W17 60 leukaemias, lymphomas and bone marrow disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What are some differential diagnoses of gingival hypertrophy?

A

Acute or chronic infections
Medications: phenytoin, ciclosporin, calcium channel blockers
Acute myeloid leukaemia

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2
Q

What is acute leukaemia?

A

A disorder of haematopoietic stem cells resulting in the rapid accumulation of clonal IMMATURE precursors in the bone marrow. An acute life threatening condition.

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3
Q

Is leukaemia associated with a high white cell count?

A

Not always, very often in acute leukaemia, all of the white cells are trapped in the bone marrow as immature precursors and people often present with a pancytopenia rather than a leucocytosis.

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4
Q

What is pancytopenia?

A

Having low levels of all 3 blood counts - WBCs, RBCs and platelets

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5
Q

What is leucocytosis?

A

A high white blood cell count

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6
Q

What are the 2 types of acute leukaemia?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) - most common in adults
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) - most common in treatment

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7
Q

When do you need to treat acute leukaemias?

A

Requires treatment within hours/days of diagnosis - risk of death from bleeding/infection if delay.

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8
Q

What is the presentation of acute leukaemia?

A

Marrow failure - so anaemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
Hyperviscosity due to leucocytosis - so headaches, breathlessness, visual blurring, confusion
Leukaemic infiltration (of malignant immature cells)

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9
Q

What can marrow failure in acute leukaemia cause?

A

Anaemia: fatigue, SOB, headaches, palpitations. Can result in end organ failure so MI and stroke.
Leukopenia: infections, mouth ulcers
Thrombocytopenia: purpura, bleeding, bruising

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10
Q

What does hyperviscosity due to leucocytosis in acute leukaemia cause?

A

Hyperviscosity due to leucocytosis means blood flow is slowed by the increase viscosity due to the presence of an excess number of both large and sticky WBCs.
Causes headaches, breathlessness, visual blurring, confusion

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11
Q

What does leukaemic infiltration (of malignant immature cells) in acute leukaemia cause?

A

AML can cause gingival hypertrophy
Skin lesions ‘chloromas’
Hepatosplenomegaly

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12
Q

What are key diagnostic investigations for assessment of leukaemias?

A

Clinical assessment
Full blood count
Blood film
Bone marrow assessment

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13
Q

What abnormal factor is seen in a full blood count in acute leukaemias? (PG588 DATA)

A

WBC is larger than the sum of all the parts beneath it, seen in acute leukaemias because the immature cells are not routinely reported. Blast cells not there and often make up the difference between the total of mature cells and total white cell count given.

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14
Q

What is haematopoiesis?

A

Production of blood cells. They have differential processes.

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15
Q

What are the different groups that come from multipotent stem cells to make each individual blood cell? (DIAGRAM PG588)

A

Common myeloid progenitor - megakaryoblasts-promegakaryoblast-megakaryocyte—>platelets; proerythroblasts-erythroblasts-reticulocyte—>RBCs; myloblasts—>basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages; mast cells
Common lymphoid progenitor - lymphoblasts- T and B lymphocytes- plasma cells

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16
Q

What are the most numerous granulocyte?

A

Neutrophils are more numerous than basophils and eosinophils

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17
Q

What do monocytes end up as?

A

Macrophages that take up residence and present antigens through the tissues

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18
Q

What are the different types of leukocytosis (raised white cell count)?

A

Neutrophilia/monocytosis
Eosinophilia/basophilia
Lymphocytosis

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19
Q

What is neutrophilia/monocytosis and when does it occur?

A

Raised counts of neutrophils and monocytes
Usually raised due to a bacterial infection or inflammation
Neutrophilia can also come with raised steroid use

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20
Q

What is eosinophilia/basophilia and when does it occur?

A

Usually raised in allergy, parasitic infections
Eosinophilia also associated with a number of inflammatory and autoimmune diseases as well as drug side effects

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21
Q

What is Lymphocytosis and when does it occur?

A

Increased lymphocyte count
Usually raised due to viral infections or inflammation
Also can be seen in a number of lymphoproliferative diseases

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22
Q

What is neutropenia?

A

Low neutrophil count

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23
Q

What might happen in neutropenia and what should you do?

A

If the neutrophil count is low, life-threatening infection may develop rapidly - the presence of fever is a ‘medical emergency’ - needs immediate treatment with antibiotics.

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24
Q

What is febrile neutropenia?

A

Evidence of infection but low neutrophil count

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25
Q

A low neutrophil count should always prompt assessment of the cause, particularly if:

A

It is associated with symptoms
There are other cytopenias eg pancytopenia
It is persistently low

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26
Q

Should you perform dental procedures whilst patients are neutropenic?

A

It may be dangerous to perform dental procedures while patients are neutropenic - ideally avoid (especially in a time when the causes are known or there is expected to be a recovery of the neutrophil count)

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27
Q

What are some common causes of neutropenia?

A

Drugs - methotrexate, azathioprine, chemotherapy (commonly drugs used to treat autoimmune disease or prevent organ transplant rejection)
Viral infection, including HIV. (neutropenia = secondary to infection not a cause of infection)
B12/folate deficiency

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28
Q

What are some less common but still important causes of neutropenia?

A

Alcohol
Ethnicity
Hypersplenism
Bone marrow failure
Leukaemia

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29
Q

What is the spleen?

A

A site of a lot of haematopoietic stem cells.
A large spleen means a lot of blood cells will pool in the spleen, leading to a low neutrophil count, as well as low platelet count and anaemia in some patients.

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30
Q

In a blood film, what are blast cells like and what are they indicative of? (Pg590)

A

Blast cells have a very large nuclei, not much cytoplasm.
Usually resident in the bone marrow in very small numbers. Seeing them out in peripheral blood in a FBC is grossly abnormal and highly suspicious of acute leukaemia.

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31
Q

Where is a good place to find haematopoiesis?

A

Bone of the pelvis

32
Q

What will you see in an aspirate?

A

All of the precursors for the cells you will see in health
PG591 IMG

33
Q

What are the 2 main types of chronic leukaemia?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

34
Q

Describe chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

A

Disease of old age
Usually found as an isolated persisting Lymphocytosis on a full blood count
Number not necessarily proportionate to disease
Can also present with lymphadenopathy, fevers, weight loss and pancytopenia
Treatment is similar to non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

35
Q

Describe chronic myeloid leukaemia

A

Often presents slightly younger
Presents over months, with tiredness and a large spleen
Diagnosed with a FBC and genetic tests
Treated with targeted therapy (imatinib)

36
Q

What is an allogeneic stem cell transplant?

A

Bone marrow transplant

37
Q

What is treatment of AML?

A

4 cycles of chemotherapy, 7-10days each
Allogeneic stem cell transplantation if there is a high risk of relapse

38
Q

What follows for 2-3weeks after chemotherapy?

A

Pancytopenia
In many malignancies, the bone marrow suppression is an unwanted side effect of chemotherapy.

39
Q

What is the treatment of ALL?

A

2-3 years of intermittent chemotherapy
Complex schedules with multiple phases
May also require stem cell transplantation if high risk of relapse

40
Q

Why might an allogeneic stem cell transplant be needed?

A

High dose chemotherapy +/- radiotherapy will completely oblate the entire bone marrow
Pt will not recover without a stem cell donation - must be matched against the different HLA types

41
Q

What are the side effects of leukaemia treatment?

A

Bone marrow suppression (anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia)
Tumour lysis syndrome (arrhythmias/renal failure)
Hair loss
Nausea/vomiting
Profound fatigue
Chemotherapy induced tissue damage: heart, lungs, brain, GI mucosa
Increased risk of secondary malignancy
Death

42
Q

What is tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Malignant cells will breakdown, sometimes in an uncontrolled way, spilling their contents into the blood = tumour lysis syndrome. The most problematic of those contents is uric acid, potassium and phosphate.
Can cause renal impairment and arrhythmias.

43
Q

Supportive treatments for leukaemia

A

Blood and platelet transfusions
Antibiotics and antifungals
Antiemetics
Nutrition
Psychological support

44
Q

What are some oral complications of leukaemia treatment?

A

Mucositis (grade 4 on WHO oral toxicity scale)
Opportunistic infections eg Candida, HSV, xerostomia (from radiotherapy), oral GvHD

45
Q

What is the WHO oral toxicity scale?

A

Grade 1 - soreness +/- erythema
Grade 2 - erythema, ulcers, patient can swallow solid food
Grade 3 - ulcers with extensive erythma; patient cannot swallow food
Grade 4 - mucositis to the extent that alimentation is not possible
(grade 3 and 4 are severe mucositis)

46
Q

What is prophylactic treatment for Candida?

A

Flucanozole

47
Q

What is prophylactic treatment for HSV?

A

Acyclovir

48
Q

What is GvHD?

A

Graft-versus-host disease: happens if you have the immune system of someone else who has been transplanted into yourself as a patient. Immune system is new and will recognise the patient as foreign where the graft attacks the host (opposite of organ rejection)

49
Q

What is GvHD mediated by?

A

T cells

50
Q

What does acute and chronic GvHD affect?

A

Acute - skin, liver, gut - more upper GI tract
Chronic - skin, mouth, eyes, gut, lungs, joints (any part of body almost)

51
Q

What is oral GvHD characterised by?

A

Lichenoid inflammation
Sclerosis
Salivary gland dysfunction
Predisposition to HSV and secondary oral cancers

52
Q

How should you as a dentist manage patient oral health during chemotherapy?

A

Conduct prior to chemotherapy, where practical
Avoid dental treatment whilst neutropenic or severely thrombocytopenic
Regular oral mouthwashes - chlorhexidine (corsodyl) or benzydamine (Difflam)
Soft dental brush
Prophylactic drugs - fluconazole and acyclovir
Regular inspection

53
Q

What is the lymphatic system?

A

Lymph nodes contain (adaptive) immune cells which proliferate and differentiate in response to immune challenges

54
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

A malignant proliferation of mature lymphocytes inside lymphoid tissue

55
Q

How do you classify lymphomas?

A

Hodgkin vs non-Hodgkin
Type of lymphocyte - B cell or T cell
Grade: high grade (fast growing, rapidly life-threatening, curable) or low grade (slow growing, usually incurable)

56
Q

What is the typical presentation of lymphoma?

A

Progressive swelling of lymph nodes - often painless, can be localised or generalised, common sites are cervical, axillae, groin, mediastinum
Extranodal involvement - bones, liver, lung…
Can be accompanied by ‘B symptoms’

57
Q

What are ‘B symptoms’ that present during lymphoma?

A

Unintentional weight loss of 10% over 6 months
Fevers greater than 38°
Night sweats (drenching)

58
Q

How can intra-oral lymphomas present?

A

Gum swelling
Dental abscesses
Osteonecrosis
Mucosal lesions

59
Q

How can lymphomas as other sites in the head/neck region present?

A

Cervical lymphadenopathy
Nasal obstruction (affecting nasopharynx)
Facial pain (if affecting nerves)
Conductive hearing loss
Visual problems
Cranial nerve palsies
CNS signs

60
Q

What are the commonest lymphomas of the head and neck region?

A

Affecting the tonsils, Nasopharynx, parotid and salivary glands

61
Q

How do you diagnose lymphoma?

A

Biopsies
Pathological work-up - other gene tests etc

62
Q

What biopsies are good for the diagnosis of lymphoma?

A

Excision lymph node biopsy = good standard
Core biopsies also useful
Cytology (fine needle aspirate) is poor

63
Q

How do you stage lymphoma? (PG600 DIAGRAM!)

A

Stage 1 - lymphoma localised to 1 nodal site
Stage 2 - more than 1 nodal site, on the same side
Stage 3 - diseases within nodal sites on both sides of the diaphragm
Stage 4 - involvement of lymphoma on both sides of the diaphragm, also involving non-nodal tissues eg the liver or the bones

64
Q

What imaging can be used in lymphoma?

A

CXR
CT
PET-CR

65
Q

Which areas will always show up in a PET-CT?

A

Brain, heart, kidneys, bladder

66
Q

What is treatment for lymphoma?

A

Observation if asymptomatic and low grade disease
Chemotherapy/immunotherapy
Radiotherapy - if disease is bulky or localised
Stem cell transplantation - might be autologous or allogeneic

67
Q

What is an autologous stem cell transplant?

A

Where own stem cells are given back to as a form of rescue from high dose chemotherapy

68
Q

Prognosis of Hodgkin vs non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma - good prognosis
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma - varies with subtype. Low grade is generally incurable but slow growing and treatment is only indicated if symptomatic. High grade often curable but can be rapidly life-threatening if not treated.

69
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

Malignancy of the plasma cells

70
Q

What are plasma cells?

A

Mature, terminally differentiated B lymphocytes that normally produce immunoglobulins. Plasma cells accumulate in the bone marrow and secrete clonal immunoglobulins into the plasma, resulting in a paraprotein or ‘M protein’.

71
Q

What are the clinical features of myeloma?

A

CRABI
C - hypercalcaemia
R - renal impairment
A - anaemia
B - bone pain and destruction
I - infection (even before treatment)

72
Q

What is the investigation for myeloma?

A

Full blood count and blood film
Renal function and calcium
Monoclonal protein
Bone marrow showing plasma cells
Imaging shows lytic lesions of bone

73
Q

What is the treatment for myeloma?

A

Chemotherapy
Autologous bone marrow transplant - given high dose chemotherapy followed by stem cell transplant
IV bisphosphonates for bone protection, eg zoledronic acid or Pamidronate

74
Q

What is MRONJ?

A

Medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw. Destructive process affecting jaw associated with antiresorptive therapy esp bisphosphonates, denosumab.
Can be triggered by dental work, more extensive dental procedures confer high risk. Can be spontaneous.

75
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for MRONJ?

A

Currently receiving, or has previously received, treatment with a relevant drug
Exposure, necrotic bone in the maxillofacial region persisting for more than 8 weeks
No evidence of cancer at the site
No history of radiation therapy to the jaws

76
Q

How do you prevent MRONJ?

A

Identify patients at risk
Completed all necessary dental work before starting treatment, or within window period of lower risk eg 6 months for zolendronic acid
Pause bisphophonates before and after dental work
Some bisphosphonates have a lower risk (oral is less than IV, Pamidronate less than zolendronic acid)
Antibiotic prophylaxis might have a role

77
Q

What is treatment for MRONJ?

A

Avoidance of any further or extensive surgery
If necessary, gentle debridement
Use of anti-microbial mouthwashes such as chlorhexidine
Antibiotic therapy when/where active infection is clinically evident