Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Oral Pathology D2 > Vsiculo-Bollous > Flashcards

Vsiculo-Bollous Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of PATHOPHYSIOLOGY

A

the physiology of abnormal states; specifically : the functional changes that accompany a particular syndrome or disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Definition of ETIOLOGY

plural etiologies

A

1: CAUSE, ORIGIN; specifically : the cause of a disease or abnormal condition
2: a branch of knowledge concerned with causes; specifically : a branch of medical science concerned with the causes and origins of diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Definition of PATHOGENESIS

A

the origination and development of a disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

1) Vesicle
2) Bulla
3) Erosion
4) Ulcer

A

1) Vesicle - fluid, <0.5
2) Bulla -fluid, >0.5
3) Erosion - no size, many colors
4) Ulcer -all layers of epi gone with microscopic death of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ramsay hunt syndrome

A

caused by herpetic zoster

*sever unilateral facial palsey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

steroids indicated or not for zoster infections?

A

NOT indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Zoster vs Simplex

A

Zoster- unilateral, longer duration must treat acyclovir

Simplex- bilateral, shorter duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hand-foot-mouth virus?

A

piconavirus, part of Coxsackie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Herpangina virus?

A

Coxsackie type A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Measels

A

Paramyxovirus
KOpliks spots
RubeOla
Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells (macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

German Measels

A

Germans eat nutELLA (Rubella) while wearing TOGAS (virus) and kill (abort) babies
**NO Kopliks spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MMP

sexes? appearance? histo?

A

women more
bright red patches, short lived, rare bullae
Nikolsky’s sign
epithelial clefting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

pemphigus vs MMP you see what antibodies?

A

Pemphigus: IgG &C3

MMP: IgG, C3 AND IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tzank cells

A

large glassy nucleus’s

Herpes, Varicella Zoster, PV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells

A

multinucleated giant cells in lymph tissue from measels (rubeola)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

1) Pemphigus hyper?
2) pemphigoid?
3) TB
4) EM
5) drugs
6) angio edema
7) stomatitis Venenata

A

1) Pemphigus hyper? type 2
2) pemphigoid? type 2
3) TB type 4
4) EM type 2 or 3
5) drugs = IgE type 1
6) angio edema type 1
7) stomatitis Venenata type 3 or 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

1) pemphigus targets?
2) pemphegoid?
3) epidermolysis bullosa? herditary
4) MMP

A

1) desmoglein 3
2) BMZ and hemodesmosomes
3) collagen of anchoring fibrils
4) laminin 5 (epiligrin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

symblepharon

A

Scar at the canthus from MMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

entropion

A

inversion of the Eyelashes from MMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

trichiasis

A

Trauma to cornea from MMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

PV age? phenotypes? sexes? severe form?

A 
40-50 years
equal between sexes
HLA phenotypes
nikoskys sign
paraneoplastic pemphigus is sever form/malignant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

nikolsky’s sign?

A

PV and MMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

BP (bullous pemphihoid)

related to? differs how?

A

related to MMP

deffers bc detachment antigens are laminin, BP230and BP180
*old poeple 70-80, skin and oral

24
Q

EB (epidermolysis Bullosa)

forms? nails?

A

aquired form and genetic (can only do direct if genetic)
dystophic nails
heals with scars

25
Q

red mouth

A 
PV
EB
erythema multiform
steven johnsons
EM
26
Q

factitial

A

self induced traumatic ulcer

27
Q

riga-fede disease

A

mechanical traumatic ulcer due to baby being born with teeth and biting

28
Q

necrotizing sialometaplasia

A

ONLY in palate - death of salivary gland

29
Q

syphillus caused by

A

treponema pallidum

30
Q

primary, secondary and tertiary syphillus

A

primary- chancre

secondary- condyloma latum, oral mucous pathces, maculopapular rash

tertiary- gumma, mucosal atrophy, cardio and neuro

31
Q

congenital syphillus

A

saddle nose
saber shin
hutchinson’s triad (mulberry molars, scredriver incisors, 8th nearve deafness, keratitis)

32
Q

fellatio?

seen in?

A

oral stimulation of a man’s penis

*seen in gonorrhea caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae

33
Q

Langhans giant cells seen in? describe disease

A

TB

  • tongue and palate non-healing ulces
  • central caseous necrosis
34
Q

what has inuration?

A

TB
cancer
actinomycosis

35
Q

Actinomycosis

discharge? bacteria? histo?

A

discharge sulfer granules
gram + anaerobic
basophilic core with eosinophilic periphery

36
Q

histoplasmosis

A

deep fungal from bat and pigeon droppings

37
Q

coccidioidomycosis

A

deep fungal from desert soil

38
Q

blastomycosis

A

deep fungla from moist soil and mold

39
Q

cryptococcosis

A

deep fungal from avian poop (Cry of the Bird)

40
Q

minor aphthae vs major aphthae vs herpatiform

A

minor- 1-5 small, mobile, NO scar, symetric

major- mobile, YES scar, assymetric, larger

herpatiform- 10-100 small ulcers, anywhere, symetric

41
Q

debacterol

A

chemical cautery used for aphthous ulcers

42
Q

granulomas happen in?

A

chrons, TB, syphillis, histoplasmosis, all deep fungal

43
Q

Behcet’s syndrome?

A

more common in men

brother to aphthous ulcers, more serious
T-lymph infiltrate

44
Q

EM (erythema multiforme)

minor vs major? lesions?

A

type 3

  • minor- infections
  • major- drugs
  • bilateral recurrent bullseye lesions
  • short duration and acute
  • ANYWHERE but avoids gingiva
45
Q

angioedema

A

IgE type 1

  • heriditary= C1 esterase defeciency
  • induced= ACE inhibitor
46
Q

stomatitis Venenata

A

direct contact with allergin

47
Q

stevens johnson syndrome

A

mouth, eyes, skin, genitals

*sever form of EM

48
Q

lichenoid drug reactions

Ex? Histo?

A

non-specific

  • liquifaction of basal cells
  • perivascular
  • scattered eosinophils

Example is stomatitis venenata (direct contact and type 3)

49
Q

wegener’s granulomatosis

Classes? Characteristics?

A
  • strawberry ginigvitus to attached gingiva
  • antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies and multinucleated giant cells
  • palatal perferation
  • 3 classes: classic (renal), limited (resp). superficial
50
Q

candidal leukoplakia is premalignant why?

A

makes nitrosamines

51
Q

TNM for tumor staging means?

A 
T= tumor
N= node
M= metastasis
52
Q

low vs high grade SCC

A

low= well defferenciated

high= poor differenciation worse

53
Q

SCC stage prognosis

A 
1/2 = 76%
3= 41%
4= 9%
54
Q

3 parts to osteoradionecrosis?

*how to prevent?

A

1) hypoxia
2) hypovascular
3) hypocellar
* prevent with hyperbaric oxygen (more common in MAndible)

55
Q

Midline granuloma vs contact allergies

A

midline= Malignancy of t-lymphocytes

Contact allergies= t-cell mediated immune response

Oral Pathology D2 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions