Final Flashcards
When speaking to a flight service weather briefer, you should state
A. the pilot in command’s fulll name and address
B. A summary of your qualifications
C. whether the flight is VFR or IFR
C. whether the flight is VFR or IFR
To get a complete weather briefing for the planning flight, the pilot should request:
a) a general briefing
b) an abbreviated briefing
c) a standard briefing
a) a general briefing
Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?
a) outlook briefing
b) abbreviated briefing
c) standard briefing
c) standard briefing
A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is:
a) an outlook briefing
b) a forecast briefing
c) a prognostic briefing
a) an outlook briefing
What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?
a) The intended route of flight radio frequencies
b) The intended route of flight and destination
c) The address of the pilot in command
b) The intended route of flight and destination
When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request:
a) an outlook briefing
b) a standard briefing
c) an abbreviated breifing
a) an outlook briefing
Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?
a) outlook briefing
b) abbreviated briefing
c) standard briefing
c) standard briefing
You plan to phone a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information. You should:
a) provide the number of occupants on board
b) identify yourself as a pilot
c) begin with your route of flight
a) provide the number of occupants on board
What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?
a) tell the number of occupants on board
b) state their total flight time
c) identify themselves as pilots
c) identify themselves as pilots
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state:
a) the aircraft identification or the pilot’s name
b) true airspeed
c) fuel on board
a) the aircraft identification or the pilot’s name
To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request:
a) an abbreviated briefing
b) a standard briefing
c) an outlook briefing
a) an abbreviated briefing
For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the:
a) lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast.
b) lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
c) lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken, or thin.
b) lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
what are the current conditions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?
A. Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, rain
B. Sky 7000feet overcast visibility 1-1/2 SM, heavy rain
C. Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM heavy rain
A. Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, rain
The wind direction & velocity @ KJFK is from (18004KT)
A.180 degrees true @ 4 knots.
B.180 degrees magnetic @ 4 knots.
C. 040 degrees true at 18 knots
A.180 degrees true @ 4 knots.
What are the wind conditions @ Wink, Texas (KINK)? (11012G18KT)
A.Calm
B.110 degrees @ 12 knots, peak gusts 18 knots.
C.111 degress @ 12 knots, gusts 18 knots
B.110 degrees @ 12 knots, peak gusts 18 knots.
The remarks section for KMDW has RAB35 listed. This entry means
a) blowing mist has reduced the visibility to 1-1/2 SM
b) rain began at 1835Z
c) the barometer has risen .35 inches Hg
b) rain began at 1835Z
Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?
a) All
b) KINK, KBOI, and KJFK
c) KINK, KBOI, and KLAX
c) KINK, KBOI, and KLAX
If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling?
a) 505 feet AGL
b) 1,295 feet AGL
c) 6,586 feet AGL
a) 505 feet AGL
The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are
a) 1,800 feet MSL and 5,500 feel MSL
b) 5,500 feet AGL and 7,200 feet MSL
c) 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL
c) 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL
The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is
a) moderate from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet
b) moderate at 5,500 feet and at 7,200 feet
c) light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet
c) light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet
The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are
a) 080 degrees at 21 knots and -7 degrees Celsius
b) 090 degrees at 21 MPH and -9 degrees Fahrenheit
c) 090 degrees at 21 knots and -9 degrees Celsius
a) 080 degrees at 21 knots and -7 degrees Celsius
The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is
a) light to moderate rime
b) light to moderate
c) light to moderate clear
a) light to moderate rime
What is the base of the ceiling in the following pilot report?
KMOB UA/OV APE230010/TM 1515/FL085/TP
BE20/SK BKN065/WX FV03SM HZ FU/TA 20/TB
LGT
A. There is not a defined ceiling in this report
B. There is a layer reported at 8,500 feet
C.there is a broken layer at 6,500 feet
C) there is a broken layer at 6,500 feet
What is indicated by the following report?
TYR UUA/OV TYR180015/TM 1757/FL310/TP B737/TB MOD-SEV CAT 350-390
A.A special METAR issued on the 18th day of the month at 1757Z
B.A routine pilot report for overcast conditions from flight levels 350-390
C.An urgent pilot report for moderate to severe clear air turbulence
C.An urgent pilot report for moderate to severe clear air turbulence
In the TAF for KMEM, what does “SHRA” stand for?
A.A significant change in precipitation is possible
B.Rain showers
C.A shift in wind direction is expected
B.Rain showers
Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be?
A.6 statute miles
B.3 statute miles
C.1/2 statute mile
B.3 statute miles
In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes
|
A.overcast at 200 feet with a 40 percent probability of becoming overcast at 600 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z
B.overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z
C.overcast at 200 feet with the probability of becoming overcast at 400 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z
B.overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z
During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC?
A. Greater than 6 statute miles
B.Possibly 6 statute miles
C.Not forecasted
B.Greater than 6 statute miles
What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?
A.1200Z to 1200Z
B.1200Z to 1800Z
C. 1800Z to 2400Z
C. 1800Z to 2400Z
What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast?
A. Variable in direction at 4 knots
B.Variable in direction at 6 knots
C.No significant wind
B.Variable in direction at 6 knots
In the TAF from KOKC, the “FM (FROM) Group” is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from
A.180° at 10 knots, becoming 200° at 13 knots
B. 180° at 10 knots
C.160° at 10 knots
B.180° at 10 knots
In the following METAR/TAF for HOU, what is the ceiling and visibility forecast on the 7th day of the month at 0600Z?
