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Air Force CDCs > Volume 1 > Flashcards

Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Color is used in the Use of Force Model (UFM) to

A

enhance our role and understanding of the model

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2
Q

You attempted to convince a solicitor in the base housing area to leave, which met with verbal and physical resistance. The solicitor lunges forward and violently attempts to take your weapon shouting, “I’ll kill you.” What subject action level in the Use of Force Model (UFM) is used?

A

Assaultive (serious bodily harm/death)

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3
Q

What are the mechanical, physical or mental resources you have to promote or gain compliance called

A

Tools

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4
Q

In this situation you are not authorized to use deadly force

A

keep someone from breaking into a house

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5
Q

You should respond to an actual incident where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M−4 rifle at “port arms,” a round in the chamber, safety selector on…

A

“SAFE,” and the finger not in the trigger guard

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6
Q

You should respond to an actual incident with your M9 pistol where you can reasonably expect to encounter an armed adversary with your M9 in its holster, with the flap open
a. sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated backward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked, and finger in the trigger guard….

A

sentry lock disengaged and hood rotated forward, shooting hand on the pistol grip, hammer not cocked, and finger not in the trigger guard.

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7
Q
  1. (204) What is the first command given to the driver and occupants when conducting a vehicle challenge?
A

a. Place their hands on the headliner of the interior roof and leave them there until told to do otherwise.

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8
Q
  1. (205) You prevent a suspect from stepping through the handcuffs by
A

d. looping the cuffs through the belt below the small of the back.

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9
Q
  1. (206) For quickness, when conducting a search of an individual it should be
A

d. systematic and thorough.

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10
Q
  1. (206) What type of search is best suited for high-risk situations or multiple apprehensions?
A

b. Prone

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11
Q
  1. (207) In which portion of the Use of Force Model phase can you expect to use Physical Apprehension and Restraint Techniques (PART)?
A

b. resistant (active)

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12
Q
  1. (207) To use the chest grab technique when being pushed/grabbed, you must quickly “trap” the suspect’s hand by grabbing the suspect’s arm
A

a. below the elbow, your palms down, thumbs down, and trapping the suspect’s hand on your chest.

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13
Q
  1. (207) The second step in overcoming a rear grab hold is to immediately make a fist, flex your arms
A

c. out slightly, crouch down, and look at the suspect’s feet.

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14
Q
  1. (208) What are the two most important factors to remember when approaching a suspect to make an apprehension?
A

b. Your position and your attitude.

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15
Q
  1. (208) Where should the assisting Security Forces member stand to help from a position of advantage?
A

a. To one side.

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16
Q
  1. (208) What must you evaluate before apprehending a suspect?
A

b. Attitude and physical condition of suspect.

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17
Q
  1. (209) What is the first thing you would do to apply the IKKYO grip properly?
A

c. Grab the back of the suspect’s right hand with your hand palm down (or the suspects left with your left).

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18
Q
  1. (209) To prevent injury when applying the IKKYO takedown, keep the suspect’s
A

D. arm parallel to the ground

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19
Q
  1. (210) The expandable baton is a unique tool for law enforcement because it provides an
A

c. emotional and physical deterrent to aggression.

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20
Q
  1. (210) During which portion of the Use of Force Model (UFM) can you expect to use the baton?
A

c. Assaultive (bodily harm).

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21
Q
  1. (210) The three principle target areas, for using the baton on a suspect, are arms,
A

b. Knees and legs

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22
Q
  1. (210) What type of weapon is the baton primarily used as?
A

c. impact

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23
Q
  1. (211) Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) pepper spray is a pressurized hand-held weapon that is considered
A

b. non-leathal

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24
Q
  1. (212) What portion, of the Use of Force Model (UFM) that a subject’s actions are located within, can you expect to use approved electronic control devices?
A

a. Resistant (active).

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25
Q
  1. (213) Grid coordinates are identified by the grid squares. To get a refined grid coordinate, divide the grid square into
A

b. tenths

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26
Q
  1. (214) After a nuclear accident, which organization has the initial response base responsibility?
A

a. Nearest military installation.

