vents or windows

c) Open air vents or windows

Affects of carbon monoxide poising include a) dizziness, blurred vision, and loss of muscle power b) sweating, increased breathing, and paleness c) motion sickness, tightness across the forehead, and

a) dizziness, blurred vision, and loss of muscle power

Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight? a) Application of stress management and risk elements procedures b) The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take c) Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment

c) Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment

What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling? a) Scud running b) Mind set c) Peer Pressure

a) Scud running

What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)? a) Continual flight into instrument conditions\ b) Getting behind the aircraft c) Duck-under syndrome

a) Continual flight into instrument conditions\

What is one of the neglected items when a pilots relies on short and long term memory for repetitive task? a) Checklists b) Situational awareness c) Flying outside the envelope

a) Checklists

Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes? a) Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability b) Poor situational awareness, snap judgments, and lack of a decision making process c) Poor risk management and lack of stress management

a) Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability

In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude? a) Recognizing hazardous thoughts b) Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation c) Making a rational judgment

a) Recognizing hazardous thoughts

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Antiauthority"? a) Rules do not apply in this situation b) I know what I am doing c) Follow the rules

c) Follow the rules

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Impulsivity"? a) It could happen to me b) Do it quickly to get it over with c) Not so fast, think first

c) Not so fast, think first

What is the antidote when a pilot has the hazardous attitude of "Invulnerability"? a) It cannot be that bad b) It could happen to me c) It will not happen to me

b) It could happen to me

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Macho"? a) I can do it b) Taking chances is foolish c) Nothing will happen

b) Taking chances is foolish

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Resignation"? a) What is the use? b) Someone else is responsible c) I am not helpless

c) I am not helpless

Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate? a) The FAA b) The medical examiner c) The pilot

c) The pilot

What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents? a) Structural failure b) Mechanical malfunction c) Human error

c) Human error

What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity? a) Do it quickly to get it over with b) It could happen to me c)not so fast, think first

c)not so fast, think first

The most important key to risk management is a. understanding pilot predisposition b, management of external pressures c, the sense of security provided by experience

b, management of external pressures

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft? a) Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon b) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air c) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

b) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air

The definition of nighttime is a) sunset to sunrise b) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise c) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

c) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

With respect to certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft? a) Normally, utility, acrobatic b) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider c) Landplane, seaplane

a) Normally, utility, acrobatic

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class aircraft? a) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon b) Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited c) Transport, restricted, provisional

a) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon

An ATC clearance provides a) priority over all other traffic b) adequate separation from all traffic c) authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace

c) authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed? a) Vfe b) Vlof c) Vfc

a) Vfe

Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed? a) Vle b) Vlo c) Vfe

a) Vle

Vno is defined as the a) normal operating range b) never-exceed speed c) maximum structural cruising speed

c) maximum structural cruising speed

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed? a) Va b) Vlo c) Vne

a) Va

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff? a) Vy b) Va c) Vx

c) Vx

Vso is defined as the a) staling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration b) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration c) stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed

a) staling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time? a) Vy b) Vx c) Va

a) Vy

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid? a) as long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate b) Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage c) As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations

c) As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (ADs)? a) For informational purposes only b) They are mandatory c) They are voluntary

b) They are mandatory

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)? a) yes, under VFR conditions only b) yes, ADs are only voluntary c) Yes, if allowed by the AD

c) Yes, if allowed by the AD

c) the pilot is to make an entry in the aircraft's maintenance records

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA's Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office? a) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action b) No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action c) Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate

a) No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane? a) An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller b) an airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots c) An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepowe

c) An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepowe

To act as PIC of a high-performance airplane, which training or experience would meet the additional requirements? a) logged at least five hours as SIC in a high-performance or turbine-powered airplane in the last 12 calendar months b) received and logged ground and flight training in an airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller c) received and logged ground and flight training in a high-performance airplane and received a logbook endorsement

c) Received and logged ground and flight training in a high-performance airplane and a received a logbook endorsement

While experiencing a hangover, a pilot A. will have impaired motor and mental responses. B. is no longer under the influence of alcohol. C. may experience discomfort, but no

A. will have impaired motor and mental

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)? a) After one-half the battery's useful life b) During each annual and 100-hour inspection c) Every 24 calendar months

a) After one-half the battery's useful life

Which statement best defines hypoxia? a) A state of oxygen deficiency in the body b) An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed c) A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles

a) A state of oxygen deficiency in the body

Anemic (hypemic) hypoxia has the same symptoms as hypoxic hypoxia but it's most often a result of A. poor blood circulation B. a leaking exhaust manifold C. use of alcohol or drugs before flight

B. a leaking exhaust manifold

One purpose of crew resource managment(CRM) is to give the crews tools to a. recognize and mitigiate hazards b. matain currency with regulations c.reduce the need for outside resources

a. recognize and mitigiate hazards

(Refer to Fig. 26 pg. 311) What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport? a) 47 degrees 25'N- 98 degrees 06'W b) 47 degrees 25'N - 99 degrees 54'W c) 47 degree 55'N - 98 degree 06'W

a) 47 degrees 25'N- 98 degrees 06'W

(Refer to Figure 22 and Pg. 309) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport a) 47 degree 02'N - 116 degree 11'W b) 47 degree 33'N - 116 degree 11'W c) 47 degree 32'N - 116 degree 41'W

b) 47 degree 33'N - 116 degree 11'W

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true? a) Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator b) Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles c) The 0 degree line of latitude passes through Greenwhich, England

b) Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles

a) 47 degrees 25'N- 98 degrees 06'W

(Refer to Fig. 21 on pg. 313) (Refer to Area 2) Which airport is located at approximately 47 degree 41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101 degree 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude? a) Fischer b) Crooked Lake c) Johnson

a) Fischer

(Refer to Fig. 21 on pg. 313) (Area 3) Which airport is located at approximately 47 degree 21'N latitude and 101 degree 01'W longitude? a) Underwood b) Pietsch c) Washburn

c) Washburn

Refer to Fig. 79 below, and Fig.78 on pg.317) At Sioux Gateway/Col Day (N42 degree 24.16' W96"23.06'), which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions when the control tower is closed? a) 122.95 MHz b) 119.45 MHz c) 118.7 MHz

c) 118.7 MHz

(Refer to Fig.20 on pg. 319) (Refer to Area 3) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport. a) 36 degree 24'N- 76 degree 01'W b) 36 degree 48'N - 76 degree 01'W c) 47 degree 24'N- 75 degree 58'W

a) 36 degree 24'N- 76 degree 01'W

(Refer to Fig. 20 on pg. 319) (Refer to Area 6) The NALF Fentress (NFE) Airport is in what type of airspace? a) Class C b) Class E c) Class G

b) Class E

(Refer to Fig. 20 on pg. 319) (Refer to Area 4) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302A? a) Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles b) High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity c) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

a) Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles

(Refer to Fig. 20 on pg. 319) (Refer to Area 1) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk international? a) Mode C transponder and omnireceiver b) Mode C transponder and two-way radio c) Mode C transponder, omnireceiver, and DME

b) Mode C transponder and two-way radio

(Refer to Fig. 20 on pg. 319) (Refer to Area 2) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is a) 19 feet b) 36 feet c) 360 feet

a) 19 feet

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts? a) Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue; Class D and E airspace are magenta b) Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta c) Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue

c) Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include, a) 10,000 feet MSL b) 14,500 feet MSL c) 18,000 feet MSL

c) 18,000 feet MSL

Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than a) 1,000 feet AGL b) 2,000 feet AGL c) 3,000 feet AGL

b) 2,000 feet AGL

(Refer Fig. 21 pg. 321) The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Minot (Area 1) and Audubon Lake (Area 2) varies from a) sea level to 2,000 feet MSL b) 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL c) 2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL

b) 2,000 feet to 2,500 feet MSL

(Refer to Fig. 21 pg. 312) (Refer to area 3) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644? a) IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots b) VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots c) Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots

a) IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)? a) Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA b) Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA c) Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

c) Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

Flight through a restricted area should be accomplished unless the pilot has a) filed a IFR flight plan b) received prior authorization from the controlling agency c) received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base

b) received prior authorization from the controlling agency

What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area? a) All pilots must contact the controlling agency to ensure aircraft separation b) Non-participating aircraft may transit the area as long as they operate in accordance with their wavier c) Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training.

c) Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training.

(Refer to Fig. 22 pg. 323) (Refer to area 1) The visibility and cloud clearance requirement to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are a) 1 mile and clear of clouds b) 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud c) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud

c) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud

(Refer to Fig. 22 on pg. 323) (Refer to Area 3) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are a) 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL b) 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL c) 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 MSL

a) 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL

(Refer to Fig. 24 below, and Legend 1 on pg. 325) (Refer to Area 1) For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to a) notes on the border of the chart b) the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement c) the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication

b) the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the a) NOTAMs b) Chart Supplement c) Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data

b) Chart Supplement

(Refer to Fig. 24 on pg. 327) (Refer to Area 1) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet? a) 1,010 feet MSL b) 1,273 feet MSL c) 1,283 feet MSL

b) 1,273 feet MSL

C (Refer to Area 2) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet? a) 823 feet MSL b) 1,013 feet MSL c) 1,403 feet MSL

c) 1,403 feet MSL

(Refer to Fig. 25 on pg. 329) What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (Area 2)? a) 4,000 b) 3,000 c) 1,700

b) 3,000

(Refer to Fig.25 on page. 329) (Refer to Area 4) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is a) Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL b) Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL c) Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL

c) Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL

(Refer to Fig. 25 pg. 329) (Refer to Area 3) The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive Airport is a) at the surface b) 3,000 feet MSL c) 3,100 feet MSL

b) 3,000 feet MSL

Refer to Fig. 25 on pg.329) (Refer to Area 7) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to a) 700 feet AGL b) 2,900 feet MSL c) 2,500 feet MSl

b) 2,900 feet MSL

(Refer to Fig. 25 on pg. 331) (Refer to Area 4) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Forth Worth Meacham Field is a) at the surface b) 3,200 feet MSL c) 4,000 feet MSL

c) 4,000 feet MSL

(Refer to Figure 25 on pg. 331) (Refer to Area 5) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a a) VOR b) VORTAC c) VOR/DME

c) VOR/DME

(Refer to Fig. 26 pg. 333) The Devils Lake East MOA (Area 1) is a a) meteorological observation area b) military observation area c) military operations area

c) military operations area

(Refer to FIg. 26 on pg. 333) (Refer to Area 2) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA? a) Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery giring, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles b) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers c) High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity

b) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

(Refer to Fig. 26 pg. 333) (Refer to Area 2) Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport a) Class G airspace-surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL b) Class G airspace -- surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL c) Class G airspace--surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL; Class E airspace -- 700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL

a) Class G airspace-surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace -- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL

(Refer to Fig. 26 on pg. 333) (Refer to Area 2) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are a) 1 mile and clear of clouds b) 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds c) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds

c) 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds

(Refer to Fig 26 on pg. 335) (refer to Area 3) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport a) Class G airspace-surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not inlcuding 18,000 feet MSL b) Class G airspace- surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL c) Class G airspace --surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL; Class E airspace-700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL

a) Class G airspace-surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL; Class E airspace- 1,200 feet AGL up to but not inlcuding 18,000 feet MSL

(Refer to FIg. 26 pg. 335) (Refer to Area 3) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than A) 2,000 feet AGL b) 2,500 feet AGL c) 3,000 feet AGL

A) 2,000 feet AGL

(Refer to Fig. 26 pg.335) (Refer to east of Area 5) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is a) Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace b) Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL c) Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL

c) Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL

(Refer to Fig. 59 on pg. 337) (Refer to Area 2) What kind of airport is Deshier (6D7)? a) a private airport with a grass runway b) a public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface c) an abandoned paced airport having landmark value

b) a public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface

(Refer to Fig. 59 pg. 337) (Refer to Area 3) What is the airspace classification around Findlay (FDY) airport? a) C b) D c) E

a) C

(Refer to Fig. 60 on page 339) The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (Area 5) begins at a) the surface b) 700 feet AGL c) 1,200 feet MSL

b) 700 feet AGL

(Refer to Figure 69 on pg. 339) When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (Area 4) to McCampbell Airport (Area 1) at an altitude of 2,000 feet MSL? a) Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace b) Leaving and entering the alert areas and entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace c) Leaving and entering the alert areas, entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace, and passing through the Cabaniss Field Class D airspace

a) Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace

(Refer to Fig. 70 on pg. 341) When are two-way radio communications required on a lgiht from Gnoss Airport (DVO) (Area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK)(Area 5)at an altitude of 3,500 ft MSL? When entering a) the Class B airspace b) the Livermore Airport Class D airspace c) both the Class B airspace and the Livermore Airport Class D airspace

b) the Livermore Airport Class D airspace

(Refer to Fig 70 on pg. 341) An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (Area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight? a) 6,000 feet MSL b) 4,200 feet MSL C) 3,200 feet MSL

C) 3,200 feet MSL

(Refer to Fig. 71 on pg. 343) (Refer to Area 1) Dubey Airport is a) a privately owned airport restricted to use b) a restricted military stage field within restricted c) an airport restricted to use by sport pilots only

a) a privately owned airport restricted to use

(Refer to Fig. 71 pg. 343)(Refer to Area 6) Sky Way Airport is a) an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots b) a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace c) a nonpublic-use airport

c) a nonpublic-use airport

(Refer to Fig. 74 on pg.345) (Refer to Area 6) The class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of a) both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL b) 10,000 feet MSL c) 2,100 feet AGL

a) both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL

(Refer to Fig. 74 on page 345) (Refer to Area 1) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace? a) 2,503 feet MSL b) 2,901 feet MSL c) 3,297 feet MSL

b) 2,901 feet MSL

(Refer to Fig. 75 on pg. 347) The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (Area 6) is classified as Class A) B b) C c) D

c) D

(Refer to Fig. 75 on pg. 347) What is the dotted outlined area northeast of Gila Bend Airport, near Area 3? A) Restricted airspace b) Military operations areas c) Wilderness area

c) Wilderness area

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chat depicts which class airspace? A) Class B b) Class C c) Class D

c) Class D

Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area? a) When flying on airways with an ATC clearance b) With the controlling agency's authorization c) Regulations do not allow this

b) With the controlling agency's authorization

(Refer to Fig. 78 on pg. 349) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day? a) 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds b) 0 statute miles, clear of clouds c) 1 statue mile, clear of clouds

c) 1 statue mile, clear of clouds

(Refer to Fig.23 below, and legend 1 on pg. 351) (Refer to Area 3) For information about glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to a) notes on the border of the chart b) the Chart Supplement c) the Notices of Airmen (NOTAM) publication

b) the Chart Supplement

(Refer to Fig. 23 on pg. 353) (Refer to Area 3) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International? a) 1, 498 feet MSL b) 1,531 feet AGL c) 1,548 feet MSL

c) 1,548 feet MSL

(Refer to Fig. 23 on pg. 353) (Refer to Area 3) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle) ? a) 1,200 feet AGL b) 1,300 feet MSL c) 1,700 feet MSL

b) 1,300 feet MSL

(Refer to Fig. 23 on pg. 353) (Refer to Area 3) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010 degree radial is a) 454 feet MSL b) 429 feet AGL C0414 feet MSL

a) 454 feet MSL

(Refer to Fig. 23 on pg. 353) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are a) outer boundaries of Savvannah Class C airspace b) airports with special traffic patterns c) visual checkpoints to identify position of initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace

c) visual checkpoints to identify position of initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace

Refer to Fig. 20 on pg. 355) (Refer to Area 5) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft? a) Unmarked blimp hangars at 308 feet MSL b) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet AGL c) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL

c) Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,008 feet MSL

(Refer to Fig. 20 on pg. 355) (Refer to Area 2) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a a) compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C b) compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport c) visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control

c) visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control

(Refer to Fig. 21 on pg. 359) Which public use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel? a) Minot Int'l (Area 1) b) Garrison (Area 2) c) Mercer County Regional Airport (Area 3)

a) Minot Int'l (Area 1)

(Refer to Fig. 24 on pg. 357) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel? a) Commerce (Area 6) and Rockwall (Area 1) b) Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5) c) Commerce (Area 6) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5)

b) Rockwall (Area 1) and Sulphur Springs (Area 5)

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of a) 25 miles b) 20 miles c) 10 miles

c) 10 miles

(Refer to Fig. 25 on pg. 361) (Refer to Area 3) If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? a) 127.25 MHz b) 122.95 MHz c) 126.35 MHz

a) 127.25 MHz

(Refer to Fig. 25 on pg. 361) (Refer to Area 2) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is a) 122.95 MHz b) 126.0 MHz c) 133.4 MHz

b) 126.0 MHz

(Refer to Fig. 26 on pg. 363) (Refer to Area 2) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport? a) Boradcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz b) Contact UNICOM when 10 miles out on 122.8 MHz c) Circle the airport in a left turn prior to entering traffic

a) Boradcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz

(Refer to Fig. 26 on pg. 363) (Refer to Area 4) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is a) 122.2 MHz b) 123.0 MHz c) 123.6 MHz

b) 123.0 MHz

(Refer to Fig. 26 on pg. 363) (Refer to Area 5) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport? a) 122.2 MHz b) 122.8 MHz c) 123.6 MHz

b) 122.8 MHz

(Refer to Fig. 20 on pg. 365) (Refer to Area 3) What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport? a) Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure b) Contact Elizabeth City tower on 120.5 c) Radio need not be used

a) Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure

(Refer to Fig. 20 on pg. 365) (Refer to Area 3) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport? a) Transmit intention on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern b) Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service c) Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information

a) Transmit intention on 122.9 MHz when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern

(Refer to Fig. 22 below and fig. 31 on page 367) (Refer to Area 2) At Coeur D' Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions? a) 122.05 MHz b) 122.1/108.8 MHz c) 122.8 MHz

c) 122.8 MHz

(Refer to Fig. 22 below, and Fig. 31 on page 369) (Refer to Area 2 in Fig. 22) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? a) 122.05 MHz b) 135.075 MHz c) 122.8 MHz

c) 122.8 MHz

(Refer to Fig. 31 below, and Fig. 22 on pg. 368) (Refer to Area 2 in Fig. 22) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D' Alene to request fuel? a) 135.075 MHz b) 122.1/108.8 MHz c) 122.8 MHz

c) 122.8 MHz

(Refer to Fig. 22 on pg. 371) Weather information is available at the Coeur d' Alene (COE) Airport (Area 2) a) over the VOR frequency 108.8 b) from AWOS 3 135.075 c) from UNICOM (CTAF) on 122.8

b) from AWOS 3 135.075

(Refer to Area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is A.122.8 MHz. B.122.9 MHz. C.123.0 MHz.

B.122.9 MHz.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically relate to Air Traffic and General Operating Rules are issued under which subject number? a) 60 b) 70 c) 90

c) 90

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airman are issued under which subject number? a) 60 b) 70 c) 90

a) 60

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number? a) 60 b) 70 c) 90

b) 70

3) FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number? A. 60 B. 70 C. 90

B. 70

(Refer to Fig. 63 below) According to the Chart Supplement, what times can a pilot obtain fuel and services in September at Toledo Express (TOL) Airport? a) 0900-0100 hr. local time b) 1300-0500 hr. local time c) 0800-0000 hr. local time

c) 0800-0000 hr. local time

(Refer to Figure 52 on pg. 373) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with a) Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz b) Minneapolis Center on 128.75MHz c) Lincoln Tower on 118.5 MHz

a) Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz

(Refer to Fig. 52 on pg. 373) Traffic Patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are a) to the right on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the left on Runway 18 and Runway 35 b) to the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35 c) to the right on Runway 14-32

b) to the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35

(Refer to Figure 52 on pg. 373) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal? a) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation b) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation c) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.

c) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.

(Refer to Fig. 52 on pg. 373) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation? a) Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz b) Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories c) Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz

a) Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz

(Refer to Fig. 52 below) Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city? a) Northwest approximately 4 miles b) Northwest approximately 1 mile c) East approximately 7 miles

b) Northwest approximately 1 mile

Fig 81 Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W107°38.62'). Is fuel ever available at Crawford Airport? A.Yes, whenever the airport is attended by airport personnel. B.No, as there is no "star" symbol near the airport on the chart, there is no fuel available at this airport. C.Yes, 100LL fuel is available for emergency use only.

C.Yes, 100LL fuel is available for emergency use only.

Fig 80 and 81 Refer to Crawford Airport (N38°42.25' W107°38.62'). What is the traffic pattern for Runway 25? A.Right hand traffic pattern. B.Left hand traffic pattern. C.It does not matter because it is an uncontrolled airport.

A.Right hand traffic pattern.

legend 14 What is the acronym for a computerized command response system that provides automated weather, radio check capability, and airport advisory information selected from an automated menu by microphone clicks? A.GCA. B.AUNICOM. C.UNICOM.

B.AUNICOM.

Legend 15 Chart Supplement What depicts a Class E airspace that begins at 700 feet AGL? A.A dashed blue circle around an airport. B.A solid magenta circle around an airport. C.A magenta vignette that goes around an airport.

C.A magenta vignette that goes around an airport.

Legend 16 Chart Supplement If the SSV Class of VORTAC is listed as a Terminal Class, the altitudes and distance to adequately receive the signal of the VORTAC is A.1,000 feet to 12,000 feet and 25 NM. B.1,000 feet to 18,000 feet and 40 NM. C.1,000 feet up to 60,000 feet and up to 130 NM.

A.1,000 feet to 12,000 feet and 25 NM.

Legend 17 Chart Supplement According to the Chart Supplement, what are the operational requirements of a VORTAC? A.VHF navigational facility with omnidirectional course only. B.Collocated VOR navigational facility and UHF standard distance measuring equipment. C.Collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities.

C.Collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities.

You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an "Airport surface hot spot?" A.Call the Automated Flight Service Station. B.In the Chart Supplements U.S. C.In the NOTAMs during your preflight briefing.

B.In the Chart Supplements U.S.

To avoid landing at the wrong airport or runway, pilots should A.consult the Aeronautical Information Manual. B.consult airport diagrams and Chart Supplements. C.contact the airport UNICOM frequency for runway advisory.

B.consult airport diagrams and Chart Supplements.

What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publications (NTAP)? a) All current NOTAMs only b) Current NOTAMs (D) distributions c) Current Chart Supplement information and FDC NOTAMs

b) Current NOTAMs (D) distributions

When information is disseminated about a taxiway closure, it will be located in A.Pointer NOTAMs. B.FDC NOTAMs. C.NOTAM (D) distribution.

C.NOTAM (D) distribution.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs? A.To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time. B.To provide the latest information on the status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled broadcasts. C.To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.

C.To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedures (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.

Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)? A.Aeronautical Information Manual, aeronautical charts, and Distant (D) NOTAMs. B. Chart Supplement and FDC NOTAMs. C.Supplement and (D) NOTAMS

C.Supplement and (D) NOTAMS

Where can locations for VOR test facilities be found? a) Aeronautical Information Manual b) Sectional charts c) Chart Supplement

c) Chart Supplement

When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read a) 180 degree FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the VOT b) 0 degrees TO or 180 degrees FROM, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT c) 0 degrees FROM or 180 degrees TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT

c) 0 degrees FROM or 180 degrees TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT

What should the airborne accuracy of a VOR be? a) +- 4 degrees b) +- 5 degrees c) +- 6 degrees

c) +- 6 degrees

5. (Refer to Figure 20 on page 369.) What is your approximate position on low altitude airway Victor 1, southwest of Norfolk (area 1), if the VOR receiver indicates you are on the 340° radial of Elizabeth City VOR (area 3)? A. 15 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC. B. 18 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC. C. 23 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC.

B. 18 nautical miles from Norfolk VORTAC.

6. (Refer to Figure 28 below, and Figure 20 on page 369.) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR/DME (area 3 in Figure 20), and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro, a small town 3 NM west of Currituck County Regional (ONX). Which VOR indication is correct? A. 5 B. 2 C. 8

A. 5

(Refer to Figure 24 above.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 245° radial of Sulphur Springs VOR-DME (area 5) and the 140° radial of Bonham VORTAC (area 3)? A. Glenmar Airport. B. Caddo Mills Airport. C. Majors Airport.

A. Glenmar Airport.

9. (Refer to Figure 28 above, and Figure 24 on page 371.) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3 in Figure 24) and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5 in Figure 24). Which VOR indication is correct? A. 1 B. 8 C. 7

C. 7

12. (Refer to Figure 28 below, and Figure 26 on page 373.) The VOR is tuned to Jamestown VOR (area 4 in Figure 26), and the aircraft is positioned over Cooperstown Airport (area 2 in Figure 26.). Which VOR indication is correct? A. 9 B. 2 C. 4

C. 4

11. (Refer to Figure 28 below.) (Refer to illustration 3.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft’s position relative to the station? A. East. B. Southeast. C. West.

B. Southeast.

Refer to Figure 28 below.) (Refer to illustration 5.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing? A. 030°. B. 210°. C. 300°.

A. 030°.

8. (Refer to Figure 28 below.) (Refer to illustration 8.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft’s position relative to the station? A. North. B. East. C. South.

C. South.

4. (Refer to Figure 23 on page 367.) What is the approximate position of the aircraft if the VOR receivers indicate the 340° radial of Savannah VORTAC (area 3) and the 184° radial of Allendale VOR (area 1)? A. Town of Guyton. B. Town of Springfield. C. 3 miles east of Briggs.

B. Town of Springfield.

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 374.) (Refer to area 5.) The VOR is tuned to the Dallas/Fort Worth VOR. The omnibearing selector (OBS) is set on 253°, with a TO indication, and a right course deviation indicator (CDI) deflection. What is the aircraft’s position from the VOR? A. East-northeast. B. North-northeast. C. West-southwest

A. East-northeast.

When navigating using only VOR/DME based RNAV, selection of a VOR NAVAID that does not have DME service will a) result in a loss of RNAV capability b) have no effect on navigation capability c) not impact navigation provided enough GPS is operating

a) result in a loss of RNAV capability

How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three-dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and time solution? a) 5 b) 6 c) 4

c) 4

If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) capability is lost in-flight a) the pilot may still rely on GPS derived altitude for vertical information b) the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position c) GPS position is reliable provided at least 3 GPS satellites are available

b) the pilot has no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position

Which of the following is a true statement concerning the Global Positioning System? a) advances in technology make it possible to rely comply on GPS units b) GPS database and paper navigational charts are updated at the same time c) Navigating by GPS must be integrated with other forms of navigation

c) Navigating by GPS must be integrated with other forms of navigation

The Global Positioning System is a) ground based b) satellite based c) antenna based

b) satellite based

What is a consideration when using a hand-held GPS for VFR navigation? a) Position accuracy may degrade without notification b) RAIM capability will be maintained for entire flight c) Waypoints will still be accurate even if database is not current

a) Position accuracy may degrade without notification

What procedure could a pilot use to navigate under VFR from one point to another when ground references are not visible? a) Dead reckoning b) Pilotage c) VFR is not allowed in these circumstances

a) Dead reckoning

If more than one cruising altitude is intended, which should be entered in item 15, "Level" of the flight plan? A. Initial cruising altitude B. Highest cruising altitude C. Lowest Cruising altitude

A. Initial cruising altitude

1) If more than one cruising altitude is intended, which should be entered in item 15, "Level," of the flight plan? a)Initial cruising altitude. b)Highest cruising altitude. c)Lowest cruising altitude.

a)Initial cruising altitude.

3) What information should be entered into item 16, "Destination Aerodrome," for a VFR day flight? a)The destination airport identifier code and name of the FBO where the airplane will be parked. b)The destination airport identifier code. c)The destination city and state.

b)The destination airport identifier code.

4) What information should be entered in item 19, "Endurance," for a VFR day flight? a)The actual time en route expressed in hours and minutes. b)The estimated time en route expressed in hours and minutes. c)The total amount of usable fuel onboard expressed in hours and minutes.

c)The total amount of usable fuel onboard expressed in hours and minutes.

5) What information should be entered in item 16, "Destination Aerodrome," for a VFR day flight? a)The ICAO four-letter indicator of the airport of first intended landing. b)The ICAO four-letter indicator of destination airport if no stopover for more than 1 hour is anticipated. c)The ICAO four-letter indicator of the airport where the aircraft is based.

b)The ICAO four-letter indicator of destination airport if no stopover for more than 1 hour is anticipated.

What information should be entered in item 19, "Endurance," for a VFR day flight? a)The estimated time en route plus 30 minutes. b)The estimated time en route plus 45 minutes. c)The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time.

c)The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time.

The International Flight Plan, FAA Form 7233-4, is used a)only for international flights under VFR or IFR. b)for domestic and international flights under VFR and IFR. c)only for flights within 30 NM of the DC SFRA.

b)for domestic and international flights under VFR and IFR.

If you are going to conduct a flight partially under VFR and partially under IFR, you should a)file two flight plans, one for each portion of the flight. b)specify which part of the flight plan will be VFR and which part will be IFR in item 18, Other Information. c)enter both "V" and "I" in item 8, Flight Rules.

a)file two flight plans, one for each portion of the flight.

The International Flight Plan, FAA Form 7233-4, is used a) only for international flights under VFR or IFR. b)for domestic and international flights under VFR and IFR. c)only for flights within 30 NM of the DC SFRA.

b)for domestic and international flights under VFR and IFR.

How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport? a)The tower will automatically close the flight plan when the aircraft turns off the runway. b)The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing. c)The tower will relay the instructions to the nearest FSS when the aircraft contacts the tower for landing.

B)close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing.

During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft as safe for flight? a) The pilot in command b) The owner or operator c) The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection

a) The pilot in command

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition? a) Pilot-in-command b) Owner or operator c) Mechanic

b) Owner or operator

How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day? a) Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil b) Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer c) Any sequence as determined

b) Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer

Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain? a) Constant altitude and airspeed b) Constant angle of attack c) Level flight attitude

c) Level flight attitude

The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to a) immediately established the proper gliding attitude and airspeed b) quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion c) determine the wind direction to plan for the forced landing

a) immediately established the proper gliding attitude and airspeed

When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed will a) increase the chances of shock cooling the engine b) assure the proper descent angle is maintained until entering the flare c) nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot

c) nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot

VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished a) at a higher airspeed b) with a steeper descent c) the same as during daytime

c) the same as during daytime

If you experience an engine failure in a single-engine aircraft after takeoff, you should a) establish the proper glide attitude b) turn into the wind c) adjust the pitch to maintain Vy

a) establish the proper glide attitude

18) When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used? a)Aileron down on the downwind side. b)Ailerons neutral. c)Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.

c)Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.

19) Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds? a)Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing. b)Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing. c)Ailerons neutral.

a)Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.

Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane? a)Quartering tailwind. b)Direct crosswind. c)Quartering headwind.

a)Quartering tailwind

(Refer to area A.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind? a)Left aileron up, elevator neutral. b)Left aileron down, elevator neutral. c)Left aileron up, elevator down.

b)Left aileron down, elevator neutral.

How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind? a)Left aileron up, elevator neutral. b)Left aileron down, elevator down. c)Left aileron up, elevator down.

a)Left aileron up, elevator neutral.

How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind? a)Right aileron up, elevator up. b)Right aileron down, elevator neutral. c)Right aileron up, elevator down.

a)Right aileron up, elevator up.

How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind? a)Left aileron up, elevator neutral. b)Left aileron down, elevator neutral. c)Left aileron down, elevator down.

c)Left aileron down, elevator down.

25) The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is a)magnetic deviation. b)magnetic variation. c)compass acceleration error.

b)magnetic variation.

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is A. Magnetic deviation b. Magnetic variation C. Compass acceleration error

b. Magnetic variation

(Refer to Figure 23 on page 393.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)? A. 015°. B. 195°. C. 201°.

B. 195°.

(Refer to Figure 20 on page 395.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2). A. 141°. B. 321°. C. 331°.

C. 331°.

(Refer to Figure 26 on page 397.) Determine the magnetic course from Cooperstown Airport (area 2) to Jamestown Airport (area 4). A. 030°. B. 218°. C. 210°.

C. 210°.

What course should be selected on the omnibearing selector (OBS) to make a direct flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to the Minot VORTAC (area 1) with a TO indication? A. 359°. B. 179°. C. 001°.

A. 359°.

(Refer to Figure 24 on page 401.) Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E. A. 075°. B. 082°. C. 091°.

A. 075°.

(Refer to Figure 24 on page 401.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)? A. 101°. B. 108°. C. 281°.

A. 101°.

(Refer to Figure 24 on page 401.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Majors Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340° at 12 knots, the true airspeed is 136 knots, and the magnetic variation is 6° 30'E. A. 091°. B. 095°. C. 099°.

A. 091°.

(Refer to Figure 21 on page 403.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and the magnetic variation is 10°E. A. 002°. B. 012°. C. 352°.

C. 352°.

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 405.) What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. A. 121°. B. 143°. C. 136°.

A. 121°.

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 405.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots. A. 330°. B. 325°. C. 345°.

A. 330°.

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 405.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4). The wind is from 215° at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 125 knots. A. 352°. B. 172°. C. 166°.

B. 172°.

If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from A. 019° and 12 knots. B. 200° and 13 knots. C. 246° and 13 knots.

C. 246° and 13 knots.

When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should A. subtract easterly variation and right wind correction angle. B. add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle. C. subtract westerly variation and add right wind correction angle.

B. add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 407.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth Meacham (area 4) to Denton Muni (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7°E. A. 003°. B. 017°. C. 023°.

A. 003°.

(Refer to Figure 23 on page 409.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind is from 090° at 16 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots. Magnetic variation is 7°W. A. 230°. B. 213°. C. 210°.

C. 210°.

(Refer to Figure 58 below, and Figure 23 on page 409.) Determine the compass heading for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1). The wind is from 280° at 8 knots, and the true airspeed is 85 knots. Magnetic variation is 7°W. A. 033°. B. 044°. C. 038°.

B. 044°.

How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots? A. 2.45 NM. B. 3.35 NM. C. 4.08 NM.

C. 4.08 NM.

How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots? A. 14.25 NM. B. 15.00 NM. C. 14.50 NM.

A. 14.25 NM.

On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule. Distance between A and B 70 NM Forecast wind 310° at 15 kt. Pressure altitude 8,000 ft. Ambient temperature –10°C True course 270° The required indicated airspeed would be approximately A. 126 knots. B. 137 knots. C. 152 knots.

B. 137 knots.

(Refer to Figure 21 on page 411.) What is the estimated time en route from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind is from 330° at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots. Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and climb- out. A. 45 minutes. B. 48 1/2 minutes. C. 52 minutes.

B. 48 1/2 minutes.

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 413.) Determine the estimated time en route for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3). The wind is from 030 at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out. A. 29 minutes. B. 27 minutes. C. 31 minutes.

C. 31 minutes.

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 413.) What is the estimated time en route from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4)? The wind is from 215° at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots. A. 38 minutes. B. 30 minutes. C. 34 minutes.

C. 34 minutes.

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 413.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1)? The wind is from 300° at 14 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots. Add 3 minutes for climb-out. A. 38 minutes. B. 43 minutes. C. 48 minutes.

B. 43 minutes.

(Refer to Figure 23 on page 415.) While en route on Victor 185, a flight crosses the 248° radial of Allendale VOR at 0953 and then crosses the 216° radial of Allendale VOR at 1000. What is the estimated time of arrival at Savannah VORTAC? A. 1023. B. 1028. C. 1036.

B. 1028.

(Refer to Figure 23 on page 415.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2)? The wind is from 100° at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 115 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out. A. 33 minutes. B. 27 minutes. C. 30 minutes.

C. 30 minutes.

(Refer to Figure 23 on page 415.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1)? The wind is from 290° at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 85 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out. A. 35 minutes. B. 39 minutes. C. 43 minutes.

B. 39 minutes.

(Refer to Figure 24 on page 417.) Estimate the time en route from Majors Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). The wind is from 340° at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 136 knots. Magnetic variation is 5° east. A. 17 minutes 30 seconds. B. 14 minutes 30 seconds. C. 19 minutes.

A. 17 minutes 30 seconds.

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 419.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Denton (area 1) to Addison (area 2)? The wind is from 200° at 20 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east. A. 13 minutes. B. 16 minutes. C. 19 minutes.

A. 13 minutes.

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 419.) Estimate the time en route from Addison (area 2) to Dallas Executive (area 3). The wind is from 300° at 15 knots, the true airspeed is 120 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east. A. 8 minutes. B. 11 minutes. C. 14 minutes.

A. 8 minutes.

(Refer to Figure 20 below.) En route to First Flight Airport (area 5), your flight passes over Hampton Roads Airport (area 2) at 1456 and then over Chesapeake Regional at 1501. At what time should your flight arrive at First Flight? A. 1516. B. 1521. C. 1526.

C. 1526.

(Refer to Figure 68 below.) The line from point A to point B of the wind triangle represents A. true heading and airspeed. B. true course and groundspeed. C. groundspeed and true heading.

A. true heading and airspeed.

(Refer to Figure 68 below.) The line from point C to point B of the wind triangle represents A. airspeed and heading. B. groundspeed and true course. C. true heading and groundspeed.

B. groundspeed and true course.

(Refer to Figure 68 below.) The line from point C to point A of the wind triangle represents A. wind direction and velocity. B. true course and groundspeed. C. true heading and groundspeed.

A. wind direction and velocity.

(Refer to Figure 27 below.) An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? A. 1345Z. B. 1445Z. C. 1545Z.

A. 1345Z.

(Refer to Figure 27 below.) An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at 1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? A. 2030Z. B. 2130Z. C. 2230Z.

C. 2230Z.

(Refer to Figure 27 on page 422.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what time? A. 0930 MST. B. 1030 MST. C. 1130 MST.

B. 1030 MST.

(Refer to Figure 27 on page 422.) An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time? A. 1345Z. B. 1445Z. C. 1645Z.

C. 1645Z.

(Refer to Figure 27 on page 422.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1615 MST for a 2-hour 15-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. The estimated time of arrival at the destination airport should be A. 1630 PST. B. 1730 PST. C. 1830 PST.

B. 1730 PST.

(Refer to Figure 27 on page 422.) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport? A. 1645 PST. B. 1745 PST. C. 1845 PST.

A. 1645 PST.

Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft. A. Aircraft power, pitch, bank, and trim. B. Starting, taxiing, takeoff, and landing. C. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

C. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

(Refer to Figure 62 below.) In flying the rectangular course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90°? A. Corners 1 and 4. B. Corners 1 and 2. C. Corners 2 and 4.

A. Corners 1 and 4.

(Refer to Figure 62 above.) In flying the rectangular course, when should the aircraft bank vary from a steep bank to a medium bank? A. Corner 1. B. Corner 3. C. Corner 2 and 3.

B. Corner 3.

(Refer to Figure 66 below.) While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not completed before crossing the road or reference line. This would most likely occur in turn A. 1-2-3 because the bank is decreased too rapidly during the latter part of the turn. B. 4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn. C. 4-5-6 because the bank is increased too slowly during the latter part of the turn.

B. 4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn.

To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the A. direction of motion of the aircraft parallel to the runway. B. longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion. C. downwind wing lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the aircraft to drift.

B. longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.

What should be expected when making a downwind landing? The likelihood of A. undershooting the intended landing spot and a faster airspeed at touchdown. B. overshooting the intended landing spot and a faster groundspeed at touchdown. C. undershooting the intended landing spot and a faster

B. overshooting the intended landing spot and a faster groundspeed at touchdown.