Volume 3 Flashcards
0
Q
- (401) How many range cards are prepared for each position?
A
b. Two.
1
Q
- (401) Range cards are a record of
A
b. firing data.
2
Q
- (401) In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?
A
a. M240B, MK19 and .50 cal.
3
Q
- (401) What does the acronym FPL stand for?
A
a. Final protective line.
4
Q
- (401) Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire weapons but may also be used for indirect-fire weapons?
A
c. Target reference point (TRP
5
Q
- (402) Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
A
b. Marginal data area.
6
Q
- (402) What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
A
a. Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets.
7
Q
- (402) The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
A
c. Dead space.
8
Q
- (402) When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?
A
d. 100.
9
Q
- (402) The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is
A
a. observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon.
10
Q
- (403) What is the function of the forward assist?
A
b. Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure
11
Q
- (403) Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
A
a. a stoppage.
12
Q
- (403) The acronym SPORTS stands for
A
c. slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot.
13
Q
- (403) The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
A
d. clean and properly lubricated.
14
Q
- (404) How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine?
A
c. 10.
15
Q
- (404) What cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?
A
d. M856.
16
Q
- (405) What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
A
a. 50 meters.
17
Q
- (405) What the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
A
d. 1,800 meters.
18
Q
- (405) If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?
A
b. Adjusted aiming point method.
19
Q
- (405) On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor And
A
a. loaded chamber indicator.
20
Q
- (405) Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be
A
d. instinctive.
21
Q
- (405) Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?
A
d. Steel
22
Q
- (406) How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
A
a. 4.
23
Q
- (406) What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
A
c. M882.
24
Q
- (406) Which M9 ammunition round is only issued to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti- jacking) duties?
A
a. MK243 MOD 0.
25
Q
- (407) In meters, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
A
d. 150
26
Q
- (407) In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
A
c. 350
27
Q
- (407) What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?
A
d. 30.
28
Q
- (408) Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?
A
c. Ogive.
29
Q
- (408) What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
A
c. 20.
30
Q
- (408) Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing?
A
d. Buckshot
31
Q
- (408) Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
A
a. Under no circumstances.
32
Q
- (409) What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?
A
b. 600.
33
Q
- (409) Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
A
b. Receiver assembly.
34
Q
- (409) An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called?
A
a. a stoppage
35
Q
- (410) How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
A
d. 200
36
Q
- (410) What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?
A
a. M199 Dummy.
37
Q
- (411) How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
A
b. 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt.
38
Q
- (411) In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
A
d. 800.
39
Q
- (411) From what position is the M240B loaded?
A
b. Bolt CLOSED.
40
Q
- (411) Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?
A
d. Firing
41
Q
- (411) What are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B?
A
b. Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire.
42
Q
- (411) At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
A
a. 900 to 1,200 rounds.
43
Q
- (411) What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
A
d. M61.
44
Q
- (411) What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?
A
c. Blank firing adapter.
45
Q
- (412) Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
A
d. MK19
46
Q
- (412) What is the standard round for the MK19?
A
b. M430
47
Q
- (412) Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?
A
c. M3.
48
Q
- (412) Searching fire is most often used on
A
d. level or evenly sloping ground.
49
Q
- (413) What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?
A
a. 2,000 yards
50
Q
- (413) The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
A
b. 700.
51
Q
- (414) When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?
A
d. Distributed and effective.
52
Q
- (414) Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target
A
b. quickly and accurately.
53
Q
- (414) Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?
A
d. Final protective fire.
54
Q
- (414) Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?
A
b. Final protective line.
55
Q
- (414) Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and
A
b. hold the enemy position.
56
Q
- (414) Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?
A
A. Final protective line (FPL)
57
Q
- (415) In meters, what it the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using “00” buckshot round?
A
d. 640.
58
Q
- (415) The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?
A
b. The close-quarters battle role.
59
Q
- (416) Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?
A
c. Terrain.
60
Q
- (416) Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include
A
d. response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance.
61
Q
- (416) Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior
A
b. accuracy.
62
Q
- (417) The M107 sniper rifle operates by means of
A
a. short recoil principle.
63
Q
- (417) The sniper’s primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from
A
d. concealed positions.
64
Q
- (418) What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?
A
c. Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.
65
Q
- (418) How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
A
a. 5.
66
Q
- (418) How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training environment?
A
b. Overhand
67
Q
- (419) The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an
A
b. defensive weapon.
68
Q
- (419) When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considered a
A
d. mine or booby trap.
69
Q
- (419) In what year was the M18A, claymore mine standardized?
A
b. 1960.
70
Q
- (419) When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a
A
a. one-shot weapon.
71
Q
- (419) The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for
A
c. single or dual priming
72
Q
- (420) Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?
A
d. Backblast area.
73
Q
- (420) A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?
A
a. Field handling trainer.
74
Q
- (420) The M136 AT4’s warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal
A
a. after-armor effects.
