truelearn Flashcards

1
Q

Negative contraction stress test

A

No late or sig variable decels

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2
Q

Postitive contraction stress test

A

late decels after 50% or more contractions

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3
Q

equivocal contraction stress test

A

FHR decels occurring in the presence of contractions more frequent than Q2min or lasting longer than 90 sec

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4
Q

unsatisfactory contraction stress test

A

fewer than 3 contractions in 10 min or uninterpretable

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5
Q

after one twin dies in monochorionic twins what is the risk of neurologic injury and death to the other twin

A

neurologic injury - 18%

death - 15%

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6
Q

after one twin dies in dichorionic twins what is the risk of neurologic injury and death to the other twin

A

Neurologic injury - 1%

Death- 3%

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7
Q

which mullarian anomaly is most common among patients with recurrent pregnancy loss

A

septate uterus

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8
Q

cervical cancer staging IA1 vs IA2 vs IB1-3

A

IA1 stromal invasion < 3mm
IA2 >3mm <5mm in depth

IB1: >5mm depth and < 2cm greatest dimensions
IB2: 2-4 cm
IB3: > 4 cm

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9
Q

cervical cancer stage II

A

Invades beyond the uterus, but has not extended onto the lower third of the vagina or to the pelvic wall

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10
Q

cervical cancer stage III

A

Involves the lower third of the vagina (A) and/or extends to the pelvic wall and/or causes hydronephrosis or non-functioning kidney (B) and/or involves pelvic and/or paraaortic lymph nodes (C)

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11
Q

Cervical cancer stage IV

A

Carcinoma has extended beyond the true pelvis or has involved (biopsy proven) the mucosa of the bladder or rectum

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12
Q

surrogate decision maker

A

decision made for an incapacitated patient by a family or close friend who is not legally appointed

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13
Q

what is postmaturity syndrome

A
decreased subcutaneous fat
lack of vernix
lack of lanugo
mec
oligo

occurs in 15-20% postterm pregnancies

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14
Q

recommended intake of vit D in pregnancy

A

600 IU

1000-2000 if deficient

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15
Q

neg low dose dexamethosone suppression test with positive high dose

A

pituitary adenoma

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16
Q

clinical dx criteria for APLS

A
  • Arterial or venous thrombotic event
  • ≥1 unexplained deaths of morphologically normal fetuses after the 10th week of gestation by ultrasound or direct examination of the fetus
  • ≥1 premature births of a morphologically normal neonate < 34 weeks gestation because of eclampsia or severe preeclampsia or recognized features of placental insufficiency
  • ≥3 unexplained consecutive spontaneous abortions < 10 weeks gestation with maternal anatomic or hormonal abnormalities and paternal and maternal chromosomal causes excluded
17
Q

risk of need for additional surgery for endometriosis after TLH if ovary is left

A

30%

18
Q

what is the embryologic origin of the distal 2/3 of the vagina

A

urogenital sinus

19
Q

what is the embryologic origin of the proximal 1/3 of vagina

A

paramesonephric ducts

20
Q

how does blood pressure differ from brachial artery to uterine artery in pregnancy

A

During pregnancy, the growing uterus can compress the great vessels in the abdomen when the patient lies in the supine position. This can cause hypotension and decreased blood flow to the uterus.

uterine BP is lower than brachial. Left lat decubitus can correct

21
Q

BRCA1 & 2 chromosomes

A

1- Chromosome 17

2 - Chromosome 13

22
Q

how long should you try conservative management for a bowel obstruction

A

5 days

23
Q

NYHA functional classification system

A

1 - no symptoms
2- slight limitations of physical activity (can walk 2 blocks)
3. marked limitations in activity, comfortable at rest
4- symptoms with all physical activity and at rest

24
Q

what infections are most associated with preterm birth

A

BV prior to 16 wks > N. gonorrheae > asym bacteriuria

25
Q

muscles of the perineal body

A

superficial transverse perineal musc, bulbocavernosus musc, external anal sphincter

26
Q

what is the most important when managing a pt with pulm htn in labor

A

maintain preload in order to perfuse the lungs (keep hypervolemic)

27
Q

endometriosis scoring system

A

Stages 1-IV (IV worst)
points for implants based on location and superficial vs deep

highest points for deep invasion (20 pts) and complete obliteration of the cul-de-sac (40 pts)

28
Q

best treatment for a complicated UTI

A

oral cipro

complicated = associated with an underlying condition DM, immunosuppression, or renal transplant

29
Q

what are the high risk factors per ACOG for PPH

A
  • Abnormal placentation: previa, accreta, increta, and percreta
  • Abnormal vital signs: tachycardia, hypotension
  • Bleeding at the time of admission
  • Coagulation defect
  • Hematocrit less than 30
  • History of previous postpartum hemorrhage
30
Q

How long does it take postpartum for the uterus to completely involute to prepregnancy size

A

4 wks

31
Q

what is the false positive rate of a NST

false negative?

A

55-90%

negative: 0.2-0.65

32
Q

what are common complications of presacral neurectomy

A

constipation and urinary retention (usually self resolved after 1-2 wks urinary retention, and 6 wks constipation)

33
Q

most common complication of IVF

A

multiple gestations

34
Q

latzko procedure

A

repairs vesicovaginal fistulas via vaginal route with multilayers. Has highest rates of successful closure 80-90%

35
Q

incidence of shoulder dystocia in pts with DM and birth weight > 4500g

A

20-50%

36
Q

what is the risk of an underlying malignancy in the surrounding areas of atypical ductal hyperplasia

A

30%

37
Q

what is a contraindication to entry at palmers point

A

hx of splenectomy