Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Infection&immunity > Watson S2 > Flashcards

Watson S2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does FEV1 stand for

A

Forced expiratory volume in 1 second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a mitogen?

A

Mitogens are endogenous regulators of growth they are produced and released during inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name 4 mitogens

A

Platelet derived growth factors
Endothelin (peptide)
Cytokines
Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are modulators

A

They are endogenous regulators of growth that suppress growth of smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name 3 modulators

A

Heparin
Nitric oxide
Prostaglandins E2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does PEFR stand for

A

Peak expiratory flow rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the predominant nerves in airways?

A

Cholinergic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does increased cholinergic muscle tone occur?

A

1) stimulate parasympathetic nerve
2) ACh release
3) stimulates M3 receptors on airway smooth muscle
4) Gq -> PLC -> Ca2+
5) contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When a muscarinic receptor is stimulated what ultimately initiates contraction?

A

Phosphorylation of myosin light chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Circulating adrenaline works on what receptors

A

Acts on beta-adrenoceptors on airway smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the effects of adrenaline on airway smooth muscle

A

Dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does iNANC stand for

A

Inhibitory non-adrenergic non-cholinergic transmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name two dilator Neuropeptides

A

CGRP

Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does neuronally derived NO act in and what does it cause

A

Soluble guanylate cyclase

Dilation of smooth airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Are there many neuroadrenergic receptors in the airways?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name three ways in which activation of G-alpha s via stimulation of beta2 adrenoreceptors causes bronchodilation

A

Stimulates PKA which:

1) opens k+ channels
2) inactivates MLCK
3) calcium uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Via what is MLC phosphatase activated by when beta 2 adrenoreceptors are stimulated?

A

G-beta-gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name a short acting beta-2 adrenoceptor agonist?

A

Salbutamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name two long acting beta-2 adrenoceptor agonists

A

Formoterol

Salmeterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name a phosphodiesterase inhibitor

A

Theophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do phosphodiesterase inhibitors work

A

Inhibit breakdown of cAMP so more bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name two types of phosphodiesterase in the airway smooth muscle?

A

PDE III and IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name two types of asthma

A

Extrinsic- atopic

Intrinsic- non-atopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Heparins are a mast cell product that are protective: true or false

A

TRUE

25
Q

List 7 mast cell products

A 
Histamine
TNF and cytokines 
Proteases 
Heparins 
Leukotrienes 
Prostanoids 
Platelet activating factor
26
Q

Why can’t asthmatics have NSAIDs?

A

Because it blocks COX which can increase arachidonic acid so more leukotrienes

27
Q

Name two leukotrienes that are potent constrictors of airway smooth muscle

A

LTC4 and LTD4

28
Q

Name a leukotriene that is chemotactic for leukocytes

A

LTB4

29
Q

How is the prostanoid PGE2 involved in asthma

A

Relaxes airway smooth muscle may decrease leukocyte activation sensitises irritant receptors- cough

30
Q

How is the prostanoid PGD2 involved in asthma

A

Chemotactic

Bronchoconstrictor

31
Q

Name three classes of stimuli that stimulate eosinophils

A

Cytokines
Lipid mediators (LTB4 & PAF)
Chemokines (eotaxin)

32
Q

Name two anti inflam steroids

A

Prednisolone

Budesonide

33
Q

If you inhibit phosphodiesterase IV in leukocytes what happens?

A

Increased intracellularly cAMP which in turn inhibits chemotaxis, granule release and respiratory burst

34
Q

Name two leukotriene receptor antagonists

A

Montelukast

Zafirlukast

35
Q

Name a leukotriene synthesis inhibitor

A

Zileuton (inhibits the enzyme 5-lipoxygenase)

36
Q

Drugs ending in lukast are what and block what?

A

Leukotriene antagonists

Block LTC4 and LTD4

37
Q

Name two anti-allergic ‘cromones’

A 
Disodium cromoglycate (DSCG) 
Nedocromil
38
Q

Name 3 H1 receptor antagonists

A

Chlorpheniramine
Astemizole
Cetirizine

39
Q

Name an anti-IgE antibody

A

Omalizumab

40
Q

Name a non- specific muscarinic antagonist

A

Ipratropium

41
Q

Why are non specific muscarinic antagonists a bit shit?

A

The block M2 as well as M3 so loss of negative feedback so increased ACh release can overcome M3 block

42
Q

Name two M3 selective muscarinic antagonists

A

Tiotropium

Aclidinium

43
Q

Name a phosphodiesterase IV selective inhihitor

A

Rofulimast

44
Q

Name a mucolytic that breaks disulphide binds in mucin

A

N-acetyl cysteine

45
Q

What does HAT stand for and what is it

A

Histone acetyltransferase- it acetylates histones hence unpacking chromatin to allow RNA polymerase binding to DNA

46
Q

What does HDAC stand for and what does it do

A

Histone deacetylase it represses inflammatory gene expression

47
Q

True or false: theophylline promotes HDAC (restoring sensitivity)

A

TRUE

48
Q

What’s the name of the deletion gene mutation that’s 70% most common in western populations for CF

A

Triangle F508

49
Q

What’s the Guthrie test?

A

Test for inmunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT) it’s elevated in CF in the bloodstream as isn’t secreted into gut

50
Q

If the Guthrie test and genetic screening is negative what test do you do for CF?

A

Sweat test- elevated Cl- levels

Below 30mM CF unlikely
Above 60mM CF likely

51
Q

What does CFTR stand for what do you have if its defective?

A

Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator

CF

52
Q

Is CFTR a pump?

A

NO it’s an ion channel DUHHHH

53
Q

What’s the name of the faulty gene in class 1 CF

A

GF42X (nonsense mutation)

54
Q

What’s the name of the deletion mutation in class 2 CF

A

F508

55
Q

Give an example of a mutation in class 3 CF

A

G551D

56
Q

Name a mutation in class 4 CF

A

R117H

57
Q

Ataluren is a drug used in class 1 CF- how does it work?

A

Forces read through of premature termination code

58
Q

What is amiloride?

A

Drug used in CF to block ENaC so blocks sodium resorption

Infection&immunity (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions