Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Wall Quizzes > Wall Quiz #5 > Flashcards

Wall Quiz #5 Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following immunohistochemical markers would NOT be indicative of Ovarian Carcinoma?
A. CDX2 
B. PAX8 
C. CA-125 
D. WT-1 
E. KRT7
A

A. CDX2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
Which of the following is an FDA approved medication for osteoporosis treatment that works by increasing osteoblasts and stimulating bone formation?
A. Calcitonin
B. Alendronate
C. Recombinant Parathyroid Hormone 
D. Zolendronate
E. Denosumab
A

C. Recombinant Parathyroid Hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
Which of the following has been shown to be the most effective type of sterilization over a 5-year period?
A. Bipolar coagulation
B. Postpartum partial salpingectomy 
C. Silicone band
D. Vasectomy
E. Spring clip
A

B. Postpartum partial salpingectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Which of the following is most valuable in detecting a gas embolus intraoperatively?
A. Hypotension
B. Tachycardia
C. Cardiac arrhythmia 
D. End tidal CO2
E. Pulse oximetry
A

D. End tidal CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
When compared to Tamoxifen, which of these adverse effects is decreased with aromatase Inhibitors?
A. Bone loss
B. Hot flushes
C. Thrombotic events 
D. Decreased libido 
E. Vaginal dryness
A

C. Thrombotic events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
Which of the following medications is most likely to result in bone resorption?
A. Diuretics
B. Calcium channel blockers 
C. Digoxin
D. Lithium
E. Insulin
A

D. Lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In a normal pregnancy, what typically happens to the umbilical artery resistance?
A. Progressively decreases throughout pregnancy
B. Progressively increases throughout pregnancy
C. Increase only in the first trimester
D. Decreases in the second trimester then increases in the third trimester
E. Does not change

A

A. Progressively decreases throughout pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
Which of the following is least likely to be associated with multiple sclerosis during pregnancy?
A. Diplopia
B. Pain
C. Tension headache 
D. Weakness
E. Paresthesias
A

C. Tension headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
A patient comes to your office after her mother developed ovarian cancer and was found to have the BRCA-1 gene. What is her risk of inheriting the gene?
A. 5% 
B. 10% 
C. 25% 
D. 50% 
E. 100%
A

D. 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
Postoperative Day 2 after laparotomy, your patient has abdominal discomfort and distension. Flat plate shows free air under the diaphragm, dilated small/large bowel with air fluid levels. Air is seen in the large bowel. This is most likely consistent with?
A. Perforated viscus
B. Small bowel obstruction
C. Electrocautery injury to small bowel 
D. Paralytic ileus
E. Ureteral injury
A

D. Paralytic ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Four days post TVH a 36 y/o patient returns to ED complaining of right flank pain, fever, and watery discharge. The next best step in management will be:
A. Diagnostic laparoscopy
B. Renal ultrasound
C. Percutaneous ureteral stent
D. Ureterneocystotomy
E. Retrograde pyelography with retrograde ureteral stent

A

E. Retrograde pyelography with retrograde ureteral stent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
Several months after a vaginal delivery, your patient complains of occasional involuntary passage of air per vagina. She denies vaginal passage of stool. What is the most appropriate confirmatory test?
A. Charcoal by mouth
B. Methylene blue rectally 
C. Barium enema
D. Sigmoidoscopy
E. Sterile milk douche
A

B. Methylene blue rectally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
The most common cause of endometrial bleeding in a post-menopausal patient is?
A. Atrophic endometrium
B. Endometrial carcinoma
C. Simple endometrial hyperplasia 
D. Complex endometrial hyperplasia 
E. Sarcoma
A

A. Atrophic endometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
Which of the following is the treatment of choice for the management of multifocal VAIN III?
A. Imiquimod cream 
B. CO2 laser
C. 5-Fluorouracil
D. Radiation
E. Excision
A

B. CO2 laser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A postmenopausal woman has a D&C that shows grade II endometrial adenocarcinoma. Endocervical curettage shows adenocarcinoma. Proper management is:
A. Preoperative pelvic radiation followed by surgery
B. TAHBSO with lymph node sampling
C. TAH
D. Conization
E. TAH with intra operative chemotherapy

A

B. TAHBSO with lymph node sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
Which of the following HPV strains has the highest carcinogenic potential?
A. 6 
B. 11 
C. 16 
D. 18 
E. 31
A

C. 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
Which generation of cephalosporin is the first line of choice for preoperative gynecologic surgical procedures?
A. First generation
B. Second generation 
C. Third generation 
D. Fourth generation
A

A. First generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A 33 y/o P1 presents s/p LEEP conization procedure for CIN III with positive margins. Which of the following is the next best step in her management?
A. Repeat pap and colposcopy at next visit
B. TAH
C. Cold knife cone
D. Repeat cytology and colposcopy in 4-6 months
E. Repeat colposcopy in 6 months

A

D. Repeat cytology and colposcopy in 4-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A 16 y/o presents to your office as a consult from family practice due to an ASCUS pap smear, what is the next best step?
A. Perform co-testing
B. Repeat cytology in one year
C. Colposcopy
D. Observation and repeat cytology at age 21
E. Repeat cytology at 6 and 12 months

A

B. Repeat cytology in one year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
What is the most common long term post-operative complication associated with sacrospinous ligament fixation?
A. Rectocele
B. Vaginal apex prolapse
C. Anterior vaginal wall prolapse 
D. ureteral kinking
E. Femoral nerve neuropathy
A

C. Anterior vaginal wall prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
A woman taking combined oral contraceptive pills for three years develops a deep vein thrombosis. The least helpful test in her evaluation is:
A. Ristocetin Cofactor Activity 
B. Protein C
C. Protein S
D. Antithrombin III
E. Anticardiolipin antibody
A

A. Ristocetin Cofactor Activity

22
Q 
A postmenopausal woman s/p anterior colporrhaphy presents with complaints of stress urinary incontinence. She is found to have a low urethral closure pressure. She is a good candidate for which procedure?
A. Retropubic sling procedure
B. Kelly plication
C. Paravaginal repair
D. Repeat anterior colporrhaphy
E. Uterosacral ligament suspension
A

A. Retropubic sling procedure

23
Q

Which of the following is most likely to relieve detrusor sphincter dyssynergia in patients with spinal cord injuries:
A. Anticholinergic medications
B. Intermittent straight catheterization
C. TVT
D. TOT
E. Alpha blocking agents

A

B. Intermittent straight catheterization

24
Q

Which of the following is the best management for a gravida with influenza?
A. Trivalent inactivated influenza vaccine
B. Quadrivalent intranasal influenza vaccine
C. Ribavirin therapy
D. Oseltamivir therapy
E. Pneumococcalvaccine

A

D. Oseltamivir therapy

25
Q 
When compared with the general population, obese women with polycystic ovarian syndrome do NOT have increased risk for:
A. Endometrial cancer 
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Diabetes mellitus 
D. Thyroid disease
E. Infertility
A

D. Thyroid disease

26
Q

Which of the following is the most common ultrasound finding suggestive of congenital CMV?
A. Ascites
B. Spleen and liver enlargement
C. Limb hypoplasia
D. Periventricular calcifications and symmetric fetal growth restriction
E. Placentomegaly

A

D. Periventricular calcifications and symmetric fetal growth restriction

27
Q

Hypovolemic shock is best characterized by:
A. Decreased PCWP, Decreased SVR, Decreased CO
B. Decreased PCWP, Decreased SVR, Increased CO
C. Decreased PCWP, Increased SVR, Increased CO
D. Decreased PCWP, Increased SVR, Decreased CO
E. Increased PCWP, Increased SVR, Decreased CO

A

D. Decreased PCWP, Increased SVR, Decreased CO

28
Q 
Of the following, tension headache is most characterized by:
A. Abrupt onset
B. Greater than 4 hours duration 
C. Nausea
D. Aura
E. Frontal and occipital location
A

E. Frontal and occipital location

29
Q 
Which of the following is the likely fecundability rate in one year?
A. 20% 
B. 40% 
C. 60% 
D. 75% 
E. 90%
A

E. 90%

30
Q 
A patient with Von Willebrand's disease is more likely to hemorrhage in which of the following pregnancy scenarios?
A. Antepartum period 
B. Still birth
C. Post-partum period 
D. Intrapartum
E. Incomplete abortion
A

C. Post-partum period

31
Q 
What are the effects of increased intrauterine pressures during diagnostic hysteroscopic procedures?
A. Increased bleeding
B. Limited visualization
C. Increased intravasation
D. Limited operating space
E. Increased risk of air embolism
A

C. Increased intravasation

32
Q 
A flat dome-shaped umbilicated lesion of the vulva is best treated with all the following EXCEPT:
A. Intralesional interferon 
B. Podofilox 0.5%
C. Imiquimod 5%
D. 5-fluorouracil
E. Curettage
A

D. 5-fluorouracil

33
Q

Which of these place a woman at greatest risk for placenta accreta?
A. History of previous Cesarean Delivery
B. History of suction D&C
C. History of thermal ablation
D. Grand multiparous
E. Submucous leiomyoma

