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Air Force CDCs > Volume 4 > Flashcards

Volume 4 Flashcards

0
Q
  1. (601) Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?
A

c. Security.

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1
Q
  1. (601) Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?
A

b. Offensive.

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2
Q
  1. (602) What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?
A

d. Aggressive defense.

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3
Q
  1. (602) A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing
A

a. key terrains.

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4
Q
  1. (603) After the threat has been neutralized, which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations?
A

c. Recovery.

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5
Q
  1. (604) Which force is the Air Force enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?
A

b. Security forces.

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6
Q
  1. (605) Which agency will the base defense operations center up-channel COVERED WAGON reportable incidents through?
A

d. Installation command post.

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7
Q
  1. (605) The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons
A

a. accident.

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8
Q
  1. (606) Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?
A

d. 24.

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9
Q
  1. (606) What may be the most dangerous type of improvised explosive device?
A

c. Vehicle-borne.

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10
Q
  1. (607) Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as a part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?
A

c. President or Secretary of Defense.

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11
Q
  1. (608) Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens?
A

d. Noncombatant evacuation.

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12
Q
  1. (608) Which operation may be clandestine, covert, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?
A

d. Recovery.

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13
Q
  1. (609) Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information?
A

c. HUMINT.

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14
Q
  1. (609) Force protection measures will be planned according with
A

b. the risks to the force

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15
Q
  1. (610) Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?
A

b. Penetration attack.

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16
Q
  1. (611) Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
A

a. Department of State.

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17
Q
  1. (611) The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is
A

b. bombing.

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18
Q
  1. (612) Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as
A

c. 25–30.

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19
Q
  1. (612) Which individuals/groups promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired?
A

d. Crusaders.

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20
Q
  1. (613) What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?
A

c. High.

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21
Q
  1. (614) The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use
A

a. violence to achieve political goals.

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22
Q
  1. (614) COIN operations require leaders to exhibit
A

c. patience, persistence, and presence.

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23
Q
  1. (614) To avoid detection by the government, how will insurgents operate?
A

c. In small bands.

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24
Q
  1. (615) Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?
A

d. Intergovernmental organization.

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25
Q
  1. (615) Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization?
A

a. The United Nations.

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26
Q
  1. (616) Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key
A

c. sovereignty issues.

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27
Q
  1. (617) Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full-scale air base operation?
A

d. Forward operating base.

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28
Q
  1. (617) What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?
A

d. Flexibility.

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29
Q
  1. (618) During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?
A

d. Disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan.

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30
Q
  1. (618) An effective tool to control integrated defense operations is
A

a. charts and forms.

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31
Q
  1. (618) What should a flight sector sketch show?
A

b. Flight and squadron identification.

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32
Q
  1. (619) In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?
A

b. 1956.

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33
Q
  1. (620) Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?
A

c. The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive.

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34
Q
  1. (621) The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is
A

a. 20 meters.

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35
Q
  1. (621) To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS),
A

b. remove the positive lead first.

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36
Q
  1. (622) Which function provides transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annunciators?
A

c. Communications.

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37
Q
  1. (623) What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand-held display monitor?
A

b. TMS.

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38
Q
  1. (624) A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search lasts approximately
A

d. 30 seconds.

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39
Q
  1. (624) When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is
A

b. aiming point.

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40
Q
  1. (624) What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 meter method of range determination?
A

d. Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observer.

41
Q
  1. (625) How does the observer use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?
A

b. Look 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of it rather than directly at it.

42
Q
  1. (625) How does the observer use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility
A

b. Look 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of it rather than directly at it

43
Q
  1. (625) If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaptation within how many minutes after removing the goggles
A

d. 2

44
Q
  1. (626) When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head
A

a. 2 to 4 inches

45
Q
  1. (626) The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are
A

a. an emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

46
Q
  1. (627) The Eltec 864M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in
A

b. dense fog

47
Q
  1. (628) What is the WSTI used for
A

c. To assess the alarms of a sensor activation

48
Q
  1. (628) How many people are required to set up the wide-area surveillance thermal imager tripod
A

b. Two

49
Q
  1. (628) From where are do all operational command and controls performed from
A

c. JCU

50
Q
  1. (628) The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to
A

d. assess alarms annunciating from the TASS system

51
Q
  1. (629) Which major component on the AN/PVS–4 is adjusted for variations in the user’s eyesight
A

b. Eyepiece assembly

52
Q
  1. (630) What are the components of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle
A

a. Facemask and goggle

53
Q
  1. (630) What part of the AN/PVS 7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect
A

c. Glass lens

54
Q
  1. (631) The level of performance for the AN/PVS–14 depends upon the level of
A

c. light

55
Q
  1. (631) On the AN/PVS–14 night vision device what enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular
A

a. Compass

56
Q
  1. (631) On the AN/PVS–14 night vision device what adjusts the distance between your eye and the monocular
A

a. Eye relief adjustment

57
Q
  1. (632) The head held thermal imager powers on in what mode
A

c. Auto

58
Q
  1. (633) During offensive and defensive operations, what determines when you should change your camouflage
A

c. The weather and the type of material used

59
Q
  1. (633) Where is the best position for a defensive fighting position to avoid enemy detection
A

b. The side of a hill

60
Q
  1. (633) What are the three ways of concealing yourself from enemy detection
A

b. Hiding, blending and deceiving

61
Q
  1. (634) When camouflaging your skin around the eyes, nose, and chin, use
A

a. light paint colors

62
Q
  1. (635) Why does camouflage discipline become more important at night
A

a. Noises seem amplified and revealing at night

63
Q
  1. (635) One of the simplest ways to distort the outline of a weapon is
A

d. wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth

64
Q
  1. (636) What determines if you will build overhead cover up or down on a defensive firing position
A

d. The potential for enemy observation of position

65
Q
  1. (636) What is the proper method of firing from a window
A

b. Kneeling and far back from the window

66
Q
  1. (637) To ensure there is no binding between the trigger and trigger pivot when the trigger is cocked, place the trip wire at
A

c. right angles to the axis of the trigger

67
Q
  1. (637) When recovering the M49A1 trip flare, what is the first step using the pull pin method
A

a. Remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip

68
Q
  1. (638) What movement technique do you use when speed is required and you can’t use the rush technique
A

b. High crawl

69
Q
  1. (638) You use the rolling movement technique to
A

d. confuse your adversary

70
Q
  1. (638) The most common mistakes when moving past windows are exposing the head and
A

b. not being aware of basement windows

71
Q
  1. (638) Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner is called
A

c. flagging

72
Q
  1. (639) Selection of team movement techniques is based on
A

b. likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed

73
Q
  1. (640) Which movement technique do you use when speed is essential and enemy contact is not likely
A

a. Traveling

74
Q
  1. (640) In the traveling overwatch formation, the trailing fire team is located
A

c. 50 meters behind the lead fire team

75
Q
  1. (640) You use the bounding overwatch formation when
A

d. enemy contact is expected

76
Q
  1. (641) What are the two types of ambushes
A

d. Near and far

77
Q
  1. (642) The smallest unit to conduct an area ambush is
A

a. a squad

78
Q
  1. (643) When using the clock technique to defend against counterattacks, where does the squad leader position key weapons
A

b. Along likely avenues of approach

79
Q
  1. (644) What is an easily located and defendable location on a patrol’s route
A

d. Objective rally point

80
Q
  1. (644) Based on the terrain, vegetation and visibility, leaders establish en route rally points every 100 to
A

d. 400 meters

81
Q
  1. (645) What are the principles of NIDD
A

c. Notify, impede, disable, and destroy

82
Q
  1. (646) Where can you find the sheet name of a map
A

d. In the center of the top margin and on the lower left area margin

83
Q
  1. (647) What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land, usually formed by streams and rivers
A

c. Valley

84
Q
  1. (648) What do contour lines show you when you look at a map
A

a. Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map

85
Q
  1. (648) What are the three types of contour lines used on a topographic map
A

d. Index, intermediate, and supplementary

86
Q
  1. (648) What types of slope are evenly spaced, but close together
A

a. Steep

87
Q
  1. (649) When reading a topographical map to plot a grid coordinate, you read from
A

c. left to right; bottom to top

88
Q
  1. (650) What is the center of the protractor circle from which all directions are measured
A

d. Index mark

89
Q
  1. (651) The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line is to use
A

a. a ruler

90
Q
  1. (652) To ensure proper functioning of a compass, the safe separation distance from telephone wire is
A

a. 10 meters

91
Q
  1. (652) Which method is used almost exclusively for sighting and is the best technique for this purpose
A

d. Compass to cheek

92
Q
  1. (652) If you use the watch method to find directions on daylight savings time, the north-south line is between the hour hand and
A

c. 1300 hours

93
Q
  1. (653) Which method lets you locate a position using two well-defined locations pinpointed on a map
A

a. Resection

94
Q
  1. (654) Which field expedient method is more forgiving of mistakes and less time consuming
A

d. Navigating by terrain association

95
Q
  1. (655) What does the term METT-TC mean
A

d. Mission, enemy, terrain and weather, troops, and time available

96
Q
  1. (656) Why is navigating by terrain association preferred over dead reckoning
A

c. Errors in navigation are easily correctable

97
Q
  1. (657) The DAGR provides to the user position
A

c. velocity, time reporting, and navigation capabilities

98
Q
  1. (657) Which DAGR mode uses the most power and tracks satellites to produce a continuous PVT solution
A

Continuous

99
Q
  1. (658) What consists of a collection of position and movement data for a geographic location
A

d. Navigation and route planning

100
Q
  1. (659) How many way points can be entered and stored in the AN/PSN–11
A

c. 999

Air Force CDCs (4 decks)

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