walls 2020 Flashcards

1
Q

desquamative inflammatory vaginitis (4 criteria)

A

Need all 4 criteria:

•Vaginal symptoms (at least one must be present) – vaginal discharge, dyspareunia, pruritus, burning, irritation.

●Vaginal inflammation (spotted ecchymotic rash, erythema, focal or linear erosion).

●Vaginal pH >4.5.

●Saline microscopy – Increased numbers of parabasal and inflammatory cells with a leukocyte to epithelial cell ratio greater than 1:1

●Exclusion of other infectious etiologies – BV, yeast, trich, CT/GC when indicated

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2
Q

BV increases your susceptibility to which diseases

A
  • pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
  • postprocedural gynecologic infections,
  • sexually transmitted infections (STIs) such as HIV and herpes simplex virus type 2
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3
Q

what is the most common cause of hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

ABO incompatibility

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4
Q

what is flutamide’s MOA, indication and side effects

A

androgen-receptor agonist
(nonsteroidal antiandrogen) used for hirsutism

Most common side effect is dry skin, but its use has been associated with hepatitis in rare cases.

The risk of teratogenicity with this compound is significant, and contraception should be used

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5
Q

Finasteride MOA, indication and side effects

A

Finasteride inhibits both forms of the enzyme 5-α-reductase (type 1, predominantly found in the skin, and type 2, predominantly found in the prostate and reproductive tissues).

Used to treat hirsiuism in PCOS (Not FDA approved)

Finasteride is better tolerated than other antiandrogens, with minimal hepatic and renal toxicity; however, it has a well-documented risk of teratogenicity in male fetuses, and adequate contraception should be used

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6
Q

what are non-proliferative breast lesions and which is most common

A
simple cysts * most common
mild hyperplasia (usual type)
papillary apocrine change

relative risk of future breast cancer with these is 1.17

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7
Q

most common breast mass in adolescents and young women

A

fibroadenoma

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8
Q

what are the type of atypical hyperplasia of the breast and associated risk of cancer?

A

Atypical ductal hyperplasia and atypical lobular hyperplasia

Typically is an incidental finding on histologic evaluation of abnormal mammography findings or breast masses.

4x increased risk of subsequent invasive cancer in the affected breast and the contralateral breast

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9
Q

Lobular Carcinoma In Situ definition and associated risk

A

typically does not present as a mass or with specific breast imaging abnormalities. It usually is diagnosed as an incidental finding at the time of breast biopsy for another lesion. Unlike DCIS, LCIS usually is not considered a precursor lesion for breast cancer. Rather, it is a risk marker for future development of breast cancer in either breast.

10–20% risk of developing invasive ductal or invasive lobular cancer in the following 15 years (10x general population or 1% per year for life)

tx: increased surveillance can offer endocrine therapy. Does not require excision unless appears abnormal

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10
Q

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) definition and treatment

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) of the breast represents a group of neoplastic lesions confined to the breast ducts.

The goal of therapy for DCIS is to prevent the development of invasive breast cancer. Therapeutic approaches include surgery, radiation therapy (RT), and adjuvant endocrine therapy

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11
Q

The Pediatric Position Development Conference of the International Society of Clinical Densitometry definition of osteoporosis

A

defines osteoporosis in children as a Z -score less than –2 in addition to having secondary risk factors that reflect a short-term risk of bone mineral loss and fracture

work up if patient ammenorrhic for 6-12 months

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12
Q

primary placental estrogen

A

Estriol

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13
Q

treatement of lichen planus

A

initial treatment for lichen planus is a high-potency topical corticosteroid ointment

other treatments included topical calcineurin inhibitors, intravaginal steriods. dilators can be used to prevent scaring

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14
Q

swyers syndrome presentation and gene mutation

A

aka XY gonadal dysgenesis
normal hieght, typical female external genital appearance, intact müllerian structures, and streak gonads, no secondary sex characteristics, low testosterone, high FSH

46XY, SRY gene mutation

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15
Q

stage I twin twin transfusion syndrome

A

oligo in one twin, poly in other

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16
Q

stage II Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

A

Nonvisualization of fetal bladder in donor twin over 60 minutes of obs

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17
Q

Stage III Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

A

absent or revered umbilical artery diastolic flow

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18
Q

Stage IV Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

A

Fetal hydrops in one or both twins

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19
Q

Stage V Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

A

fetal demise of one or both twins

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20
Q

A Cephalohematoma is located between:

A

Skull and periosteum (since its sub-periosteum it will not cross suture lines)

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21
Q

sub-galeal hematoma

A

bleeding in the potential space between the skull periosteum and the scalp galea aponeurosis.

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22
Q

primary treatment of late onset CAH

A

Corticosteroids

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23
Q

what evaluation of a stillbirth should take place in the absences of identifiable risks factors

A

Evaluation of a stillbirth should include fetal autopsy; gross and histologic examination of the placenta, umbilical cord, and membranes; and genetic evaluation. APLS and KB stain

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24
Q

risk factors for macrosomia

A

constitutional factors, preexisting diabetes and GDM, maternal prepregnancy obesity, excessive gestational weight gain, abnormal fasting and postprandial glucose levels, dyslipidemia, a prior macrosomic newborn (weight more than 4,000 g), and postterm pregnancy

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25
which artery could be injured while passing your | Capio suture through the sacrospinous ligament.
inferior gluteal
26
what does the metanephros form
kidney
27
At term, what is the average PCO2 in the umbilical | cord artery?
50 mmHg
28
Holoprosencephaly is likely associated with | which numerical chromosomal abnormality?
Trisomy 13
29
which conjugate is measurable clinicall
diagonal conjugate
30
what are the 3 conjugates of pelvimetry
true (sacral promontory to superior pubic symphysis) obstetric (SP to mid PS) diagonal (SP to inferior PS)
31
how do you determined the obstetric conjugate
Diagonal - 1.5 cm
32
weight loss drug approved by FDA for use in adolescents
tetrahydrolipstatin inhibits digestive lipases to block approximately 25–30% of dietary fat absorption. Adverse effects include fatty or oily stools, abdominal pain, fecal urgency, and diarrhea. Dietary fat reduction can decrease gastrointestinal disturbance and increase tetrahydrolipstatin acceptance in adolescents
33
what space is entered in a SSLF
pararectal fossa
34
what is the most predictive US finding in a pt with an accreta
increased placental lacunae
35
which chemo drug does not increase the risk of ovarian failure
cisplatin
36
binge drinking increases risk of
stillbirth
37
nerve injury resulting in decreased patellar reflexes
femoral
38
which nerve can be injured in a TVT
ilioingunial
39
contraindications to testosterone therapy for transgender patients
absolute contraindications to masculinizing hormone therapy are: - current pregnancy, - unstable coronary artery disease, - polycythemia (hematocrit greater than 55%)
40
For the occiput anterior position of the fetal head, | appropriately applied forceps blades are:
Equidistant from the sagittal and lambdoidal suture
41
Which anomaly is associated with Kallman’s syndrome X-linked mutations?
Cleft lip and palate
42
how many mL of blood does a super tampon hold
15-18 cc
43
During a vasectomy, which structure | is ligated?
Ductus deferens
44
Poliglecaprone 25
absorbable monofilament (monocryl)
45
describe how progestins work to treat endometrial hyperplasia?
Activating progesterone receptors which results in stromal decidualization
46
if a 1A ovarian cancer is ruptured intraoperatively, how does that change her treatment and stage
stage 1A > 1C she will require chemo when she may not have previously
47
who should receive the PPSV23 vaccine?
- all adults > 65 - immunocompetent people w/ cochlear implants and CSF leaks (8wks after PV13) - Immunocompromised people 2 doses (2nd 5 years later)
48
who should receive the PPSV13 vaccine
- immunocompetent people w/ cochlear implants and CSF leaks | - Immunocompromised people 1 dose
49
sensory deficient | on the superior anterior aspect of her right thigh.
lateral femoral cutaneous
50
Where is the DNA derived from when performing | Maternal Cell Free DNA testing for aneuploidy?
placenta
51
The main arterial blood supply to breast originates from | which artery?
Axillary
52
abx after hysterosalpingogram with hydrosalpinx
doxy 100 mg BID x 5days
53
Polyglactin 910
twisted multifilament absorbable suture with synthetic coating. Last 56-70 days (8-10wks)
54
when should retesting for CT after treatment occur in a nonpregnant patient
3 months (can do a TOC no sooner than 4 weeks if high concern for treatment failure)
55
what % acetic acid is used in colpo
3-5%
56
which mutation is associated with cardiomyopathy
MYH7
57
The most common genetic cardiac disease is?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
58