A

A. History of previous Cesarean Delivery

34
Q 
32 yo G5P4 at 21 weeks presents for pregnancy termination. She has had three previous Cesarean deliveries. What is the most appropriate initial plan if she is requesting a D&E.
A. Methotrexate
B. Dinopristone
C. Micronized progesterone 
D. Osmotic dilators
E. Oxytocin ripening
A

D. Osmotic dilators

35
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an example of a single gene disorder?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Sickle cell anemia 
C. Hemophilia
D. Downs syndrome 
E. Tay-Sachs disease
A

D. Downs syndrome

36
Q 
What is the most common intraoperative complication associated with abdominal sacral colpopexy?
A. Hemorrhage
B. Nerve entrapment 
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Urinary retention
E. Urinary incontinence
A

A. Hemorrhage

37
Q 
A pregnant patient presents to the ER with a thrombotic hemorrhoid and pain. The best treatment is:
A. Incision and evacuation of clot 
B. Sitz baths
C. Stool softener
D. Rectal suppository with cortisone 
E. Ice packs
A

A. Incision and evacuation of clot

38
Q 
A 27 y/o presents on day 14 of her menstrual cycle for progestin implant contraception. How many days must she use back up protection?
A. No back up contraception needed 
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 5 days
E. One week
A

E. One week

39
Q 
What is the most likely cause of a persistent or chronic cough?
A. Pneumonia
B. Bronchitis
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease 
D. TB
E. Peptic ulcer disease
A

C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

40
Q 
A patient is referred to your office with a diagnosis of androgen insensitivity syndrome. On physical exam you are most likely to see:
A. Temporal balding 
B. Clitormegaly
C. Small uterus
D. Blind vaginal pouch 
E. Tanner 1 stage breasts
A

D. Blind vaginal pouch

41
Q

All of the following questions are important to ask when you suspect a patient has a drinking problem, EXCEPT:
A. Do you feel a need to cut down on your drinking
B. Do you need an eye opener
C. How many drinks do you have daily
D. Do you feel annoyed when people question you about your drinking
E. Do you feel guilty after drinking

A

C. How many drinks do you have daily

42
Q

You are performing a laparotomy on a patient with stage 1 ovarian cancer. What is the least important step?
A. Peritoneal washings
B. Free fluid for cytology
C. Biopsy of the diaphragm
D. Exploration of all intra-abdominal surfaces
E. Lymph node dissection

A

C. Biopsy of the diaphragm

43
Q 
Which of the following is not a germ cell tumor?
A. Dysgerminoma
B. Immature teratoma 
C. Choriocarcinoma 
D. Granulosa cell
E. Endodermal sinus
A

D. Granulosa cell

44
Q 
How many weeks after fertilization does the neural tube form?
A. 1-2 weeks 
B. 3-4 weeks 
C. 4-6 weeks 
D. 6-8 weeks
A

B. 3-4 weeks

45
Q 
Which of the following is the most likely neonatal injury with shoulder dystocia?
A. Fracture of clavicle
B. 4th degree lacerations 
C. Fracture of the humerus 
D. Diaphragmatic paralysis 
E. Horner syndrome
A

A. Fracture of clavicle

46
Q 
A neonate is noted to have skin scarring and limb hypoplasia. At which of the following gestational ages did the infection most likely occur?
A. < 6 weeks 
B. 6-10 weeks 
C. 13-20 weeks 
D. 28-32 weeks 
E. >32 weeks
A

C. 13-20 weeks

47
Q 
Which of the following maternal adverse effects is the most common symptom associated with opioid neuraxial blocks?
A. Nausea
B. Vomiting
C. Pruritis
D. Maternal hypotension 
E. Headache
A

C. Pruritis

48
Q 
Patient at 7 weeks gestation and has a barium enema, what is the likely outcome of her pregnancy?
A. Miscarriage
B. Intellectual deficit
C. No consequence
D. Congenital anomalies
E. Severe intellectual disability
A

C. No consequence

49
Q 
All of the following are risks associated with assisted reproductive technology (ART) EXCEPT:
A. Preeclampsia
B. Placenta previa
C. Placental abruption
D. Intrauterine growth restriction 
E. Imprinting disorders
A

D. Intrauterine growth restriction

50
Q 
Which of the following tests, using amniotic fluid will provide the most rapid result in determining if a fetus has Downs Syndrome?
A. Karyotype
B. Fluorescence in situ hybridization 
C. Cell Sorting
D. PCR
E. C-banding
A

B. Fluorescence in situ hybridization

Wall Quizzes (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions