Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology Honors I > Waksman Entrance Exam > Flashcards

Waksman Entrance Exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Duckweed creates biofuel (alt. energy) by:

A

Converting starch to ethanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Duckweed degrades contaminants in the water which is an example of:

A

Bioremediation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Polymer

A

A big molecule made up of smaller molecules that are linked together with similar bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2 categories of super polymers:

A

Informational/Instructional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

DNA stands for:

A

deoxyribonucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

DNA is a double _____ and a polymer of _________

A

helix, nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What makes up a nucleotide?

A
  • 5 carbon sugar
  • Phosphate group
  • Nitrogenous Base (ATGC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Carbon makes _ bonds

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

OH is also referred to as:

A

hydroxyl groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The phosphate group is linked to the 5’ carbon sugar at

A

5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where do nucleotides join

A

5’ and 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ribose is found in

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Deoxyribose is found in

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which lacks a hydroxyl group at the 2’ carbon

A

Deoxyribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Oxygen’s of the phosphate group are negatively charged, therefore:

A

DNA is negatively charged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Oxygen makes _ bonds

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If the oxygen does not make 2 bonds, it becomes _

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A is

A

Adenine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T is

A

Thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

C is

A

Cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

G is

A

Guanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Purines have how many rings

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which are purines

A

A and G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pyrimidines have how many rings

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which are pyrimidines

A

T and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which bond through 2 hydrogen bonds

A

A and T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which bond through 3 hydrogen bonds

A

G and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

DNA is anti

A

parallel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The complimentary strand of 5’ to 3’ is

A

3’ to 5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Polynucleotide chains are

A

A chain of the molecules of the 4 bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does a polynucleotide chain form?

A

The O of the 3’ hydroxyl group on the chain attacks the phosphate of a nucleotide tri-phosphate, eliminating the 2 outermost phosphates and releasing H20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Genomic DNA library

A

Contains ALL sequenced DNA of an organism, includes both coding and non-coding regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

cDNA DNA library

A

Contains mRNA - ONLY the DNA that can be used to makee proteins, and includes ONLY coding regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Generic process

A

cloning and overnight cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

DNA fragments must be _______ and ______ to be studied

A

amplified and purified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Can you purify it alone

A

No, its almost impossible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Fragments must be inserted (cloned) intro vectors

A

Circular DNA molecules that replicate inside bacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What vector does Waksman use?

A

pTriplEx2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the 3 steps of the cloning process

A
  1. Digest
  2. Ligate
  3. Amplify`
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does digest mean?

A

Insert and vector are cut/digested at sites A and B by enzyme Sfil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does ligate mean?

A

Insert and vector are joined (ligated) at sites A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do you amplify the plasmid?

A

Plasmid is put in bacterium for amplification

43
Q

What is ON

A

Overnight cultures (bacterium transformation)

44
Q

What is step 1 of cloning

A

Make cells competent with CaCl2 (Calcium Chloride), so that the cells and plasmids are both negatively charged.

45
Q

What is step 2 of cloning

A

Transform plasmid DNA - some cells will take up the plasmid

46
Q

What is step 3 of cloning

A

Plasmid DNA replication - bacterium naturally replicates plasmid

47
Q

What is step 4 of cloning

A

Eliminate cells without plasmid - cells without plasmid die in antibiotics (ampicillin)

48
Q

What is step 5 of cloning

A

Cell replicates - Bacterium cells replicate naturally with plasmid

49
Q

What is step 6 of cloning

A

Plate the cells - replicates cells become colonies

50
Q

The pTriplEx2 vector contains a

A

selectable marker

51
Q

What initiates replication?

A

Origin of replication

52
Q

What does the Ampicillin selectable resistance marker (AmpR) do?

A

Ensures only bacteria containing plasmid will replicates and grow.

53
Q

What does the lacZ gene do?

A

Indicates which colonies and plasmids have the insert.

54
Q

What enzyme does the lacZ gene make?

A

B-galactosidase

55
Q

What substance does B-galactosidase react with to create blue-colored colonies?

A

X-gal

56
Q

What can happen if the lacZ gene is disrupted by a DNA insert?

A

It will no longer produce the blue color. Instead, colonies with the DNA insert will be white

57
Q

Which type of colony should we choose?

A

The ISOLATED WHITE colony

58
Q

Why do we overnight cultures?

A

to grow bacteria to prepare the DNA for PCR and RD.

59
Q

What is step 1 of ON?

A

Nourish - Grow the culture in Luria broth with ampicillin.

60
Q

What is step 2 of ON?

A

Shake - Tap or vortex the tube to help the growth.

61
Q

What is step 3 of ON?

A

Incubate - Leave the culture overnight at 37°C.

62
Q

Darker yellow color means the ON is fully grown or not yet fully grown?

A

Fully grown

63
Q

How do you name your ON on the clone sheet?

A

(School number)(Initials CAPS)(Clone#).(Year) - ex. 20RN3.24

64
Q

What does PCR stand for?

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction

65
Q

PCR rapidly produces billions of copies

A

Yes

66
Q

What is step 1 of PCR prep?

A

Dilute the ON in water -Undiluted cells do not work properly in PCR → causes unclear PCR band.

67
Q

What happens if we use too much DNA?

A

The primers and nucleotides will get used up too fast

68
Q

What is step 2 of PCR prep?

A

Prepare the 5X mix

69
Q

What is the 5X Mix made up of?

A
  • Use sterile distilled water (ddH₂O) to control the volume and concentration of the reagents.
  • Use primers - SP and XP primers attach to the plasmid DNA.
  • 2X Taq Mix - This mix contains Taq buffer, dNTPs, and Taq polymerase.
70
Q

The 5X Mix is used for how many clones (PCR tubes)

A

4

71
Q

What is step 3 of PCR prep?

A

The 5X Mix (23ul each 4x) and the diluted cultured (2ul each 4x) are added together.

72
Q

What is step 4 of PCR prep?

A

Place DNA in thermal cycler

73
Q

What is step 1 of the PCR process?

A

Initial Denaturation: Heat the DNA to 94C for 5min - this high temp. breaks apart the double-stranded DNA into two single strands by breaking the weak hydrogen bonds holding them together

74
Q

What is step 2 of the PCR process?

A

Amplification: (Repeated 30x):
a. 94C for 1min - re-denaturation
b. 50C for 1min - annealing, primer bind to the single stranded DNA to prepare for copying.
c. 72C for 1min - synthesis, Taq enzyme adds nucleotides to form new DNA strands, making copies.

75
Q

What is step 3 of the PCR process?

A

Additional Elongation: 72C for 5min to make sure that any remaining DNA strands are fully extended.

76
Q

What is step 4 of the PCR program?

A

End Program: Cooled down to 4C to keep samples stable until taken out.

77
Q

What does gel electrophoresis do

A

To determine the size of DNA fragments

78
Q

What is step 5 of PCR?

A

Gel electrophoresis

79
Q

How does DNA move in the gel electrophoresis?

A
  1. Load the DNA in the wells at the negative end of the gel
  2. Since DNA is negative, it will migrate to the positive end
  3. smaller DNA fragments move further than the larger fragments, causing the fragments to be separated by size.
80
Q

What’s a messy band

A

If the gel has unclear or smeared bands, it may be due to random priming. This happens when primers bind to unintended spots of the DNA.

81
Q

Why could there be multiple bands?

A
  • The primers are binding to multiple places on the DNA
  • There are two different plasmids or colonies present.
82
Q

Why could there not be any bands on the PCR

A

The inserted DNA is too large to be properly amplified.

83
Q

What is an enzyme?

A

A protein that breaks things down

84
Q

How do we split the ON between PCR and RD

A

Half and half

85
Q

How do you find the size of the insert?

A

compare the DNA fragment to the marker lane

86
Q

The uncut lane is the

A

control group

87
Q

What does the sample contain that makes it visible under a UV light?

A

ethidium bromide

88
Q

The gel is submerged in _____, which carries the current throughout the gel

A

buffer

89
Q

What does a bright band with a lot of background mean?

A

too much DNA (overloaded)

90
Q

What do faint bands mean?

A

too little DNA

91
Q

What does it mean when there are no bands except for the DNA ladder?

A

no ethidium / no samples / no cells

92
Q

Restriction enzymes are:

A

cleave DNA at a specific nucleotide sequence

93
Q

PvuII enzyme cleaves the vector at how many sites?

A

2

94
Q

Two fragments are formed from the cleavage of the PvuII enzyme . What are they?

A

vector backbone and the insert

95
Q

pTriplEx2 enzyme is made up of how many PvuII enzymes?

A

2

96
Q

What does it mean if there are 3 bands in the cut lane?

A

Too large of an insert

97
Q

What are the three different shapes of tangled DNA?

A

Top - open circle
Middle - Linear
Lowest - supercoil

98
Q

Which tangled shape of DNA will migrate fastest and why?

A

Supercoil, it is the thickest.

99
Q

What does N/A mean?

A

the sample is contaminated

100
Q

What does Contamination mean

A

Some kind of external DNA got into the tested DNA

101
Q

Each sequence is in _ places on the vector

A

2

102
Q

Do you calculate the insert size from the cut or uncut lane?

A

cut

103
Q

How do you calculate insert size with 2 bands?

A

Lowest bad - 700bps

104
Q

How do you calculate insert size with 3 bands?

A

Sum of lower two bands - 700bps

Biology Honors I (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions