Wall Quiz #1 Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following on microscopy would indicate a pt has desquamative inflammatory vaginitis? A. Eosinophils B. Parabasal cells C. Clue cells D. RBC's E. Hyphae
A
B. Parabasal cells
2
Q
Non-pregnant pts with BV are at an increased risk of various infections of the female reproductive tract EXCEPT: A. PID B. HIV C. HSV 2 D. Yeast vaginitis E. Vaginal cuff cellulitis
A
D. Yeast Vaginitis
3
Q
Which of the following is the MCC of the hemolytic disease of the newborn? A. ABO incompatibility B. RH D incompatibility C. Lewis (Lea) incompatibility D. Kell incompatibility E. RH E incompatibility
A
A. ABO incompatibility
4
Q
Which of the following is the most potent androgen? A. Dihydrotestosterone B. DHEA C. DHEAS D. Androstendione E. Free testosterone
A
A. Dihydrotestosterone
5
Q
Which of the following is the MC side-effect of flutamide? A. Voiding dysfunction B. Hyperkalemia C. Diarrhea D. HA E. Dry skin
A
E. Dry skin
6
Q
The MC type of non-proliferative breast lesion is? A. Idiopathic B. Breast cyst C. Fibrocystic changes D. Fat necrosis E. Fibroadenoma
A
B. Breast cyst
7
Q
When using a Z-score to evaluate a 22 yo for bone loss, which value is clinically significant for osteoporosis? A. -1.0 B. -1.5 C. -2.0 D. -2.5 E. -3.0
A
C. -2.0
8
Q
Prolactin is produced and secreted by which cells in the pituitary gland? A. Thyrotropes B. Somatotrophs C. Gonadotrophs D. Lactotrophs E. Supraventricular nucleus
A
D. Lactotrophs
9
Q
Of the following antibodies, which one is not frequently encountered? A. D B. Lea C. Leb D. I E. Cw
A
E. Cw
10
Q
What is the primary placental estrogen? A. Estradiol B. Estrone C. Estriol D. Esterol E. Ethinyl Estradiol
A
C. Estriol
11
Q
A 26-year-old presents with primary infertility. Of all the following baseline diagnostic tests, which one is least likely warranted? A. Hysterosalpingogram B. Anti-mullerian hormone C. Semen analysis D. Luteinizing hormone monitoring E. Endometrial biopsy
A
E. Endometrial biopsy
12
Q
The estrogenic component of oral contraceptives increases the hepatic production of serum globulins involved in coagulation EXCEPT: A. Anti-thrombin III B. Factor VII C. Factor X D. Fibrinogen
A
A. Anti-thrombin III
13
Q
All of the following are treatments for Lichen planus EXCEPT: A. Cyclosporine B. Systemic corticosteroids C. Hydroxyquinoline D. Methotrexate E. Estrogen cream
A
E. Estrogen Cream
14
Q
All of the following are findings associated with Swyers syndrome EXCEPT:
A. Normal stature and phenotype
B. Lack of secondary sex characteristics
C. High FSH
D. Elevated testosterone levels
E. Mutation of the SRY gene
A
D. Elevated testosterone levels
15
Q
In a patient who has been sensitized, the most precise method to evaluate a pregnancy affected by alloimmunization is: A. Middle cerebral artery dopplers B. Kleinhauer Betke test C. Ristocetin Co factor activity D. Rosette screen E. Coombs test
A
A. Middle cerebral artery dopplers
16
Q
Which of the following is an example of a direct maternal death?
A. Aortic stenosis complicated by pregnancy
B. Uterine rupture exsanguination
C. Motor vehicle accident death
D. Sickle cell anemia related death
E. Maternal death as a result of mitral valve stenosis
A
B. Uterine rupture exsanguination
17
Q
While attempting to deliver the fetal head in a breech presentation at 28 weeks, you note head entrapment in the cervix. What is the next best step? A. Terbutaline B. Piper forceps C. Prague maneuver D. Intravenous nitroglycerin E. Dührssen incision
A
E. Dührssen incision
18
Q
The U/S finding consistent with stage III Twin- to-twin transfusion syndrome is: A. Absent or reverse end diastolic flow B. Demise of one infant C. Fetal hydrops D. Amniotic fluid less than 2cm E. Non visualization of the bladder
A
A. Absent or reverse end diastolic flow
19
Q
Zoledronate is contraindicated in which of the following conditions? A. Renal failure B. GERD C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Liver disease E. Recent DVT
A
A. Renal failure
20
Q
A Cephalohematoma is located between: A. Periosteum and aponeurosis B. Skull and periosteum C. Skin and galea aponeurosis D. Bone and dura matter
A
B. Skull and periosteum
21
Q
Which of the following Thrombophilias cannot be tested during pregnancy? A. Antithrombin III deficiency B. Protein S disease C. Protein C disease D. Factor V Leiden mutation E. Prothrombin G20210A
A
B. Protein S disease
22
Q
A 35-year-old G4P4 presents to the emergency department following an episode of syncope. She has a known history of AUB. Her hgb is 8.2 g/dL and her vital signs are stable. What is the best step in management? A. Administer crystalloids B. Perform D&C C. Set up endometrial ablation D. Transfusion E. Intramuscular DMPA
A
D. Transfusion
23
Q
A 34-year-old presents with heavy menses despite OCP’s for 6 months. U/S shows a 1.1 endometrial echo complex and normal ovaries. What is the next best step? A. Discontinue OCP’s B. Insert levonorgestrel IUD C. Start tranexamic acid during menses D. Endometrial biopsy E. D&C
A
D. Endometrial biopsy
24
Q
Which of the following is most strongly suggestive of adenomyosis on pelvic sonogram? A. Myometrial cysts B. Myometrial calcifications C. Thickened endometrium D. Myometrial calcifications E. Hyperechoic masses
A
A. Myometrial cysts
25
16-year-old presents with sudden right sided pelvic pain, N&V. Her heart rate is 105, Temp. 100.6 F, and Urine HCG is negative. What is the best management if you are suspecting an ovarian torsion?
A. Admit prescribe pain medications
B. Detorsion by laparoscopy
C. Emergency laparotomy and oophorectomy
D. Doppler u/s examination
E. CT scan of the pelvis with contrast
B. Detorsion by laparoscopy
26
```
Which of the following is the first line management for the treatment of orgasmic disorders?
A. Sexual skills training
B. Bupropion
C. Testosterone patch
D. Flibisarin (Addyi)
E. Low dose systemic Estrogen
```
A. Sexual skills training
27
```
A 23-year-old presents with an elevated 17-OHP level. What is the primary treatment?
A. Finasteride
B. Corticosteroids
C. Clomiphene citrate
D. Spironolactone
E. Oral Contraceptive pills
```
B. Corticosteroids
28
```
All of the following are anatomical causes for occult stress urinary incontinence EXCEPT?
A. Hypermobility of the urethra
B. Loss of the intra-abdominal urethra
C. Loss of urethral vesicle angle
D. Increases in bladder capacity
```
D. Increases in bladder capacity
29
```
Which of the following medications can increase your risk of endometrial hyperplasia?
A. Clomiphene citrate
B. Tamoxifen citrate
C. Anastrozole
D. Raloxifene
E. Ospemifene
```
B. Tamoxifen citrate
30
```
Which of the following medications has been shown to reduce vertebral fractures in patients with BRCA 1 mutation?
A. Calcitonin
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Bisphosphonates
D. Raloxifene
E. Denosumab
```
D. Raloxifene
31
```
A 72-year-old post menopausal woman undergoes a TAHBSO and lymph node biopsy for endometrial cancer. Pathology shows grade II adenocarcinoma with myometrial invasion less than 50%. Nodes negative. What is the best management?
A. Observation
B. Vaginal estrogen
C. Vaginal brachytherapy
D. Pelvic radiation
E. Chemotherapy
```
C. Vaginal brachytherapy
32
```
The communication model AIDET includes all the following EXCEPT:
A. Acknowledge
B. Assessment
C. Introduce
D. Duration
E. Explanation
```
B. Assessment
33
```
Which of the following is NOT part of the basic prenatal laboratory panel?
A. Blood type and RH
B. Rubella
C. Hepatitis
D. Syphilis
E. Hemoglobin/Hematocrit
```
C. Hepatitis
34
```
A patient at 38 weeks presents with a fetal demise, which of the following diagnostic tests is most necessary in the evaluation?
A. Torch titers
B. Thrombophilia evaluation
C. KB test
D. Urine toxicology
```
B. Thrombophilia evaluation
35
```
A 7-year-old presents with labial adhesions, white plaques and papules. She has a known history of sexual abuse. What is the best treatment?
A. Clindamycin 2%
B. Biopsy
C. Observation
D. Steroid cream
E. Laser ablation
```
D. Steroid cream
36
```
Which of the following is not a maternal risk factor for macrosomia?
A. Pregestational DM
B. Pre-pregnancy obesity
C. Dyslipidemia
D. Pre-pregnancy steroid use
E. Prior macrosomic newborn
```
D. Pre-pregnancy steroid use
37
```
Which of the following methods of contraception is contraindicated in women with obesity?
A. Contraceptive patch
B. Etonorgesterol ring
C. Oral contraceptives
D. Copper T IUD
E. No methods are contraindicated
```
E. No methods are contraindicated
38
Which of the following is the teratogenic window for warfarin during pregnancy?
A. 4-6 weeks gestation
B. 6-12 weeks gestation
C. 12-16 weeks gestation
D. 16-20 weeks gestation
E. Warfarin is teratogenic all trimesters
B. 6-12 weeks gestation
39
Which of the following patients is most likely going to have a successful TOLAC?
A. Twin gestation
B. BMI greater than 40
C. Gestational age greater than 40 weeks
D. Macrosomic infant
E. Previous CD x 2
A. Twin gestation
40
```
Which of the following is the best test to monitor a patient undergoing ovulation induction with Follistim© – recombinant human follicle stimulating hormone?
A. Urinary LH rise
B. Rise in basal body temperature
C. Increase in serum progesterone
D. Increase in serum estradiol levels
E. Measurement of HcG levels
```
D. Increase in serum estradiol levels
41
```
Which of the following medications for the treatment of hirsuitism is an androgen receptor agonist?
A. Spironolactone
B. Flutamide
C. Finasteride
D. Eflornithine
E. Oral contraceptives
```
B. Flutamide
42
```
Which of the following is the most likely predisposing event in a neonate with GBS sepsis?
A. chorioamnionitis
B. abruption
C. cerebral palsy
D. preterm labor
E. Pre-labor rupture of membranes
```
A. chorioamnionitis
43
```
While performing a sacrospinous ligament suspension you encounter a large gush of blood while passing your Capio suture through the ligament. Which vessel was injured?
A. inferior gluteal
B. iliolumbar
C. uterine
D. genital femoral
E. external iliac
```
A. inferior gluteal
44
```
Which of the following mechanism of action best describes Mirabegron?
A. Muscle paralytic
B. M2 receptor blocker
C. M3 receptor agonist
D. Beta-agonist
E. Beta-antagonist
```
D. Beta-agonist
45
```
All the following are to be discontinued prior to TAHBSO EXCEPT:
A. Ibuprofen
B. Aspirin
C. Saw palmetto
D. Warfarin
E. Regular insulin
```
E. Regular insulin
46
```
In females, what does the metanephros ultimately form?
A. Uterus
B. Kidney
C. Vagina
D. Embryonic remnants E. Fallopian tubes
```
B. Kidney
47
```
Which of the following gives rise to the chorionic structures that transport oxygen and nutrients between the fetus and mother?
A. Villous trophoblast
B. Interstitial trophoblast
C. Extravillous trophoblast
D. Endovascular trophoblast
```
A. Villous trophoblast
48
```
At term, what is the average PCO2 in the umbilical cord artery?
A. 20 mmHg
B. 30 mmHg
C. 40 mmHg
D. 50 mmHg
E. 80 mmHg
```
D. 50 mmHg
49
```
What is the best way to identify a genetic abnormality in a stillborn fetus?
A. Autopsy
B. Karotype
C. Maternal cell-free DNA testing
D. Chromosomal microarray analysis
E. Fluorescent in situ hybridization
```
D. Chromosomal microarray analysis
50
```
Holoprosencephaly is likely associated with which numerical chromosomal abnormality?
A. Trisomy 13
B. Trisomy 16
C. Trisomy 18
D. Trisomy 21
```
A. Trisomy 13
