Midterm

Question 1

1.1
1. What is one purpose of wing flaps?
A. To enable the pilot to make steeper
approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.
B. To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.
C. To decrease wing area to vary the lift.

Answer 1

A.To enable the pilot to make stepper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.

Question 2

1.1
2. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
A. decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
B. permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.
C. increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

Answer 2

C.increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

Question 3

1.1
3. What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
A. To control yaw.
B. To control overbanking tendency.
C. To control roll.

Answer 3

A.To control Yaw

Question 4

1.10

38. Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and- level flight?
    A. Climbs.
    B. Turns.
    C. Stalls.

Answer 4

B. Turns.

Question 5

1.10 Load Factor
38. Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and- level flight?
A. Climbs.
B. Turns.
C. Stalls.

Answer 5

B. Turns.

Question 6

1.1
4. Which is not a primary flight control surface?
A. Flaps.
B. Stabilator.
C. Ailerons.

Answer 6

A..Flaps

Question 7

1.2
10. The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are
A. lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
B. lift, weight, gravity, and thrust.
C. lift, gravity, power, and friction.

Answer 7

A.lift, weight, thrust, and drag

Question 8

1.2
11. When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
A. During unaccelerated level flight.
B. When the aircraft is accelerating.
C. When the aircraft is at rest on the ground.

Answer 8

A.During unaccelerated level flight

Question 9

1.2
13. Which statement relates to Bernoulli’s principle?
A. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
B. An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the airfoil deflects air downward.
C. Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.

Answer 9

C.Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.

Question 10

1.3 Angle of Attack
14. (Refer to Figure 1 below.) The acute angle A is the angle of
A. incidence.
B. attack.
C. dihedral.

Answer 10

B. attack.

Question 11

1.3
15. The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle between the

A. chord line of the wing and the relative wind.
B. airplane’s longitudinal axis and that of the air striking the airfoil.
C. airplane’s center line and the relative wind.

Answer 11

A. chord line of the wing and the relative wind.

Question 12

1.3
16. The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of
A. lift.
B. attack.
C. incidence.

Answer 12

B. attack.

Question 13

1.3
17. The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
A. increase if the CG is moved forward.
B. change with an increase in gross weight.
C. remain the same regardless of gross weight.

Answer 13

C. remain the same regardless of gross weight.

Question 14

1.4 Stalls
18. As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will

A. decrease as the true airspeed decreases.
B. decrease as the true airspeed increases.
C. remain the same regardless of altitude.

Answer 14

C. remain the same regardless of altitude.

Question 15

1.5 Spins
19. In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
A. Partially stalled with one wing low.
B. In a steep diving spiral.
C. Stalled.

Answer 15

B. In a steep diving spiral.

Question 16

1.5
20. During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?
A. Both wings are stalled.
B. Neither wing is stalled.
C. Only the left wing is stalled.

Answer 16

A. Both wings are stalled.

Question 17

1.6
21. What is ground effect?

A. The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.

B. The result of an alteration in airflow patterns increasing induced drag about the wings of an airplane.

C. The result of the disruption of the airflow patterns about the wings of an airplane to the point where the wings will no longer support the airplane in flight.

Answer 17

A. The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.

Question 18

1.7
26. What force makes an airplane turn?
A. The horizontal component of lift.
B. The vertical component of lift.
C. Centrifugal force.

Answer 18

A. The horizontal component of lift

Question 19

1.8
27. What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

A. The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.
B. The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and rudder trim tab.
C. The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.

Answer 19

A. The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.

Question 20

1.8

28. An airplane said to be inherently stable will

A. be difficult to stall.
B. require less effort to control.
C. not spin.

Answer 20

B. require less effort to control.

Question 21

1.8

30. An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be

A. a longer takeoff run.
B. difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.
C. stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed.

Answer 21

B. difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.

Question 22

35. In what flight condition are torque effects more pronounced in a single-engine airplane?

A. Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.
B. Low airspeed, low power, low angle of attack.
C. High airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

.

Answer 22

A. Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

Question 23

1.9
36. The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

A. clockwise rotation of the engine and the propeller turning the airplane counterclockwise.
B. propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
C.gyroscopic forces applied to the rotating propeller blades acting 90° in advance of the point the force was applied

Answer 23

B. propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.

Question 24

10. If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude
    IS
    A. equal to pressure altitude.
    B. lower than pressure altitude.
    C. higher than pressure altitude.

Answer 24

C. higher than pressure altitude.

Question 25

15. (Refer to Figure 8 below.) What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90°F and 1,250 feet pressure altitude to 55°F and 1,750 feet pressure altitude?

A. 1,700-foot increase.
B. 1,300-foot decrease.
C. 1,700-foot decrease.

Answer 25

C. 1,700-foot decrease.

Question 26

15. What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

A. Maneuvering speed.
B. Turbulent or rough-air speed.
C. Never-exceed speed.

Answer 26

C. Never-exceed speed.

Question 27

16. (Refer to Figure 4 below.) What is the caution range of the airplane?

A. 0 to 60 kts.
B. 100 to 165 kts.
C. 165 to 208 kts.

Answer 27

C. 165 to 208 kts.

Question 28

16. (Refer to Figure 8 on page 217.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 3,563 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.96.
    A. 3,527 feet MSL.
    B. 3,556 feet MSL.
    C. 3,639 feet MSL.

Answer 28

A. 3,527 feet MSL.

Question 29

17. (Refer to Figure 4 below.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
    A. 100 kts.
    B. 165 kts.
    C. 208 kts.

Answer 29

C. 208 kts.

Question 30

17. (Refer to Figure 8 on page 217.) Determine the pressure altitude with an indicated altitude of 1,380 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 28.22 at standard temperature.
    A. 3,010 feet MSL.
    B. 2,991 feet MSL.
    C. 2,913 feet MSL.

Answer 30

B. 2,991 feet MSL.

Question 31

18. (Refer to Figure 4 below.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
    A. 55 to 100 kts.
    B. 55 to 208 kts.
    C. 55 to 165 kts.

Answer 31

A. 55 to 100 kts.

Question 32

18. (Refer to Figure 8 on page 217.) Determine the density altitude for these conditions:
    Altimeter setting = 29.25
    Runway temperature = +81°F
    Airport elevation = 5,250 ft MSL

A. 4,600 feet MSL.
B. 5,877 feet MSL.
C. 8,500 feet MSL.

Answer 32

C. 8,500 feet MSL.

Question 33

19. (Refer to Figure 4 on page 50.) What is the
    maximum flaps-extended speed?
    A. 65 kts.
    B. 100 kts.
    C. 165 kts.

Answer 33

B. 100 kts.

Question 34

19. (Refer to Figure 8 below.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50° F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000
    feet?
    A. 1,200-foot increase.
    B. 1,400-foot increase.
    C. 1,650-foot increase.

Answer 34

C. 1,650-foot increase.

Question 35

19. (Refer to Figure 8 below.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50° F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000
    feet?
    A. 1,200-foot increase.
    B. 1,400-foot increase.
    C. 1,650-foot increase.

Answer 35

C. 1,650-foot increase.

Question 36

2.1
2. Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
A. presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.
B. difference in the location between true north and magnetic north.
C. magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

Answer 36

C. magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

Question 37

2.1 Compass Turning Error

1. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if

A. an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.
B. a left turn is entered from a west heading.
C. an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

Answer 37

C. an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

Question 38

2.10 Engine Temperature
56. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
A. the oil level being too low.
B. operating with a too high viscosity oil.
C. operating with an excessively rich mixture.

Answer 38

A. the oil level being too low.

Question 39

2.10 Engine Temperature
56. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

A. the oil level being too low.
B. operating with a too high viscosity oil.
C. operating with an excessively rich mixture.

Answer 39

A. the oil level being too low.

Question 40

2.10
57. Excessively high engine temperatures will

A. cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
B. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
C. not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.

Answer 40

B. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible

Question 41

2.10
58. Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will

A. increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat.
B. result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans.
C. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

Answer 41

C. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

Question 42

2.10
59. For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on
A. a properly functioning thermostat.
B. air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
C. the circulation of lubricating oil.

Answer 42

C. the circulation of lubricating oil.

Question 43

2.10
59. For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on
A. a properly functioning thermostat.
B. air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
C. the circulation of lubricating oil.

Answer 43

C. the circulation of lubricating oil.

Question 44

2.10
60. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

A. the mixture set too rich.
B. higher-than-normal oil pressure.
C. too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

Answer 44

C. too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

Question 45

2.10
60. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

A. the mixture set too rich.
B. higher-than-normal oil pressure.
C. too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

Answer 45

C. too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

Question 46

2.11 Constant-Speed Propeller

63. How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

A. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
B. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a cons blade angle.
C. The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mix control regulates the power output.

Answer 46

A. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.

Question 47

2.11

64. A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
    A. avoid high RPM settings with high manifo pressure.
    B. avoid high manifold pressure settings wit RPM.
    C. always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.

Answer 47

B. avoid high manifold pressure settings wit RPM.

Question 48

2.11
65. What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
A. Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
B. Permits the pilot to select the blade angl the most efficient performance.
C. Provides a smoother operation with stab RPM and eliminates vibrations.

Answer 48

B. Permits the pilot to select the blade angl the most efficient performance.

Question 49

2.12
68. The reason a 4-cylinder reciprocating engine continues to run after the ignition switch is positioned to OFF may be a
A. fouled spark plug.
B. wire between the magneto and spark plug in contact with the engine casing.
C. broken magneto ground wire.

Answer 49

C. broken magneto ground wire.

Question 50

2.12 Engine Ignition Systems
66. One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
A. improved engine performance.
B. uniform heat distribution.
C. balanced cylinder head pressure.

Answer 50

A. improved engine performance.

Question 51

2.12
67. If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected, the magneto
A. will not operate because the battery is disconnected from the circuit.
B. may continue to fire.
C. will not operate.

Answer 51

B. may continue to fire.

Question 52

2.13 Carburetor Icing
69. With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
A. more susceptible to icing.
B. equally susceptible to icing.
C. less susceptible to icing.

Answer 52

A. more susceptible to icing.

Question 53

2.13
70. Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

A. Any temperature below freezing and a relati humidity of less than 50 percent.
B. Temperature between 32°F and 50°F and lo humidity.
C. Temperature between 20°F and 70°F and high humidity.

Answer 53

C. Temperature between 20°F and 70°F and high humidity.

Question 54

2.13
72. If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
A. increase of RPM.
B. engine roughness.
C. decrease of RPM.

Answer 54

C. decrease of RPM.

Question 55

2.13
73. If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
A. a drop in oil temperature and cylinder hea temperature.
B. engine roughness.
C. loss of RPM.

Answer 55

C. loss of RPM.

Question 56

2.14 Carburetor Heat
76. Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
A. decrease engine performance.
B. increase engine performance.
C. have no effect on engine performance.

Answer 56

A. decrease engine performance.

Question 57

2.14
77. Applying carburetor heat will
A. result in more air going through the carburetor.
B. enrich the fuel/air mixture.
C. not affect the fuel/air mixture.

Answer 57

B. enrich the fuel/air mixture.

Question 58

2.14
78. What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?
A. A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
B. The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
C. The fuel/air mixture becomes leane

Answer 58

B. The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.

Question 59

2.16

83. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

A. the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.
B. hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
C. the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

Answer 59

C. the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

Question 60

2.17 Aviation Fuel Practices
88. What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
A. The next higher octane aviation gas.
B. The next lower octane aviation gas.
C. Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.

Answer 60

A. The next higher octane aviation gas.

Question 61

2.17
89. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because
this will
A. force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
B. prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
C. prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

Answer 61

C. prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

Question 62

2.17
90. To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from
the
A. fuel strainer drain.
B. lowest point in the fuel system.
C. fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

Answer 62

C. fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

Question 63

2.17
91. On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?
A. All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
B. In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
C. Constantly except in starting the engine.

Answer 63

B. In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.

Question 64

2.18 Starting the Engine
93. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

A. Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
B. Place the magneto or ignition switch
momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
C. Test each brake and the parking brake.

Answer 64

A. Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

Question 65

2.19 Cold Weather - Attention

94. During preflight in cold weather, crankcase breather lines should receive special attention because they are susceptible to being clogged by

A. congealed oil from the crankcase.
B. moisture from the outside air which has frozen.
C. ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen.

Answer 65

C. ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen.

Question 66

2.2
11. Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?

A. Altimeter.
B. Vertical speed indicator.
C. Airspeed indicator.

Answer 66

C. Airspeed indicator.

Question 67

2.2 Pitot-Static System
10. The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
A. Altimeter.
B. Vertical-speed indicator.
C. Airspeed indicator.

Answer 67

C. Airspeed indicator

Question 68

2.20 Electrical System
95. An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would
A. experience avionics equipment failure.
B. probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment.
C. probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.

Answer 68

A.experience avionics equipment failure

Question 69

2.20
96. A positive indication on an ammeter
A. indicates the aircraft’s battery will soon lose its charge.
B. shows the rate of charge on the battery.
C. means more current is being drawn from the battery than is being replaced.

Answer 69

B. shows the rate of charge on the battery.

Question 70

2.20
97. To keep a battery charged, the alternator voltage output should be
A. less than the battery voltage.
B. equal to the battery voltage.
C. higher than the battery voltage.

Answer 70

C. higher than the battery voltage.

Question 71

2.20
98. Which of the following is a true statement concerning electrical systems?
A. The master switch creates current that is supplied to the electrical system.
B. The airspeed indicator is driven by the electrical system.
C. Lights and radios use the electrical system for power.

Answer 71

C. Lights and radios use the electrical system for power.

Question 72

2.2
12. If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

A. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn- and-slip indicator.
B. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
C. The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and- slip indicator.

Answer 72

B. The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

Question 73

2.2
13. Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?

A. Airspeed indicator only.
B. Altimeter only.
C. Airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator.

Answer 73

C. Airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator.

Question 74

2.3

4. What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
   A. Never-exceed speed.
   B. Maximum structural cruising speed.
   C. Maneuvering speed.

Answer 74

C. Maneuvering speed.

Question 75

2.5 Types of Altitude
33. What is absolute altitude?
A. The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C. The height above the standard datum plane.

Answer 75

B.The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface

Question 76

2.6 Setting the Altimeter
41. If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?

A. 70-foot increase in indicated altitude.
B.70-foot increase in density altitude.
C. 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.

Answer 76

C. 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.

Question 77

2.6
42. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

A. Altimeter will indicate.15” Hg higher.
B. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
C. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

Answer 77

C. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

Question 78

2.7 Altimeter Errors
43. If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

A. the actual altitude above sea level.
B. higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C. lower than the actual altitude above sea level

Answer 78

C. lower than the actual altitude above sea level

Question 79

2.7
44. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A. lower than the actual altitude above sea leve
B. higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C. the actual altitude above sea level.

Answer 79

B. higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

Question 80

2.8
49. (Refer to Figure 6 below.) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
A. set prior to flight on a known heading.
B. calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
C. periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.

Answer 80

C. periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.

Question 81

2.9 Glass Flight Decks
52. What is a benefit of flying with a glass flight
deck?
A. There is no longer a need to carry paper charts in flight.
B. Situational awareness is increased.
C. Terrain avoidance is guaranteed.

Answer 81

B. Situational awareness is increased.

Question 82

20. (Refer to Figure 4 on page 50.) Which marking identifies the never-exceed speed?
    A. Upper limit of the green arc.
    B. Upper limit of the white arc.
    C. The red radial line.

Answer 82

C. The red radial line.

Question 83

21. (Refer to Figure 4 on page 50.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
    A. Upper limit of the green arc.
    B. Upper limit of the white arc.
    C. Lower limit of the green arc.

Answer 83

C. Lower limit of the green arc

Question 84

22. (Refer to Figure 4 on page 50.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?
    A. The yellow arc.
    B. The green arc.
    C. The white arc.

Answer 84

C. The white arc.

Question 85

22. Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at

A. less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.
B. twice the length of the wingspan above the surface.
C. a higher-than-normal angle of attack.

Answer 85

A. less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.

Question 86

23. (Refer to Figure 4 on page 50.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?
    A. Upper limit of the green arc.
    B. Upper limit of the white arc.
    C. Lower limit of the white arc.

Answer 86

C. Lower limit of the white arc.

Question 87

23. What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?

A. Wingtip vortices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft.
B. Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.
C. A full stall landing will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall when done free of ground effect.

Answer 87

B.Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.

Question 88

24. (Refer to Figure 4 on page 50.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
    A. 100 kts.
    B. 165 kts.
    C. 208 kts.

Answer 88

B. 165 kts.

Question 89

24. An aircraft leaving ground effect during takeoff will

A. experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.
B. experience an increase in induced drag and a decrease in performance.
C. require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.

Answer 89

B. experience an increase in induced drag and a decrease in performance.

Question 90

25. Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?

A. Settling to the surface abruptly during landing
B. Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
C. Inability to get airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal takeoff needs.

Answer 90

B. Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.

Question 91

26. (Refer to Figure 35 on page 220.) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 500-nautical mile flight under the following conditions?

Pressure altitude = 4,000 ft
Temperature = +29°C
Manifold pressure = 21.3” Hg
Wind Calm

A. 31.4 gallons.
B. 36.1 gallons.
C. 40.1 gallons.

Answer 91

B. 36.1 gallons.

Question 92

27. (Refer to Figure 35 on page 220.) Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 RPM to achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temperature of 36°F higher than standard.
    A. 19.8” Hg.
    B. 20.8” Hg.
    C. 21.0” Hg.

Answer 92

C. 21.0” Hg.

Question 93

28. (Refer to Figure 35 on page 220.) Approximately what true airspeed should a pilot expect with
    65 percent maximum continuous power at 9,500 feet with a temperature of 36°F below standard?
    A. 178 MPH.
    B. 181 MPH.
    C. 183 MPH.

Answer 93

C. 183 MPH.

Question 94

29. (Refer to Figure 35 on page 220.) Approximately what true airspeed should a pilot expect with full throttle at 10,500 feet with a temperature of 36°F above standard?
    A. 190 KTS.
    B. 159 KTS.
    C. 165 KTS.

Answer 94

C. 165 KTS.

Question 95

29. (Refer to Figure 82 below.) Altimeter 3 indicates
    A. 9,500 feet.
    B. 10,500 feet.
    C. 4,500 feet.

Answer 95

A. 9,500 feet.

Question 96

1.8

29. Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft’s

A. lift/drag ratio.
B. lifting capacity.
C. aerodynamic balance and controllability.

Answer 96

C.aerodynamic balance and controllability.

Question 97

2.1
3. During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
A. Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
B. As long as the airspeed is constant.
C. During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°.

Answer 97

A. Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.

Question 98

30. (Refer to Figure 82 below.) Altimeter 1 indicates
    A. 4,500 feet.
    B. 1,500 feet.
    C. 500 feet.

Answer 98

C. 500 feet.

Question 99

31. (Refer to Figure 82 above.) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 9,000 feet?
    A. 1, 2, and 3.
    B. 1 and 2 only.
    C. 3 only.

Answer 99

C. 3 only.

Question 100

31. What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?

A. The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.
B. The downwash on the elevators from the
propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
C. When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight.

Answer 100

B. The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.

Question 101

32. (Refer to Figure 82 below.) Altimeter 2 indicates
    A. 500 feet.
    B. 1,500 feet.
    C. 4,500 feet.

Answer 101

B. 1,500 feet.

Question 102

32. What is the effect of advancing the throttle in flight?

A. Both aircraft groundspeed and angle of attack will increase.
B. Airspeed will remain relatively constant but the aircraft will climb.
C. The aircraft will accelerate, which will cause a turn to the right.

Answer 102

A. Both aircraft groundspeed and angle of attack will increase.

Question 103

32. What is the effect of advancing the throttle in flight?

A. Both aircraft groundspeed and angle of attack will increase.
B. Airspeed will remain relatively constant but the aircraft will climb.
C. The aircraft will accelerate, which will cause a turn to the right.

Answer 103

A. Both aircraft groundspeed and angle of attack will increase.

Question 104

33. (Refer to Figure 36 on page 222.) With a reported wind of north at 20 knots, which runway is acceptable for use for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?
    A. Runway 6.
    B. Runway 29.
    C. Runway 32.

Answer 104

C. Runway 32.

Question 105

33. Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be:

A. less stable at all speeds.
B. less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds.
C. less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds.

Answer 105

A.less stable at all speeds.

Question 106

33. Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be

A. less stable at all speeds.
B. less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds.
C. less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds.

Answer 106

A. less stable at all speeds.

Question 107

34. (Refer to Figure 36 on page 222.) What is the maximum wind velocity for a 30° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 12 knots?
    A. 16 knots.
    B. 20 knots.
    C. 24 knots.

Answer 107

C. 24 knots

Question 108

34. An airplane loaded with the Center of Gravity (CG) rear of the aft CG limit could

A. make it easier to recover from stalls and spins.
B. make it more difficult to flare for landing.
C. increase the likelihood of inadvertent
overstress.

Answer 108

C. increase the likelihood of inadvertent
overstress.

Question 109

34. An airplane loaded with the Center of Gravity (CG) rear of the aft CG limit could

A. make it easier to recover from stalls and spins.
B. make it more difficult to flare for landing.
C. increase the likelihood of inadvertent overstress

Answer 109

C. increase the likelihood of inadvertent overstress

Question 110

34. What is true altitude?

A. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C. The height above the standard datum plane.

Answer 110

B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.

Question 111

35. (Refer to Figure 36 on page 222.) With a reported wind of south at 20 knots, which runway is appropriate for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component?
    A. Runway 10.
    B. Runway 14.
    C. Runway 24.

Answer 111

B. Runway 14.

Question 112

35. What is density altitude?

A. The height above the standard datum plane.
B. The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
C. The altitude read directly from the altimeter.

Answer 112

B. The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

Question 113

38. Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

A. If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
B. When at sea level under standard conditions.
C. When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.

Answer 113

B. When at sea level under standard conditions.

Question 114

36. What is pressure altitude?

A. The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
B. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
C. The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.

Answer 114

B. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.

Question 115

37. Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

A. calibrated altitude at field elevation.
B. absolute altitude at field elevation.
C. true altitude at field elevation

Answer 115

C. true altitude at field elevation

Question 116

37. When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

A. When at low angles of attack.
B. When at high angles of attack.
C. When at high airspeeds.

Answer 116

B. When at high angles of attack.

Question 117

38. (Refer to Figure 37 on page 224.) Determine the
    total distance required to land.
    OAT=90°F
    Pressure altitude = 3,000 ft Weight=2,900 lb
    Headwind component = 10 kts
    Obstacle = 50 ft
    A. 1,450 feet.
    B. 1,550 feet.
    C. 1,725 feet.

Answer 117

C. 1,725 feet.

Question 118

39. Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

A. At sea level, when the temperature is 0°F.
B. When the altimeter has no installation error.
C. At standard temperature.

Answer 118

C. At standard temperature.

Question 119

39. Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

A. At sea level, when the temperature is 0°F.
B. When the altimeter has no installation error.
C. At standard temperature.

Answer 119

C. At standard temperature.

Question 120

2.1
4. Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by
A. a northerly turning error.
B. certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.
C. the difference in location of true north and magnetic north.

Question 121

40. If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster
    A. airspeed at touchdown, a longer ground ro and better control throughout the landing r
    B. groundspeed at touchdown, a longer grou roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.
    C. groundspeed at touchdown, a shorter gro roll, and the likelihood of undershooting th desired touchdown point.

Answer 121

B. groundspeed at touchdown, a longer grou roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.

Question 122

40. Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
    A. When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92” Hg.
    B. When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
    C. When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.

Answer 122

B.When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

Question 123

40. Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

A. When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92” Hg.
B. When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
C. When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.

Answer 123

B. When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

Question 124

41. (Refer to Figure 38 on page 227.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance.

Pressure altitude = Sea level
Headwind = 4 kts
Temperature = Std

A. 356 feet.
B. 401 feet.
C. 490 feet.

Answer 124

B. 401 feet.

Question 125

42. (Refer to Figure 38 on page 227.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-ft. obstacle.

Pressure altitude = 3,750 ft
Headwind = 12 kts
Temperature = Std

A. 794 feet.
B. 836 feet.
C. 816 feet.

Answer 125

C. 816 feet

Question 126

43. (Refer to Figure 38 on page 227.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance.

Pressure altitude = 5,000 ft
Headwind =Calm
Temperature = 101°F

A. 495 feet.
B. 545 feet.
C. 445 feet.

Answer 126

B. 545 feet.

Question 127

44. (Refer to Figure 38 on page 227.) Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance.
    Pressure altitude = 1,250 ft
    =
    Headwind 8 kts Temperature = Std
    A. 275 feet.
    B. 366 feet.
    C. 470 feet.

Answer 127

B. 366 feet.

Question 128

45. (Refer to Figure 38 on page 227.) Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
    Pressure altitude = 5,000 ft
    Headwind = 8 kts
    Temperature = 41°F
    Runway = Hard surface
    A. 837 feet.
    B. 956 feet.
    C. 1,076 feet.

Answer 128

B. 956 feet.

Question 129

45. Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?

A. Air temperature lower than standard.
B. Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
C. Air temperature warmer than standard.

Answer 129

C. Air temperature warmer than standard.

Question 130

46. (Refer to Figure 38 below.) Determine the total
    distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. Pressure altitude = 7,500 ft
    Headwind = 8 kts Temperature = 32°F
    Runway = Hard surface
    A. 1,004 feet.
    B. 1,205 feet.
    C.1,506 feet.

Answer 130

A. 1,004 feet.

Question 131

46. (Refer to Figure 72 below.) A positive load factor of 2 at 80 mph would cause the airplane to

A. stall.
B. break apart.
C. operate normally, as it is within the normal operating range.

Answer 131

stall

Question 132

46. (Refer to Figure 72 below.) A positive load factor of 2 at 80 mph would cause the airplane to

A. stall.
B. break apart.
C. operate normally, as it is within the normal operating range.

Answer 132

A. stall.

Question 133

46. Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
    A. In colder than standard air temperature.
    B. In warmer than standard air temperature.
    C. When density altitude is higher than indica altitude.

Answer 133

A. In colder than standard air temperature.

Question 134

47. (Refer to Figure 72 below.) What load factor would be created if positive 15 feet per second gusts were encountered at 120 mph?
    A. 2.8
    B. 3.0
    C. 2.0

Answer 134

2.0

Question 135

47. (Refer to Figure 72 below.) What load factor would be created if positive 15 feet per second gusts were encountered at 120 mph?
    A. 2.8
    B. 3.0
    C. 2.0

Answer 135

C. 2.0

Question 136

47. How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
    A. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than tru altitude.
    B. Higher temperatures expand the pressur levels and the indicated altitude is higher true altitude.
    C. Lower temperatures lower the pressure and the indicated altitude is lower than tr altitude.

Answer 136

A. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than tru altitude.

Question 137

48. (Refer to Figure 72 below.) The airspeed indicated by points A and J is
    A. maximum structural cruising speed.
    B. normal stall speed.
    C. maneuvering speed.

Answer 137

B. normal stall speed.

Question 138

48. (Refer to Figure 72 below.) The airspeed indicated by points A and J is
    A. maximum structural cruising speed.
    B. normal stall speed.
    C. maneuvering speed.

Answer 138

B. normal stall speed.

Question 139

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if

A. an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.

B. a left turn is entered from a west heading.

C. an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

Answer 139

An aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading

Question 140

5. What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
   A. It increases engine performance. B. It reduces climb performance.
   C. It increases takeoff performance.

Answer 140

B. It reduces climb performance.

Question 141

5.10 Center of Gravity Tables
58. (Refer to Figure 32 on page 237 and Figure 33 on page 237.) With the airplane loaded as follows, what action can be taken to balance the airplane?
Front seat occupants = 411 lb Rear seat occupants = 100 lb Main wing tanks = 44 gal
A. Fill the auxiliary wing tanks.
B. Add a 100-pound weight to the baggage compartment.
C. Transfer 10 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.

Answer 141

A. Fill the auxiliary wing tanks.

Question 142

5.1
2. What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?
A. It increases performance.
B. It decreases performance.
C. It has no effect on performance.

Answer 142

B. It decreases performance.

Question 143

5.1
3. Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
A. An increase in barometric pressure.
B. An increase in ambient temperature.
C. A decrease in relative humidity.

Answer 143

B. An increase in ambient temperature.

Question 144

5.1
4. What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?
A. Efficiency is increased due to less friction on the propeller blades.
B. Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
C. Efficiency is reduced due to the increased force of the propeller in the thinner air.

Answer 144

B. Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.

Question 145

5.2 Density Altitude Computations
11. (Refer to Figure 8 on page 215.) Determine the density altitude for these conditions:

Altimeter setting = 30.35
Runway temperature = +25°F
Airport elevation = 3,894 ft. MSL

A. 2,000 feet MSL.
B. 2,900 feet MSL.
C. 3,500 feet MSL.

Answer 145

A. 2,000 feet MSL.

Question 146

5.2
13. (Refer to Figure 8 on page 215.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 35 to 50°F or the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains 3,000 feet MSL?
A. 1,000-foot increase.
B. 1,100-foot decrease.
C. 1,300-foot increase.

Answer 146

C. 1,300-foot increase.

Question 147

5.2
14. (Refer to Figure 8 on page 215.) Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MS with an altimeter setting of 29.97.
A. 1,341 feet MSL.
B. 1,451 feet MSL.
C. 1,562 feet MSL.

Answer 147

A. 1,341 feet MSL.

Question 148

5.3 Takeoff Distance

20. (Refer to Figure 40 below.) Determine approximate ground roll distance required
    OAT = 38°C
    Pressure altitude = 2,000 ft
    Takeoff weight = 2,750 lb
    Headwind component = Calm

A. 1,150 feet.
B. 1,300 feet.
C. 1,800 feet.

Answer 148

A. 1,150 feet.

Question 149

5.4 Cruise Power Settings
24. (Refer to Figure 35 below.) What fuel flow should a pilot expect at 11,000 feet on a standard day with 65 percent maximum continuous power?
A. 10.6 gallons per hour.
B. 11.2 gallons per hour.
C. 11.8 gallons per hour.

Answer 149

B. 11.2 gallons per hour.

Question 150

5.4
25. (Refer to Figure 35 below.) What is the expected fuel consumption for a 1,000-nautical mile flight under the following conditions?
Pressure altitude = 8,000 ft
Temperature = 22°C
Manifold pressure = 20.8” Hg
Wind = Calm

A. 60.2 gallons.
B. 70.1 gallons.
C. 73.2 gallons.

Answer 150

B. 70.1 gallons.

Question 151

5.5 Crosswind Components
30. (Refer to Figure 36 below.) What is the crosswind component for a landing on Run the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 kr
A. 19 knots.
B. 23 knots.
C. 30 knots.

Answer 151

B. 23 knots.

Question 152

5.6 Landing Distance
36. (Refer to Figure 37 below.) Determine distance required to land.
OAT = Std
Pressure altitude = 10,000 ft Weight = 2,400 lb
Wind component = Calm
Obstacle = 50 ft
A. 750 feet.
B. 1,925 feet.
C. 1,450 feet.

Answer 152

1,925 feet.

Question 153

5.7 Weight and Balance Definitions
47. Which items are included in the standard empty weight of an aircraft?
A. Unusable fuel and full engine oil.
B. Only the airframe, powerplant, and operating equipment.
C. Full fuel tanks and engine oil to capacity.

Answer 153

A. Unusable fuel and full engine oil.

Question 154

5.7
48. An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
A. 15.7 gallons.
B. 16.2 gallons.
C. 18.4 gallons.

Answer 154

C. 18.4 gallons.

Question 155

5.7
49. If an aircraft is loaded 90 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight and fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how
much fuel should be drained?
A. 10 gallons.
B. 12 gallons.
C. 15 gallons.

Answer 155

C. 15 gallons.

Question 156

5.9 Center of Gravity Graphs
54. (Refer to Figure 34 on page 233.) What is the maximum amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard the airplane for the CG to remain within the moment envelope?
Empty weight
Pilot and front passenger
Rear passengers
Baggage
Fuel, 30 gal.
WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000
1,350
250
400
51.5
Oil, 8 qt.

A. 105 pounds.
B. 110 pounds.
C. 120 pounds.

Answer 156

A. 105 pounds.

Question 157

50. (Refer to Figure 7 below.) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
    A. horizon bar to the level-flight indication.
    B. horizon bar to the miniature airplane.
    C. miniature airplane to the horizon bar.

Answer 157

C. miniature airplane to the horizon bar.

Question 158

51. (Refer to Figure 34 on page 229.) What is the maximum amount of fuel that may be aboard the airplane on takeoff if loaded as follows?
    WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000
    Empty weight
    1,350
    51.5
    Pilot and front passenger
    340
    Rear passengers
    310
    Baggage
    45
    Oil, 8 qt.
    A. 24 gallons.
    B. 32 gallons.
    C. 40 gallons.

Answer 158

C. 40 gallons.

Question 159

51. (Refer to Figure 7 above.) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?

A. By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A).
B. By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B).
C. By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).

Answer 159

C. By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).

Question 160

52. (Refer to Figure 61 above.) If 50 pounds of weight is located at point X and 100 pounds at
    point Z, how much weight must be located at point Y to balance the plank?
    A. 30 pounds.
    B. 50 pounds.
    C. 300 pounds.

Answer 160

C. 300 pounds.

Question 161

53. (Refer to Figure 60 above.) How should the 500-pound weight be shifted to balance the plank on
    the fulcrum?
    A. 1 inch to the left.
    B. 1 inch to the right.
    C. 4.5 inches to the right.

Answer 161

A. 1 inch to the left.

Question 162

53. What steps must be taken when flying in glass flight decks to ensure safe flight?

A. Use the moving map for primary means of navigation, use the MFD to check
engine systems and weather, back up with supplementary forms of information.
B. Regularly scan each item on the PFD, conf on the MFD.
C. Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklists, and cross-check with other forms of information.

Answer 162

C. Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklists, and cross-check with other forms of information.

Question 163

54. An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can

A. compensate for an airman’s lack of skill or knowledge.
B. offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.
C. improve flight awareness by allowing the pil to simply watch for alerts.

Answer 163

B. offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.

Question 164

55. (Refer to Figure 34 on page 235.) Calculate the moment of the airplane and determine which category is applicable.
    Empty weight
    Pilot and front passenger
    Rear passengers
    Fuel, 38 gal.
    Oil, 8 qt.
    WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 1,350
    A
    th
    51.5
    310
    C
    96
    C
    -0.2

A. 79.2, utility category.
B. 80.8, utility category.
C. 81.2, normal category.

Answer 164

B. 80.8, utility category.

Question 165

55. You are flying an aircraft equipped with an electronic flight display and the air data computer fails. What instrument is affected?

A. ADS-B in capability.
B. Airspeed indicator.
C. Attitude indicator.

Answer 165

B. Airspeed indicator

Question 166

56. (Refer to Figure 34 on page 235.) Determine the moment with the following data:
    WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000
    Empty weight
    1,350
    Pilot and front passenger
    340
    Fuel (std tanks)
    Capacity
    Oil, 8 qt.
    A. 69.9 pound-inches.
    B. 75.1 pound-inches.
    C. 77.6 pound-inches.

Answer 166

B. 75.1 pound-inches

Question 167

57. (Refer to Figure 34 on page 235.) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category.
    Empty weight
    Pilot and front passenger
    Fuel, 48 gal
    Oil, 8 qt.
    WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 51.5
    1,350
    380
    288

A. 78.2, normal category.
B. 79.2, normal category.
C. 80.4, utility category.

Answer 167

B. 79.2, normal category.

Question 168

2.8 Gyroscopic Instruments
48. (Refer to Figure 5 below.) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
A. movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.
B. angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°.
C. attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis.

Answer 168

A. movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.

Question 169

59. (Refer to Figure 32 on page 239 and Figure 33 on page 239.) Determine if the airplane weight and
    balance is within limits.
    Front seat occupants = 340 lb Rear seat occupants = 295 lb Fuel (main wing tanks) = 44 gal Baggage = 56 lb
    A. 20 pounds overweight, CG aft of aft limits.
    B. 20 pounds overweight, CG within limits.
    C. 20 pounds overweight, CG forward of forward
    limits.

Answer 169

B. 20 pounds overweight, CG within limits.

Question 170

2.1
6. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if

A. a left turn is entered from a north heading.
B. a right turn is entered from a north heading.
C. an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.

Answer 170

A. a left turn is entered from a north heading.

Question 171

6. Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?
   A. Low temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude.
   B. High temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude.
   C. High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude.

Answer 171

C. High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude.

Question 172

60. (Refer to Figure 32 on page 239 and Figure 33 on page 239.) Calculate the weight and balance and determine if the CG and the weight of the airplane are within limits.
    Front seat occupants = 350 lb
    Rear seat occupants = 325 lb
    Baggage = 27 lb
    Fuel = 35 gal

A. CG 81.7, out of limits forward.
B. CG 83.4, within limits.
C. CG 84.1, within limits.

Answer 172

B. CG 83.4, within limits.

Question 173

62. (Refer to Figure 32 on page 241 and Figure 33 on page 241.) Upon landing, the front passenger (180 pounds) departs the airplane. A rear passenger (204 pounds) moves to the front passenger position. What effect does this have on the CG if the airplane weighed 2,690 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,260 just prior to the passenger transfer?

A. The CG moves forward approximately 3 inches.
B. The weight changes, but the CG is not affected.
C. The CG moves forward approximately 0.1 inch.

Answer 173

A. The CG moves forward approximately 3 inches.

Question 174

62. What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
    A. Enrich the fuel mixture.
    B. Increase the RPM.
    C. Reduce the airspeed.

Answer 174

A. Enrich the fuel mixture.

Question 175

61. What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling engine that is overheating during a climb?
    A. Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeep
    B. Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.
    C. Increase climb speed and increase RPM.

Answer 175

A. Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeep

Question 176

63. (Refer to Figure 32 on page 241 and Figure 33 on page 241.) What effect does a 35-gallon fuel burn (main tanks) have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,890 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,452 at takeoff?
    A. Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is aft of limits.
    B. Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is unaffected.
    C. Weight is reduced to 2,680 pounds and the CG moves forward.

Answer 176

A. Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is aft of limits.

Question 177

64. (Refer to Figure 32 on page 243 and Figure 33 on page 243.) Determine if the airplane weight and
    balance is within limits.
    Front seat occupants = 415 lb Rear seat occupants = 110 lb Fuel, main tanks = 44 gal Fuel, aux. tanks = 19 gal Baggage = 32 lb

A. 19 pounds overweight, CG within limits.
B. 19 pounds overweight, CG out of limits forward.
C. Weight within limits, CG out of limits.

Answer 177

C. Weight within limits, CG out of limits.

Question 178

64. (Refer to Figure 32 on page 243 and Figure 33 on page 243.) Determine if the airplane weight and
    balance is within limits.

Front seat occupants = 415 lb
Rear seat occupants = 110 lb
Fuel, main tanks = 44 gal Fuel,
aux. tanks = 19 gal Baggage = 32 lb

A. 19 pounds overweight, CG within limits.
B. 19 pounds overweight, CG out of limits
forward.
C. Weight within limits, CG out of limits.

Answer 178

C. Weight within limits, CG out of limits.

Question 179

65. (Refer to Figure 32 on page 243 and Figure 33 on page 243.) Which action can adjust the airplane’s weight to maximum gross weight and the CG within limits for takeoff?
    Front seat occupants = 425 lb Rear seat occupants = 300 lb Fuel, main tanks = 44 gal
    A. Drain 12 gallons of fuel.
    B. Drain 9 gallons of fuel.
    C. Transfer 12 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.

Answer 179

B. Drain 9 gallons of fuel.

Question 180

65. (Refer to Figure 32 on page 243 and Figure 33 on page 243.) Which action can adjust the airplane’s weight to maximum gross weight and the CG within limits for takeoff?

Front seat occupants = 425 lb
Rear seat occupants = 300 lb
Fuel, main tanks = 44 gal

A. Drain 12 gallons of fuel.
B. Drain 9 gallons of fuel.
C. Transfer 12 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.

Answer 180

B. Drain 9 gallons of fuel.

Question 181

66. (Refer to Figure 67 on page 245.) Determine the condition of the airplane:
    Pilot and copilot = 375 lb
    Passengers – aft position = 245 lb Baggage = 65 lb
    Fuel = 70 gal

A. 185 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.
B. 162 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.
C. 162 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located aft of the aft limit.

Answer 181

A. 185 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.

Question 182

67. (Refer to Figure 67 on page 245.) Determine the condition of the airplane:
    Pilot and copilot = 400 lb
    Passengers – aft position = 240 lb
    Baggage = 20 lb
    Fuel = 75 gal
    A. 157 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.
    B. 180 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.
    C. 180 pounds under allowable gross weight, but CG is located aft of the aft limit.

Answer 182

B. 180 pounds under allowable gross weight; CG is located within limits.

Question 183

7. As air temperature increases, density altitude will
   A. decrease.
   B. increase.
   C. remain the same.

Answer 183

B. increase.

Question 184

2.1
7. In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when

A. a left turn is entered from an east heading.
B. a right turn is entered from a west heading.
C. the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.

Answer 184

C. the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.

Question 185

2.13
71. The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as

A. high as 70°F and the relative humidity is hi
B. high as 95°F and there is visible moisture.
C. low as 0°F and the relative humidity is high

Answer 185

A. high as 70°F and the relative humidity is hi

Question 186

74. The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the

A. automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
B. difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
C. increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.

Answer 186

B. difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.

Question 187

75. The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
    A. an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
    B. a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
    C. a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

Answer 187

C. a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

Question 188

2.1
8. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
B. The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
C. The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane.

Answer 188

B. The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

Question 189

8. You have planned a cross-country flight on a warm spring morning. Your course includes a mountain pass, which is at 11,500 feet MSL. The service ceiling of your airplane is 14,000 feet MSL. After checking the local weather report, you are able to calculate the density altitude of the mountain pass as 14,800 feet MSL. Which of the following is the correct action to take?
   A. Replan your journey to avoid the mountain pass.
   B. Continue as planned since density altitude is only a factor for takeoff.
   C. Continue as planned because mountain thermals will assist your climb.

Answer 189

A. Replan your journey to avoid the mountain pass.

Question 190

84. Detonation may occur at high-power settings when
    A. the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously
    instead of burning progressively and evenly.
    B. an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.
    C. the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.

Answer 190

A.the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly

Question 191

85. If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed- pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to

A. lean the mixture.
B. lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
C. apply carburetor heat.

Answer 191

B. lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.

Question 192

86. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause

A. a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform i all cylinders.
B. lower cylinder head temperatures.
C. detonation.

Answer 192

C. detonation.

Question 193

87. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
    A. combustion.
    B. pre-ignition.
    C. detonation.

Answer 193

B. pre-ignition.

Question 194

9. A pilot and two passengers landed on a 2,100 foot east-west gravel strip with an elevation of 1,800 feet. computing the density altitude it is determined the The temperature is warmer than expected and after takeoff distance over a 50 foot obstacle is 1,980 feet. The airplane is 75 pounds under gross weight. What
   would be the best choice?

A. Taking off into the headwind will give the extra climb-out time needed.
B. Try a takeoff without the passengers to make sure the climb is adequate.
C. Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance.

Answer 194

C. Wait until the temperature decreases, and recalculate the takeoff performance.

Question 195

2.1
9. In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if
A. an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.
B. an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
C. a left turn is entered from a north heading.

Answer 195

C. a left turn is entered from a north heading.

Question 196

92. Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

A. Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
B. Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating.
C. Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure.

Answer 196

A. Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.

Question 197

Altimeter 1 indicates

A. 500 feet
B. 1,500 feet
C. 10,500 feet

Answer 197

C. 10,500 feet

Question 198

Altimeter 2 indicates

A. 1,500 feet
B. 4,500 feet
C. 14,500 feet

Answer 198

C. 14,500 feet

Question 199

Altimeter 3 indicates

A. 9,500 feet
B. 10,950 feet
C. 15,840 feet

Answer 199

A. 9,500 feet

Question 200

Determine the condition of the airplane:

Pilot and copilot = 316 lb
Passengers
FWD position = 130 lbs
Aft postion = 147 lbs
Baggage = 50 lbs
Fuel = 75 gals

a. 197 pounds under allowable gorss weigth; CH 83.6 inches aft of the datum
b.163 pounds under allowable gross weigth: CG 83.6 inches aft of the datum
c. 197 pounds under the alloweable gross weight: CG inches aft of the datum

Answer 200

a. 197 pounds under allowable gorss weigth; CH 83.6 inches aft of the datum

Question 201

Determine the total distance required to land.

OAT=STD
Pressure altitude = 10,000 ft
Weight +2,400 lb
Wind compodent=Calm
Obstacle= 50ft

A.750 ft
B.1,925 ft
C. 1450 ft

Answer 201

B.1,925 ft

Question 202

During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the aircraft to

a) stall at a higher airspeed.
b) have a tendency to spin.
c) be more difficult to control

Answer 202

a) stall at a higher airspeed.

Question 203

During a run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial actions?
A - Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
B - Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check
C - Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.

Answer 203

A - Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.

Question 204

Fuel/ air ratio is the ratio between the

A. volume of the fuel and volume of the air entering the cylinder
B. weigth of the fuel and volume of the air entering the cylinder
c.weigth of the fuel and volume of the air entering the carburetor

Answer 204

B. weigth of the fuel and volume of the air entering the cylinder

Question 205

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

a) Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude
b) Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.
c) Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

Answer 205

a) Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude

Question 206

If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

A.2,300
B.3,400
C.4,600

Answer 206

C.4,600

Question 207

If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

A.1,200
B.3,100
C. 3,960

Answer 207

C. 3,960

Question 208

If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 45° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

A.4,500
B.6,750
C. 7,200

Answer 208

B.6,750

Question 209

Limit Load factor is the ratio of

A. Angle of attack to stall speed
B. Angles of attack to power on configuration specific stall speed
C. Maximum sustainable load to the gross weight of the airplane

Answer 209

C. Maximum sustainable loaf to the gross weight of the airplane

Question 210

maximum wind velocity for a 45° crosswind if the 32. (Refer to Figure 36 on page 222.) Determine the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is
25 knots.
A. 25 knots.
B. 29 knots.
C. 35 knots.

Answer 210

C. 35 knots.

Question 211

Structural damage or failure is more likely to occur in smooth air at speeds above

a) V_No.
b) V_A.
c)V_NE

Answer 211

c)V_NE

Question 212

The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the

a) position of the CGs
b) speed of the airplane
c) abruptness at which the load is applied

Answer 212

B. speed of the airplane

Question 213

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

A - decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
B - decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
C - increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

Answer 213

B - decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

Question 214

The elevator controls movement around which axis?

a. Longitudinal
B. Lateral
c. Vertical

Answer 214

B. Lateral

Question 215

Trim systems are designed to do what?

A. They relieve the pilot of the need to maintain constant back pressure on the flight controls.
B. They are used during approach and landing to increase wing lift.
C. They move in the opposite direction from one another to control roll.

Answer 215

A. They relieve the pilot of the need to maintain constant back pressure on the flight controls.

Question 216

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?

a) In colder than standard air temperature
b) In warmer than standard air temperature
c) When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude

Answer 216

a) In colder than standard air temperature

Question 217

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?

a) In colder than standard air temperature
b) In warmer than standard air temperature
c) When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude

Answer 217

a) In colder than standard air temperature

Question 218

What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports wind as 220 at 30 knots?

A.19 knots
b.23 knots
c.30 knota

Answer 218

A.19 knots

Question 219

Which altimeter indicates more than 10,000 feet?

A. 1,2,and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 only

Answer 219

B. 1 and 2 only

Question 220

Which Altimeter indicates more than 9,000 feet?

A. 1,2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only

Answer 220

C. 3 only

Question 221

Which device is a secondary flight control?
A. Spoilers
B. Ailerons
C. Stabilators

Answer 221

A. Spoilers

Question 222

Which of the following is true concerning flaps?
A. Flaps are attached to the leading edge of the wing and are used to increase wing lift.
B. Flaps allow an increase in the angle of descent with increasing airspeed.
C. Flaps are high drag devices deployed from the wings to reduce lift

Answer 222

B. Flaps allow an increase in the angle of descent with increasing airspeed.

Question 223

Which statement is true concerning primary flight controls?

A. The effectiveness of each control surface increases with speed because there is more airflow over them.
B. Only when all primary flight controls move in sequence do the airflow and pressure distribution change over and around the airfoil.
c. Primary flight controls include ailerons, rudder, elevator, and trim systems.

Answer 223

A. The effectiveness of each control surface increases with speed because there is more airflow over them.

Question 224

While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

A - The fuel/air mixture become excessively lean.
B - There will be no more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
C - The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.

Answer 224

A - The fuel/air mixture become excessively lean.

Question 225



50. GIVEN:
    WEIGHT ARM MOMENT (LB) (IN) (LB-IN)
    Empty weight
    Pilot and passengers
    Fuel (30 gal usable
    no reserve)
    1,495.0
    101.4 151,593.0
    380.0
    64.0
    96.0
    The CG is located how far aft of datum?

A. CG 92.44.
B. CG 94.01.
C. CG 119.8.

Answer 225

B. CG 94.01.

Question 226



61. (Refer to Figure 32 on page 241 and Figure 33 on page 241.) What is the maximum amount of baggage that can be carried when the airplane is loaded as follows?
    Front seat occupants = 387 lb
    Rear seat occupants = 293 lb
    Fuel = 35 gal

A. 45 pounds.
B. 63 pounds.
C. 220 pounds.

Answer 226

A. 45 pounds.

Question 227

37. (Refer to Figure 37 on page 224.) Determine the
    OAT=90°F
    Pressure altitude = 4,000 ft
    Weight=2,800 lb
    Headwind component = 10 kts
    A. 1,525 feet.
    B. 1,775 feet.
    C. 1,950 feet.

Answer 227

B. 1,775 feet.

Question 228

5.1 Density Altitude
1. What are the standard temperature and pressure
values for sea level?
A. 15°C and 29.92” Hg.
B. 59°C and 1013.2 millibars.
C. 59°F and 29.92 millibars.

Answer 228

A. 15°C and 29.92” Hg.