What percentage of brow presentations will covert to a | face presentation?
30%
59
Serous tubal and tubal intraepithelial lesions in transition | are most frequently located in which part of the tube?
fimbria
60
maternal vit D deficiency is associated with what in infants
disordered skeletal homeostasis, congenital rickets, and fractures in the newborn
61
Which breast cancer is found to have | ductal cells in the dermal lymphatics?
inflammatory
62
Fetal growth restriction with polyhydramnios is most classically associated with which chromosomal abnormalities?
trisomy 18
63
In what phase of cell division are oocytes arrested between birth and ovulation?
Prophase I
64
Cytogenetic karyotype is performed on chromosomes | arrested in what phase of replication?
Metaphase
65
In general, what percentage of total circulating cell-free | DNA in maternal plasma is placental in origin?
10%
66
a smooth muscle tumor of the uterus with low grade tumor composed of malignant mesenchymal component and benign epithelium and rarely metastasizes?
adenosarcoma
67
which stages of ovarian cancer can be treated with surgery alone?
1A and 1B (bilateral but confined)
68
Why is Meperidine is not generally recommended for peripartum analgesia?
its active metabolite, normeperidine, has a prolonged half-life in adults and a half-life of up to 72 hours in the neonate; the normeperidine effect cannot be antagonized by naloxone
69
What percent of early pregnancy loss are due to fetal | chromosomal abnormalities/aneuploidies?
50%
70
What percent of the diet should be obtained from protein | when managing a diabetic patient in pregnancy?
15-30%
71
which maternal risk factors carry the highest risk of stillbirth
1. SLE 2. Renal disease 3. Hx of prior stillbirth
72
Why does uteroplacental blood flow decrease when | intraperitoneal insufflation pressures exceed 15 mmHG?
Increases placental vessel resistance
73
The most common gynecological malignancy in | preadolescent females is?
germ cell tumors
74
what is the best measure of chronic | asthma severity?
FEV1
75
Most commonly reported risk of using a gelatin thrombin | matrix hemostatic agent is:
postop abscess
76
In the patient that is unanesthetized, which of the following is the most common symptom of air embolus?
chest pain
77
MOA of Recombinant Parathyroid hormone for osteoporosis
increases osteoblasts and stimulates bone formation
78
MOA of bisphosphonates
inhibits osteoclast resorption
79
MOA for denosumab
blocks the KB ligand receptor to decrease bone reabsorption used if failed other therapies and is high risk
80
what is more effective over 5 years PPS or vasectomy
PPS
81
who qualifies for preventative tamoxifen
Gail model risk > 1.6% in 5 years or > 20% lifetime risk
82
tamoxifen and anastrozole affect on bone
tamoxifen: decreases osteoporosis anastrazole: increases osteoporosis (give w/ bisphosphonate)
83
side effects of tamoxifen
- increased VTE risk - Increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia/CA in postmenopausal pts - increased risk of cateracts
84
symptoms of MS
Diplopia Pain Weakness Paresthesias
85
What is the most common long term post-operative complication associated with sacrospinous ligament fixation?
anterior wall prolapse
86
fecundability rate in one year?
90%
87
How many weeks after fertilization does the | neural tube form?
3-4 wks
88
most likely neonatal injury after a shoulder dystocia
fractured clavical
89
is iugr associated with IVF
no
90
Which part of the cell does ionization radiation | affect?
nucleus
91
spironolactone MOA
- competitive inhibitor of the androgen receptor - 5α-reductase inhibitor - aldosterone antagonist.
92
The most common early Post-op complication of | lymph node dissection in the groin is:
lymphocyst formation
93
Trichloroacetic Acid is a safe treatment for vaginal warts during pregnancy. What is the agents mechanism of action?
Coagulation of tissue proteins
94
What is the reason for the procoagulant effect of | tamoxifen?
decreased antithrombin III and protein C levels
95
What muscle overlies the sacrospinous ligament?
Coccygeus
96
You have been treating a 4-month-old infant with topical estrogen cream for labial adhesions. The mother points out breast budding, what is your next step in management?
Betamethasone cream
97
major criteria for the diagnosis of Toxic shock syndrome? organism
rapid onset of fever, rash, hypotension, and multiorgan system involvement. S. aureus