KHOU 061734Z 0618/0718 16014G22KT P6SM VCSH BKN018 BKN035
FM070100 17010KT P6SM BKN015 OVC025
FM070500 17008KT 4SM BR SCT008 OVC012
FM071000 18005KT 3SM BR OVC007
FM071500 23008KT 5SM BR VCSH SCT008 OVC015
A.4 nautical miles of visibility and an overcast ceiling at 700 feet MSL
B.Visibility 6 miles with a broken ceiling at 15,000 feet MSL
C.4 statute miles visibility and an overcast ceiling at 1,200 feet AGL
C.4 statute miles visibility and an overcast ceiling at 1,200 feet AGL
The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is
A.Scattered cumulus
B.Cumulonimbus
C.Nimbostratus
B.Cumulonimbus
Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate
A. location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and trend
B. location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation
C.large areas of low ceilings and fog
location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation
B.location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation
How should contact be established with a Flight Service Station, and what service would be expected?
A.Call Flight Service on 122.2 for routine weather, current reports on hazardous weather, and altimeter settings
B.Call Flight Service on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route
C.Call flight assistance on 122.5 for advisory service pertaining to severe weather
A.Call Flight Service on 122.2 for routine weather, current reports on hazardous weather, and altimeter settings
What service should a pilot normally expect from Flight Service?
A.Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route
B.Local information about restaurants, hotels, and rental car services
C.Preferential routing and radar vectoring to circumnavigate severe weather
A.Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route
En route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
A.122.2 MHz
B.122.1 MHz
C.123.6 MHz
A.122.2 MHz
How could you receive in-flight weather information about your destination while still 150 NM away?
A. Tune your frequency and listen to the ATIS for your destination.
B. Review the destination METAR and TAF through FIS-B.
C. Contact Flight Service on the frequency 121.5.
B. Review the destination METAR and TAF through FIS-B.
(Refer to Figure 17 on page 297) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 ft?
A. 230° magnetic at 39 knots.
B. 230° true at 39 knots.
C. 230° true at 106 knots.
B. 230° true at 39 knots.
(Refer to Figure 17 on page 297) Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for MKC at 6,000 ft.
A. 050° true at 7 knots, temperature missing.
B. 200° magnetic at 6 knots, temperature at +3°C.
C. 200° true at 6 knots, temperature +3°C.
C. 200° true at 6 knots, temperature +3°C.
(Refer to Figure 17 on page 297) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 ft?
A. 230° magnetic at 39 knots.
B. 230° true at 39 knots.
C. 230° true at 106 knots.
B. 230° true at 39 knots.
(Refer to Figure 17 on page 297) Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for DEN at 9,000 ft.
A. 230° magnetic at 53 knots, temperature 47°C.
B. 230° true at 53 knots, temperature -47°C.
C. 230° true at 21 knots, temperature -4°C.
C. 230° true at 21 knots, temperature -4°C.
(Refer to Figure 17 on page 297) What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 ft?
A. 230° magnetic at 25 knots.
B. 230° true at 32 knots.
C. 230° true at 25 knot
B. 230° true at 32 knots.
What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?
A.Magnetic direction and knots
B. Magnetic direction and miles per hour
C.True direction and knots.
C.True direction and knots.
What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?
Magnetic direction and knots
B. Magnetic direction and miles per hour
C.True direction and knots.
C.True direction and knots.
(Refer to figure 20) At what altitude is the freezing level over the middle of Florida on the 12 hour significant weather prognostic chart?
A.4,000 feet
B.8,000 feet
C.12,000 feet
C.12,000 feet
You are preparing for a flight with a planned arrival in southern Georgia at 0600Z. What conditions should you expect when landing?
A.Marginal VFR conditions
B.Instrument meteorological conditions
C.Moderate turbulence
B.Instrument meteorological conditions
How are significant weather prognostic charts best used by a pilot?
A.For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence)
B.For overall planning at all altitudes
C.For analyzing current frontal activity and cloud coverage
A.For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence)
The distance measured in millibars separating isobars on surface analysis charts is typically
A.2MB
B.4 MB
C.6MB
B.4 MB
SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?
A. Small aircraft only
B. Large aircraft only
C. All aircraft
C. All aircraft
AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to
A. only IFR pilots
B.All pilots
C. Only VFR pilots
B.All pilots
Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?
A. Convective SIGMET
B. SIGMET
C.AIRMET
B. SIGMET
What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET
A.Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.
B. Severe icing , severe turbulence , or widespread dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles .
C. Surface winds greater than 40 knots or thunderstorms equal to or greater than video integrator processor (VIP) level 4.
A.Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.
What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms ?*
A. Moderate thunderstorms covering 30 percent
B. Moderate or severe turbulence .
C. Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers
C. Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers
To determine the freezing level and area of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the:
A. Inflight aviation weather advisories
B. CVA Chart
C. Surface analysis chart s
A. Inflight aviation weather advisories
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately?
A. 008° and 026° true.
B. 080° and 260° true.
C. 080° and 260° magnetic.
C. 080° and 260° magnetic.
The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately?
A. 009° and 027° true.
B. 090° and 270° true.
C. 090° and 270° magnetic.
C. 090° and 270° magnetic.
Enhanced taxiway centerline marking are enhanced for a maximum of how many feet prior to the runway holding position marking?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
C. 150
(Refer to Figure 48 on page 79.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?
A. Position E on Runway 30 is available for landing.
B. Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.
C. The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B.
B. Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.
The purpose of an enhanced taxiway centerline is to
A. identify the location of taxiing aircraft during low visibility operations
B. highlight an approaching runway holding position marking
C. supplement location signs in confirming the designation of the taxiway
B. highlight an approaching runway holding position marking
(Refer to Figure 48 on page 79.) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?
A. “A” may be used for taxi and takeoff; “E” may be used only as an overrun.
B. “A” may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; “E” may be used only as an overrun.
C. “A” may be used only for taxiing; “E” may be used for all operations except landings. erm
A. “A” may be used for taxi and takeoff; “E” may be used only as an overrun.
- (Refer to Figure 48 below.) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a
A. stabilized area.
B. multiple heliport.
C. closed runway.
C. closed runway.
(Refer to Figure 48 on page 79.) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for
A. landing.
B. taxiing and takeoff.
C. taxiing and landing
B. taxiing and takeoff.
(Refer to Figure 65 on page 80.) Which sign identifies where aircraft are prohibited from entering?
A. D.
B. G.
C. B.
A. D.
Te7. (Refer to Figure 65 on page 80.) Which sign is a designation and direction of an exit taxiway from a runway? A. J.
B. F.
C. K.
C. K.
(Refer to Figure 65 on page 80.) Which sign identifies where aircraft are prohibited from entering?
A. D.
B. G.
C. B.
A. D
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
a. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
b. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
c. Denotes intersecting runways.
c. Denotes intersecting runways.
What does the outbound destination sign identify?
a. Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
b. Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.
c. Identifies direction to take-off runways.
c. Identifies direction to take-off runways.
- When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
a.May continue taxiing
b.Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance
c.Should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines
b.Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
A) Indicates direction to take-off runway.
B) Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
C) Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
C) Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?
a) provides general taxiing direction to named runway
b) denotes entrance to runway form a taxiway
c) identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located
c) identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located
The ‘yellow demarcation bar’ marking indicates
a) runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway
b) a hold line from a taxiway to a runway
c) the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side
a) runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway
(Refer to Fig 65 pg.90) (Refer to G) From the flight deck, this marking confirms the aircraft to be
a) on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone
b) on a runway, about to clear
c) near an instrument approach clearance zone
b) on a runway, about to clear
A lighted heliport may be identified by a
a) green,yellow, and white rotating beacon
b) flashing yellow light
c) blue lighted square landing area
a) green,yellow, and white rotating beacon
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon the emits
a) white and green alternating flashes
b) two quick, white flashes between green flashes
c) green, yellow, and white flashes
b) two quick, white flashes between green flashes
A lighted heliport may be identified by a
a) green,yellow, and white rotating beacon
b) flashing yellow light
c) blue lighted square landing area
a) green,yellow, and white rotating beacon
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon the emits
a) white and green alternating flashes
b) two quick, white flashes between green flashes
c) green, yellow, and white flashes
b) two quick, white flashes between green flashes
An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
a) there are obstructions on the airport
b) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
c) the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation
b) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
How can a military airport be identified at night?
a) Alternate white and green light flashes
b) Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes
c) White flashing lights with steady green at the same location
b) Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
a) white directional lights
b) blue omnidirectional light
c) alternate red and green lights
b) blue omnidirectional light
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it
a) one time within 4 seconds
b) three times within 3 seconds
c) five times within 5 seconds
c) five times within 5 seconds
(Refer to Fig 49 pg. 95) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on
a) Runway 18 and expected a crosswind from the right
b) Runway 22 directly into the wind
c) Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right
a) Runway 18 and expected a crosswind from the right
(Refer to Fig 49 pg. 95) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area
a) may be used only for taxiing
b) is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing
c) cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff
c) cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff
(Refer to Fig 49 pg. 95) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing
a) Left-hand traffic and Runway 18
b) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18
c) Left-hand traffic and Runway 22
b) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18
(Refer to Fig 49 pg. 95) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing
a) Left-hand traffic and Runway 18
b) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18
c) Left-hand traffic and Runway 22
b) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18
(Refer to Fig 50 pg. 96) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle
a) Right-hand traffic on Runway 9
b) Right-hand traffic on Runway 18
c) Left-hand traffic on Runway 36
c) Left-hand traffic on Runway 36
(Refer to Fig 50 pg. 96) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is
a) left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18
b) left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36
c) right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27
a) left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18
(Refer to Fig 50 pg. 96) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the
a) south of the airport
b) north of the airport
c) southeast of the airport
a) south of the airport
(Refer to Fig 50 pg. 96) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 be with a
a) right-quartering headwind
b) left-quartering headwind
c) right-quartering tailwind
a) right-quartering headwind
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at noncontrolled airport
a) Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary
b) Make all turns to the left
c) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport
c) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
a) 45 degrees to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude
b) to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude
c) to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg
b) to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude
You are on approach to land on Runway 19 of a non-towered airport. You observe ripples on the southeast side of a small lake 3/4 mi. east of the airport. What is the most appropriate course of action?
A.Proceed with approach to Runway 19
B.Maneuver for an approach to Runway 01
C.Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway.
C.Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway.
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall
a) maintain an altitude the captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold
b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
c) remain on the glide slope and land between to two-light bar
b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
a) pulsating white light
b) steady white light
c) pulsating red light
c) pulsating red light
While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
a) maintain a 3 degree glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI
b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing
c) stay high the runway can be reached in a power-off landing
b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
a) Runway identification and course guidance
b) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
c) lateral course guidance to the runway
b) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
a) Runway identification and course guidance
b) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
c) lateral course guidance to the runway
b) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
a) maintain a 3 degree glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI
b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing
c) stay high the runway can be reached in a power-off landing
b) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing
(Refer to Fig 47 pg. 98) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is
a) below the glide slope
b) on the glide slope
c) above the glide slope
b) on the glide slope
(Refer to Fig 47 pg. 98) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is
a) above the glide path
b) below the glide path
c) on the glide path
b) below the glide path
(Refer to Fig 47 pg. 98) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is
a) off course to the left
b) above the glide slope
c) below the glide slope
b) above the glide slope
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
a) Runway identification and course guidance
b) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
c) lateral course guidance to the runway
b) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
a) four white lights
b) three white lights and one red light
c) two white lights and two red lights
b) three white lights and one red light
Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
a) operating at high airspeeds
b) heavily loaded
c) developing lift
c) developing lift
Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
a) operating at high airspeeds
b) heavily loaded
c) developing lift
c) developing lift
(Refer to Fig 48 pg. 100) With winds reported as from 300 degrees at 4 knots, you are given instructions to a taxi to runway 30 for departure and to expect to take off after an airliner, which is departing from runway 35L. What effect would you expect from the airliner’s vortices?
a) The winds will push the vortices into your takeoff path
b) The crosswind will prevent lateral movement of the vortices
c) The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate
a) The winds will push the vortices into your takeoff path
When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
a) rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path
b) rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport
c) sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence
c) sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence
When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
a) above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown point
b) below the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown point
c) above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown point
a) above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown point
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a
a) light, quartering headwind
b) light , quartering tailwind
c) strong headwind
b) light , quartering tailwind
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
a) Inward, upward, and around each tip
b) Inward, upward, and counterclockwise
c) Outward, upward, and around each tip
c) Outward, upward, and around each tip
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
a) Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown
b) Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath
c) Stay well below its final approach fligthpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind
a) Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
a) light, dirty, and fast
b) heavy, dirty, and fast
c) heavy, clean, and slow
c) heavy, clean, and slow
When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
a) below and downwind from the heavy aircraft
b) above and upwind from the heavy aircraft
c) below and upwind from the heavy aircraft
b) above and upwind from the heavy aircraft
Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices you should fly
a) at the same altitude as the large aircraft
b) below the altitude of the large aircraft
c) above the flight path of the large aircraft
c) above the flight path of the large aircraft
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light a head and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left
b) The other aircraft is crossing to the right
c) The other aircraft is approaching head-on
a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light a head and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left
b) The other aircraft is crossing to the right
c) The other aircraft is approaching head-on
a) The other aircraft is crossing to the left
During a night flight, you observe a steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a) The other aircraft is flying away from you
b) the other aircraft is crossing to the left
c) the other aircraft is approaching head-on
c) the other aircraft is approaching head-on
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft ?
a) The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate
b) The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space
c) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft
c) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft
Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should
a) not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second
b) be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds
c) use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing
a) not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use
a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’ clock positions
b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degree sector
c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing
c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use
a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’ clock positions
b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing
b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
a) check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications
b) visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
c) announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF
b) visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
a) execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace
b) advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes
c) Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude
a) execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use
a) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’ clock positions
b) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degree sector
c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing
c) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing
Most midair collision accidents occur during
a) hazy days
b) clear days
c) cloudy nights
b) clear days
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
a) the controlling agency
b) all pilot
c) Air Traffic Control
b) all pilot
The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating
a) in Class B airspace
b) in conditions of reduced visibility
c) within 15 miles of a towered airport
b) in conditions of reduced visibility
It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least
a) 50 feet or less to another aircraft
b) 500 feet or less to another aircraft
c) 1000 feet or less to another aircraft
b) 500 feet or less to another aircraft
- ADS-B equipment is not required for aircraft in
flight above 10,000 ft. MSL
A. because Class A airspace begins at
18,000 ft. MSL.
B. while that flight is still being conducted below
2,500 ft. AGL.
C. because the equipment is not required above
this altitude.
B
B. while that flight is still being conducted below
2,500 ft. AGL.
Can aircraft without ADS-B Out equipment
overfly Class C airspace?
A. Yes, as long as contact with the controlling
facility is maintained for the duration of the
overflight.
B. Yes, if flight is maintained at or above
10,000 ft. MSL.
C. Yes, but only in exceptional circumstances
because flight over Class C airspace is
not permitted without appropriate ADS-B
equipment.
C. Yes, but only in exceptional circumstances
because flight over Class C airspace is
not permitted without appropriate ADS-B
equipment.
ADS-B equipment offers many benefits to
pilots; however, the range of coverage for air traffic
controllers is
A. limited, and often worse than radar.
B. restricted in remote areas such as
mountainous terrain,
C. often better than radar, even in remote areas.
C. often better than radar, even in remote areas
Any airspace that requires the use of a
transponder also requires aircraft to be
A. equipped with specific ADS-B Out equipment.
B. on a VFR flight plan with ADS-B Out in the
transmit mode at all times.
C. on an IFR flight plan with ADS-B Out
equipment.
A. equipped with specific ADS-B Out equipment.
Onboard ADS-B Out equipment is useful to pilots
and ATC controllers
A. all the time, even when aircraft are positioned
on the airport surface.
B. any time the aircraft is above 2,500 ft. AGL
C. only during the times ATC requires it to be
active
A. all the time, even when aircraft are positioned
on the airport surface.
When should ADS-B equipment be operated on
the ground while taxiing?
A. Only when ATC specifically requests your
ADS-B equipment be activated.
B. Any time when the airport is operating under
IF conditions.
C. All the time when on the airport surface.
C. All the time when on the airport surface.
- After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when
should the pilot contact ground control?
A. When advised by the tower to do so.
B. Prior to turning off the runway.
C. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to
the parking area.
A. When advised by the tower to do so.
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS)
is the continuous broadcast of recorded information
concerning
A. pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft
is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an
obstruction.
B. nonessential information to reduce frequency
congestion.
C. noncontrol information in selected high-
activity terminal areas.
C. noncontrol information in selected high-
activity terminal areas.
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an
ATIS broadcast indicates that
A. weather conditions are at or above VFR
minimums.
B. the sky condition is clear and visibility is
unrestricted.
C. the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is
5 miles or more.
C. the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is
5 miles or more.
When a control tower located on an airport within
Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what
happens to the airspace designation?
A. The airspace designation normally will not
change.
B. The airspace remains Class D airspace as
long as a weather observer or automated
weather system is available.
C. The airspace reverts to Class E or a
combination of Class E and G airspace during
the hours the tower is not in operation.
C. The airspace reverts to Class E or a
combination of Class E and G airspace during
the hours the tower is not in operation.
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same
Class D airspace as that designated for the
primary airport, requires radio communications be
established and maintained with the
A. satellite airport’s UNICOM.
B. associated Flight Service Station.
C. primary airport’s control tower.
C. primary airport’s control tower.
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are
based on
A. the number of airports that lie within the
Class D airspace.
B. 5 statute miles from the geographical center
of the primary airport.
C. the instrument procedures for which the
controlled airspace is established.
C. the instrument procedures for which the
controlled airspace is established.
When a control tower located on an airport within
Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what
happens to the airspace designation?
A. The airspace designation normally will not
change.
B. The airspace remains Class D airspace as
long as a weather observer or automated
weather system is available.
C. The airspace reverts to Class E or a
combination of Class E and G airspace during
the hours the tower is not in operation.
C. The airspace reverts to Class E or a
combination of Class E and G airspace during
the hours the tower is not in operation.
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same
Class D airspace as that designated for the
primary airport, requires radio communications be
established and maintained with the
A. satellite airport’s UNICOM.
B. associated Flight Service Station.
C. primary airport’s control tower.
C. primary airport’s control tower.
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are
based on
A. the number of airports that lie within the
Class D airspace.
B. 5 statute miles from the geographical center
of the primary airport.
C. the instrument procedures for which the
controlled airspace is established.
C. the instrument procedures for which the
controlled airspace is established.
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio
communications with Air Traffic Control are required
for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports
A. regardless of weather conditions.
B. only when weather conditions are less than
VFR
C. within Class D airspace only when weather
conditions are less than VFR.
A. regardless of weather conditions.
- Airspace at an airport with a part-time control
tower is classified as Class D airspace only
A. when the weather minimums are below basic
VFR.
B. when the associated control tower is in
operation.
C. when the associated Flight Service Station is
in operation.
B. when the associated control tower is in
operation.
When should pilots state their position on the
airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
A. When visibility is less than 1 mile.
B. When parallel runways are in use.
C. When departing from a runway intersection.
C. When departing from a runway intersection.
The radius of the procedural outer area of
Class C airspace is normally
A. 10 NM.
B. 20 NM.
C. 30 NM.
B. 20 NM.
- Under what condition may an aircraft operate
from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
A. The pilot must file a flight plan prior to
departure.
B. The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the
Class C airspace.
C. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as
practicable after takeoff.
C. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as
practicable after takeoff.
All operations within Class C airspace must be in
A. accordance with instrument flight rules.
B. compliance with ATC clearances and
instructions.
C. an aircraft equipped with a transponder with
automatic altitude reporting capability.
C. an aircraft equipped with a transponder with
automatic altitude reporting capability.
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to
entering Class C airspace?
A. Contact approach control on the appropriate
frequency.
B. Contact the tower and request permission to
enter.
C. Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.
A. Contact approach control on the appropriate
frequency.
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the
primary airport is normally
A. 1,200 feet AGL.
B. 3,000 feet AGL.
C. 4,000 feet AGL.
C. 4,000 feet AGL.
Two-way radio communication must be
established with the Air Traffic Control facility having
jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which
class airspace?
A. Class C.
B. Class E.
C. Class G.
A. Class C.
- With certain exceptions, all aircraft within
30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the
surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be
equipped with
A. an operable VOR or TACAN receiver.
B. instruments and equipment required for IFR
operations.
C. an operable transponder having either
Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C
automatic altitude reporting capability.
C. an operable transponder having either
Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C
automatic altitude reporting capability.
- What minimum pilot certification is required for
operation within Class B airspace?
A. Recreational Pilot Certificate.
B. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot
Certificate with appropriate logbook
endorsements.
C. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument
rating.
B. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot
Certificate with appropriate logbook
endorsements.
What minimum pilot certification is required for
operation within Class B airspace?
A. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot
Certificate with appropriate logbook
endorsements.
B. Commercial Pilot Certificate.
C. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument
rating.
A. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot
Certificate with appropriate logbook
endorsements.
In which type of airspace are VFR flights
prohibited?
A. Class A.
B. Class B
C. Class C.
A. Class A.
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR
flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than
1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
A. 1 mile.
B. 3 miles.
C. 5 miles.
C. 5 miles.
VFR flight in controlled airspace above
1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires
a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
A. 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet
above the clouds in controlled airspace.
B. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet
above the clouds at all altitudes.
C. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet
above the clouds only in Class A airspace.
A. 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet
above the clouds in controlled airspace.
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet
MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum
horizontal distance from clouds required is
A. 1.000 feet.
B. 2.000 feet.
C. 1 mile.
C. 1 mile.
What minimum flight visibility is required for
VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet
MSL?
A. 1 mile.
B. 3 miles.
C. 4 miles.
B. 3 miles.
The minimum distance from clouds required for
VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL
A. remain clear of clouds.
B. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and
2.000 feet horizontally.
C. 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and
2,000 feet horizontally.
B. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and
2.000 feet horizontally.
What minimum visibility and clearance from
clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G
airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight
hours?
A. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
B. 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet
above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance
from clouds.
C. 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
A. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
During operations outside controlled airspace at
altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than
10,000 feet MSL, the minimum fight visibility for VFR
10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR
flight at night is
A. 1 mile.
B. 3 miles.
C. 5 miles.
B. 3 miles.
During operations outside controlled airspace at
altitudes of more than 1.200 feet AGL. but less than
10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day
VFR flight is
A. 1 mile.
B. 3 miles.
C. 5 miles.
A. 1 mile
During operations within controlled airspace
at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less
than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above
clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A. 500 feet.
B. 1,000 feet.
C. 1,500 feet.
B. 1,000 feet.
Unless otherwise authorized, which situation
requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-
Broadcast (ADS-B)?
A. Landing at an airport with an operating control
tower.
B. Overflying Class C airspace below
10,000 feet MSL.
C. Flying under the shelf of Class C airspace.
C. Flying under the shelf of Class C airspace.
Unless otherwise authorized, which airspace
requires the appropriate Automatic Dependent
Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment
installed?
A. Within Class E airspace below the upper shelf
of Class C Airspace.
B. Above the ceiling and within the lateral
boundaries of Class D airspace up to
10.000 feet MSL.
C. Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles
from a Class B airport.
C. Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles
from a Class B airport.
No person may take off or land an aircraft
under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D
airspace unless the
A. flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
B. ground visibility at that airport is at least
1 mile.
C. ground visibility at that airport is at least
3 miles.
C. ground visibility at that airport is at least
3 miles.
During operations at altitudes of more than
1,200 feet ÄGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL,
the minimum distance above clouds requirement for
VFR flight is
A. 500 feet.
B. 1,000 feet.
C. 1,500 feet.
B. 1,000 feet.
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds for VFR flight at night is
A.500 feet
B.1,000 feet
C.1,500 feet
B.1,000 feet
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirements for VFR flight is
a) 1,000 feet
b) 1,500 feet
c) 2,000 feet
c) 2,000 feet
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
a) 500 feet
b) 1000 feet
c) 1,500 feet
a) 500 feet
Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least
a) 1,000 feet and 1 mile
b) 1,000 feet and 3 miles
c) 2,500 feet and 3 miles
b) 1,000 feet and 3 miles
Your VFR flight will be conducted above 10,000 ft. MSL in Class E airspace. What is the minimum flight visibility?
a) 3 SM
b) 5 SM
c) 1 SM
b)5 SM
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
a) Automated Flight Service Station
b) Air Traffic Control Tower
c) Air Route Traffic Control Center
B
b) Air Traffic Control Tower
A special VFR clearance authorize the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is
a) less than 1 mile and the ceiling less than 1,000 feet.
b) at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds
c) at least 3 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds
b) at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the
a) flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds
b) airplane is equipped for instrument flight
c) flight visibility is at least 3 miles
b) airplane is equipped for instrument flight
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
a) The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace
b) The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder
c) The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped
c) The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
a) The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace
b) The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder
c) The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped
c) The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped
What is the minimum weather condition required for airplane operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?
a) 1 mile flight visibility
b) 1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling
c) 3 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling
a) 1 mile flight visibility
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
a) Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder
b) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter
c) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver
b) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
a) Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder
b) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME
c) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter
c) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter
Unless otherwise specified Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upwards from
A. 700 Feet above he surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL
B.1200 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
C.the surface, up to and including 18,000 feet MSL>
B.1200 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
TRSA SERvice in the terminal radar program provides
a) IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft
b) warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft
c) Sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft
c) Sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft
If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code
a) 0000
b) 1200
c) 4096
b) 1200
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
a) clearance delivery
b) Tower, just before takeoff
c) Ground control, on initial contact
c) Ground control, on initial contact
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as
a) safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft
b) mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS)
c) wind-shear warning at participating airports
a) safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
a) 7200
b) 7000
C) 7500
C) 7500
If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code
a) 0000
b) 1200
c) 4096
b) 1200
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
a) 7200
b) 7000
C) 7500
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots avoid inadvertent selection of which code?
a) 1200
b) 7600
c) 4096
b) 7600
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
a) 1200
b) 7600
c) 7700
a) 1200
At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which transponder code should be selected?
a) Mode A/3, Code 1200
b) Mode F, Code 1200
c) Mode C, Code 4096
a) Mode A/3, Code 1200
Which of the following codes should be set for VFR flight in Class E airspace?
a) 1200, Mode A/3
b) 1200, Mode F
c) 4600, Mode S
a) 1200, Mode A/3
Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?
a) 1200
b) 7600
c) 7700
a) 1200
- What is the hijack code?
A. 7200
B. 7500
C. 7777
B. 7500
- What is the appropriate transponder code in
response to lost communications?
A. 7400
B. 7500
C. 7600
C. 7600
- In the event of unlawful interference or
hijacking, which transponder code should you input
immediately?
A. 7500
B. 7600
C. 7777
A. 7500
- The transponder should be cycled to 7700 in
the event of
A. a hijacking.
B. an emergency.
C. lost communications.
B. an emergency.
- When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper
phraseology for initial contact with McAlester FSS is
A. “MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX
CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE
VORTAC, OVER
B. “MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX
SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE
VORTAC, OVER.
C “MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION.
HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO,
RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.”
A. “MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX
CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE
VORTAC, OVER
- The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to
ATC is
A.”FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.”
B.”FOUR POINT FIVE.”
C.”FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL.”
A.”FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.”
- The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL
to ATC is
A. “TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET.”
B. “TEN POINT FIVE “
C. “ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.”
C. “ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.”
ATC advises, “traffic 12 o’clock,” this advisory is
relative to your
A. true course.
B. ground track.
C. magnetic heading
B. ground track.
An ATC radar facility issues the following
advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°:
“TRAFFIC 3 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND…
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A. East.
B. South.
C. West.
B. South.
An ATC radar facility issues the following
advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°:
“TRAFFIC 3 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND…
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A. East.
B. South.
C. West.
B. South.
An ATC radar facility issues the following
advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°:
“TRAFFIC 10 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES,
SOUTHBOUND…
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A. Northwest.
B. Northeast.
C. Southwest.
A. Northwest.
An ATC radar facility issues the following
advisory to a pilot during a local flight:
“TRAFFIC 2 O’CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND…”
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A. Between directly ahead and 90° to the left.
B. Between directly behind and 90° to the right.
C. Between directly ahead and 90° to the right.
C. Between directly ahead and 90° to the right.
An ATC radar facility issues the following
advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind:
“TRAFFIC 9 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND…
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A. South.
B. North.
C. West.
C. West.
While on final approach for landing, an
alternating green and red light followed by a flashing
red light is received from the control tower. Under
these circumstances, the pilot should
A. discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic
pattern and approach again, and land.
B. exercise extreme caution and abandon the
approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for
landing.
C. abandon the approach, circle the airport to
the right, and expect a flashing white light
when the airport is safe for landing.
B. exercise extreme caution and abandon the
approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for
landing.
If the aircraft’s radio fails, what is the
recommended procedure when landing at a
controlled airport?
A. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and
look for a light signal from the tower.
B. Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings.
C. Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing
gear while circling the airport.
A. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and
look for a light signal from the tower.
A steady green light signal directed from the
control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the
pilot
A. is cleared to land.
B. should give way to other aircraft and continue
circling.
C. should return for landing.
A. is cleared to land.
A flashing white light signal from the control
tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
A. taxi at a faster speed.
B. taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways.
C. return to the starting point on the airport.
C. return to the starting point on the airport.
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct
a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue
circling, the light will be
A. flashing red,
B. steady red.
C. alternating red and green.
B. steady red.
Which light signal from the control tower clears
a pilot to taxi?
A. Flashing green.
B. Steady green.
C. Flashing white.
A. Flashing green.
An alternating red and green light signal
directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight
is a signal to
A. hold position.
B. exercise extreme caution.
C. not land; the airport is unsafe.
B. exercise extreme caution.
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
A. 118.0 MHZ.
B. 406 MHz.
C. 123.0 MHZ.
B. 406 MHz.
While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?
A. 121.5 MHz.
B. 122.5 MHz.
C. 128.75 MHz.
A. 121.5 MHz.
ho should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?
A. Recreational pilots only.
B. Military pilots.
C. Student pilots.
C. Student pilots.
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
A. Pilot in command.
B. Owner/operator.
C. Second-in-command.
A. Pilot in command.
Who has final authority to accept or decline any
land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
A. Pilot in command.
B. Air Traffic Controller.
C. Second in command.
A. Pilot in command.
Where is the “Available Landing Distance” (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?
A. Special Notices section of the Chart Supplement.
B. Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
C. 14 CFR Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules.
A. Special Notices section of the Chart Supplement.
When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
A. When it will compromise safety.
B. Only when the tower operator concurs.
C. Pilots cannot decline clearance.
A. When it will compromise safety.
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
A. 3 nautical miles.
B. 3 statute miles.
C. 1 statute mile.
B. 3 statute miles.
What should you expect when you are told that LAHSO operations are in effect at your destination airport?
A. All aircraft must operate on an IFR clearance due to high traffic volume.
B. That ATC will give you a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on the runway.
C. Delays due to low IFR conditions and high traffic volume.
B. That ATC will give you a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on the runway.
If given a landing clearance on runway 16and told to hold short runway 6, how can a pilot determine the available landing distance?
A. The full runway length is available.
B. Use rule of thumb to determine the distance.
C. Ask the controller.
C. Ask the controller.
What regulation allows a private pilot to preform preventive maintenance?
a. 14 CFR Part 91.403
b. 14 CFR Part 43.3
c. 14 CFR Part 61.113
b. 14 CFR Part 43.3
Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?
a. Student or Recreational pilot
b. Private or Commercial pilot
c. None of the answers are correct
b. Private or Commercial pilot
Preventative maintenance has been preformed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
a. A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook
b. The date the work was completed and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook
c. The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records
c. The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records
What documentation is required when a pilot has performed preventive maintenance on an aircraft?
a) pilot performed maintenance does not need to be documented
b) only major repairs and alterations need to be documented
c) the pilot is to make an entry in the aircraft’s maintenance records
c) the pilot is to make an entry in the aircraft’s maintenance records
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
a) servicing landing gear wheel bearings
b) alteration of main seat support brackets
c) engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used
a) servicing landing gear wheel bearings
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
a) repair of landing gear brace struts
b) replenishing hydraulic fluid
c) repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional
b) replenishing hydraulic fluid
Is it legal to fly on the dealer’s registration after a buyer purchased an airplane from that dealer?
a) Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 30 days
b) No, the airplane cannot be flown by the buyer and has to be registered
c) Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 120 days
b) No, the airplane cannot be flown by the buyer and has to be registered
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
a) When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery
b) only when passengers are carried
c) any time when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember
c) any time when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember
A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current
a) logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished
b) medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate
c) endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished
b) medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate
What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
a) Certificates showing accomplishments of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review
b) A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience
c) An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required
c) An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any
a) authorized representative of the Department of Transportation
b) person in a position of authority
c) local law enforcement officer
c) local law enforcement officer
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, and which department should this be reported to?
a) Within 60 days to the Airmen Certification Branch
b) Within 60 days to the Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office
c) Within 60 days to the Regulatory Support Division
b) Within 60 days to the Security and Hazardous Materials Safety O
A third-class medical certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
a) August 10, 3 years later
b) August 31, 5 years later
c) August 31, 3 years later
b) August 31, 5 years later
A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year old pilot of May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
a) May 3, 1 year later
b) May 31, 1 year later
c) May 31, 2 years later
c) May 31, 2 years later
For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on
a) July 15, 2 year later
b) July 31, 1 year later
c) July 31, 2 years later
c) July 31, 2 years later
A third-class medical certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on
a) August 10, 2 years later
b) August 31, 5 years later
c) August 31, 2 years later
b) August 31, 5 years later
For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on
a) October 21, 2 years later
b) October 31, next year
c) October 31, 5 years later
c) October 31, 5 years later
A Third-Class Medical Certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Recreational or Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on
A. August 10, 2 years later
B. August 31, 5 year later
C. August 31, 2 year later
B<.August 31, 5 years later
For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on…
a. October 21, 2 years later
b. October 31, next year
c. October 31, 5 years later
c. October 31, 5 years later
In order to qualify for BasicMed, you must have received a comprehensive examination from:
a) An FAA-designated Aviation Medical Examiner within the previous
60 months
b) A state-licensed physician within the previous 24 months
c) A state-licensed physician within the previous 48 months
c) A state-licensed physician within the previous 48 months
Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have
a) passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector
b) an endorsement in that person’s logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command
c) received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person’s logbook
c) received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person’s logbook
In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have
a) made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane
b) received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower
c) passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane
b) received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
a) aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator
b) Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds
c) Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights
b) Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
a) aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator
b) Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds
c) Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights
b) Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on October 30, this year, when is the next flight review required?
a) October 30, 2 years later
b) October 31, next year
c) October 31, 2 years later
c) October 31, 2 years later
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding
a) 6 calendar months
b) 12 calendar months
c) 24 calendar months
c) 24 calendar months
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding
a) 90 days
b) 12 calendar months
c) 24 calendar mon
a) 90 days
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
a) 1829
b) 1859
c) 1929
c) 1929
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same
a) make and model
b) category and class, but not type
c) category, class, and type, if a type rating is requried
c) category, class, and type, if a type rating is requried
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from
a) sunset to sunrise
b) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
c) the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight
b) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in
a) the same category and class of aircraft to be used
b) the same type of aircraft to be used
c) any aircraft
a) the same category and class of aircraft to be used
The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experiencing requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane
a) may be touch and go or full stop
b) must be a touch and go
c) must be to a full stop
c) must be to a full stop
You have accomplished 25 takeoffs and landings in multi-engine land airplanes in the previous 45 days. For a flight you plan to conduct today, this meets the PIC recency of experience requirements to carry passengers in which airplanes?
a) Multi- or single engine land
b) Single-engine land airplane
c) Multi-engine land airplane
c) Multi-engine land airplane
Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding
a) 90 days
b) 60 days
c) 30 days
a) 90 days
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only
a) 30 days after the date of the move
b) 60 days after the date of the move
c) 90 days after the date of the move
a) 30 days after the date of the move
A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot’s logbook minimum of
a) 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft the pilot is using to tow a glider
b) 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider
c) 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider
b) 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider
