Volume 3 Flashcards
0
Q
- (401) How many range cards are prepared for each position?
A
b. Two.
1
Q
- (401) Range cards are a record of
A
b. firing data.
2
Q
- (401) In addition to preparing a range card for the M4, what other fixed weapons require a range card?
A
a. M240B, MK19 and .50 cal.
3
Q
- (401) What does the acronym FPL stand for?
A
a. Final protective line.
4
Q
- (401) Which of the following is used primarily to control direct-fire weapons but may also be used for indirect-fire weapons?
A
c. Target reference point (TRP
5
Q
- (402) Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
A
b. Marginal data area.
6
Q
- (402) What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
A
a. Prominent natural and man-made features that could be likely targets.
7
Q
- (402) The space that cannot be engaged with grazing fire is called?
A
c. Dead space.
8
Q
- (402) When clearing fields of fire, at least how many meters would you start at your position and work forward?
A
d. 100.
9
Q
- (402) The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is
A
a. observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon.
10
Q
- (403) What is the function of the forward assist?
A
b. Lock the bolt forward during immediate action procedure
11
Q
- (403) Any interruption in the cycle of operations is the definition of
A
a. a stoppage.
12
Q
- (403) The acronym SPORTS stands for
A
c. slap, pull, observe, release, tap, and shoot.
13
Q
- (403) The primary purpose of preventive maintenance is to keep weapons
A
d. clean and properly lubricated.
14
Q
- (404) How many different types of ammunition are there for the M4 carbine?
A
c. 10.
15
Q
- (404) What cartridge, used in the M4 carbine, is similar to the M196 except it has a longer tracer burnout distance?
A
d. M856.
16
Q
- (405) What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?
A
a. 50 meters.
17
Q
- (405) What the maximum range for the M9 pistol?
A
d. 1,800 meters.
18
Q
- (405) If necessary, shooters are required to use what method when firing the M9 in order to engage targets?
A
b. Adjusted aiming point method.
19
Q
- (405) On the M9 pistol, the dual purpose of the extractor/loaded chamber indicator is case extractor And
A
a. loaded chamber indicator.
20
Q
- (405) Applying immediate actions to remedy an M9 malfunction or stoppage should be
A
d. instinctive.
21
Q
- (405) Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on what part of the M9 to prevent rusting?
A
d. Steel
22
Q
- (406) How many types of 9 mm ammunition are used with the M9 pistol?
A
a. 4.
23
Q
- (406) What is the standard cartridge used with the M9?
A
c. M882.
24
25. (406) Which M9 ammunition round is only issued to security forces, Office of Special Investigations (OSI) detachments, and USAF personnel assigned to air operations security (anti- jacking) duties?
a. MK243 MOD 0.
25
26. (407) In meters, what is the maximum range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
d. 150
26
27. (407) In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging fire-team-sized area targets?
c. 350
27
28. (407) What is the waiting period (in seconds) from the time of the failure before opening the barrel assembly to unload the M203?
d. 30.
28
29. (408) Which part of the M713/M715 and M716 ground marker (smoke) rounds indicate the color of the smoke produced?
c. Ogive.
29
30. (408) What is the number of meters for the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
c. 20.
30
31. (408) Which M203 round is most effective in thick vegetation areas or for room clearing?
d. Buckshot
31
32. (408) Under what circumstances would you use MK19 ammunition in the M203?
a. Under no circumstances.
32
33. (409) What is the M249 maximum effective range (in meters) for a point target using a bipod?
b. 600.
33
34. (409) Which assembly on the M249 is the support for all major components?
b. Receiver assembly.
34
35. (409) An interruption in the cycle of operations caused by faulty action of the weapon or faulty ammunition is called?
a. a stoppage
35
36. (410) How many rounds does an M249 bandoleer contain?
d. 200
36
37. (410) What type of M249 ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?
a. M199 Dummy.
37
38. (411) How is ammunition fed into the M240B?
b. 100 round bandoleer, split-link belt.
38
39. (411) In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
d. 800.
39
40. (411) From what position is the M240B loaded?
b. Bolt CLOSED.
40
41. (411) Which action in the cycle of operations for the M240B is initiated by squeezing the trigger?
d. Firing
41
42. (411) What are the two most common malfunctions for the M240B?
b. Sluggish operation and uncontrolled fire.
42
43. (411) At a minimum, you clean the M240B after firing a basic load of
a. 900 to 1,200 rounds.
43
44. (411) What type of ammunition is used to engage lightly-armored targets?
d. M61.
44
45. (411) What does the acronym blank firing adapter (BFA) stand for?
c. Blank firing adapter.
45
46. (412) Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
d. MK19
46
47. (412) What is the standard round for the MK19?
b. M430
47
48. (412) Which of the following tripods is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?
c. M3.
48
49. (412) Searching fire is most often used on
d. level or evenly sloping ground.
49
50. (413) What is the maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?
a. 2,000 yards
50
51. (413) The maximum extent of grazing fire is obtainable to how many meters?
b. 700.
51
52. (414) When selecting crew-served weapons position, which type of fire organizes the battlefield for the gunners?
d. Distributed and effective.
52
53. (414) Abbreviated fire commands and previously recorded data enable the gunner to aim or adjust fire on the target
b. quickly and accurately.
53
54. (414) Which of the following is an immediately available, prearranged barrier of fire to stop enemy movement across defensive lines or areas?
d. Final protective fire.
54
56. (414) Which of the following is assigned to the gun team to cover the most likely avenue of enemy approach from all types of defensive positions?
b. Final protective line.
55
57. (414) Concerning machine guns in the offense, the primary objective of the offense is to advance, occupy, and
b. hold the enemy position.
56
55. (414) Which of the following is fixed in direction and elevation?
A. Final protective line (FPL)
57
58. (415) In meters, what it the maximum range of the M870 shotgun using “00” buckshot round?
d. 640.
58
59. (415) The shotgun is an effective weapon when used in what type of role?
b. The close-quarters battle role.
59
60. (416) Sharpshooters will be well trained in tactical use of which of the following?
c. Terrain.
60
61. (416) Optimal employment capabilities of close precision engagement (CPE) marksmen and sharpshooter teams should include
d. response, overwatch, screening, and reconnaissance.
61
62. (416) Sniper ammunition is produced to stringent tolerances to ensure superior
b. accuracy.
62
63. (417) The M107 sniper rifle operates by means of
a. short recoil principle.
63
64. (417) The sniper’s primary mission is to support combat operations by delivering precise rifle fire from
d. concealed positions.
64
65. (418) What are three common characteristics hand grenades share?
c. Short employment range, small casualty radius, and delay element permits safe throwing.
65
66. (418) How many meters is the kill radius for hand grenades?
a. 5.
66
67. (418) How must live fragmentation grenades be thrown in the training environment?
b. Overhand
67
68. (419) The claymore mine is used primarily as a/an
b. defensive weapon.
68
69. (419) When the claymore is employed in an uncontrolled role, it is considered a
d. mine or booby trap.
69
70. (419) In what year was the M18A, claymore mine standardized?
b. 1960.
70
71. (419) When employed in a controlled role, the claymore is treated as a
a. one-shot weapon.
71
72. (419) The two detonator wells located on the top of the claymore allow for
c. single or dual priming
72
73. (420) Before firing the light antiarmor weapon (LAW), what should you check?
d. Backblast area.
73
74. (420) A black and yellow band on the M136 AT4 launcher indicates what type of launcher?
a. Field handling trainer.
74
75. (420) The M136 AT4’s warhead has excellent penetration ability and lethal
a. after-armor effects.