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27
Q
  1. (214) Who is responsible for assuming overall command and control at a nuclear weapon accident?
A

c. Disaster control group.

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28
Q
  1. (215) What is the cordon size of an accident involving biological agents?
A

b. 2000 feet upwind and crosswind.

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29
Q
  1. (216) What should you do if someone from the news media asks you questions about an aircraft accident?
A

b. Do not answer and then refer them to public affairs personnel.

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30
Q
  1. (216) What should you do if someone takes photographs of classified material at an off-base accident site after you tell them not to take photographs?
A

a. Contact a civilian law enforcement officer to retrieve the film.

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31
Q
  1. (217) One of the primary Air Force goals in dealing with high-risk situations is to
A

b. prevent or minimize loss of life and property.

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32
Q
  1. (217) What is used as the principle method to peacefully resolve high-risk situations
A

a. Trained negotiators.

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33
Q
  1. (218) Who is responsible for providing the initial response to incidents?
A

b. Security forces personnel.

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34
Q
  1. (218) Who is allowed inside the inner perimeter you established at a high-risk scene?
A

c. Negotiation teams.

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35
Q
  1. (219) A base entry point check is
A

a. an examination

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36
Q
  1. (219) At least how many security forces members should be present when conducting entry point checks?
A

b. two

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37
Q
  1. (219) What must you do if illegal contraband is discovered while conducting an entry point check?
A

a. Stop the check immediately and apprehend/detain individual.

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38
Q
  1. (219) What determines the manner in which you search a vehicle during an entry point check?
A

c. Object size.

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39
Q
  1. (219) How should you conduct a simple search of a vehicle?
A

d. Thoroughly and systematically.

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40
Q
  1. (220) Which search method is normally used for large outdoor areas?
A

c. Zone or sector.

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41
Q
  1. (221) While on patrol you hear cries for help from a building. What action can you take?
A

a. Enter to prevent injury or damage

42
Q
  1. (222) When you arrive at a crime scene, your objective is to
A

d. keep the scene in its original state.

43
Q
  1. (222) When should you begin taking crime scene notes?
A

c. You have completed collecting all evidence.

44
Q
  1. (222) What should you do if you move evidence prematurely from its original position when securing the scene?
A

d. Record its original position in your notes.

45
Q
  1. (222) What is a basic rule if you photograph crime scenes when audio-visual personnel are not available?
A

c. Photograph all evidence before anything is moved or touched.

46
Q
  1. (223) What type evidence indirectly involves a person in an offense?
A

d. Circumstantial

47
Q
  1. (223) What document establishes the rules of evidence?
A

a. Manual for Courts Martial (MCM).

48
Q
  1. (223) What federal law requires you to save all field notes, rough drafts and statements?
A

d. Jencks Act.

49
Q
  1. (224) An item of evidence is considered fragile if
A

d. conditions exist that could destroy the evidential value.

50
Q
  1. (225) How is abuse defined as it relates to family violence?
A

d. Physical injury or emotional disturbance.

51
Q
  1. (225) Which type of child abuse is the most difficult to identify?
A

a. Emotional maltreatment.

52
Q
  1. (226) Between how many seconds, before knocking, should you stop and listen at the door of a domestic violence situation before knocking?
A

c. 15 to 20.

53
Q
  1. (226) What is the first action you take in a domestic violence situation if no one answers the door after you knock and it appears quiet?
A

a. Contact Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) to verify the address.

54
Q
  1. (227) Who must be notified of incidents of child or spouse abuse?
A

c. Family advocacy officer.

55
Q
  1. (228) You responded to a dispute and determined it was verbal because
A

a. a physical assault has not occurred.

56
Q
  1. (229) Integrated defense (ID) forces vary depending on the theater and may include all of the following except
A

d. friendly forces.

57
Q
  1. (230) Capabilities-based integrated defense is a fundamental battle competency for all
A

d. Airmen.

58
Q
  1. (231) Which system affords the highest level of protection for nuclear weapons?
A

b. Protection level.

59
Q
  1. (231) Which is an example of a weapons systems protection level 1 (PL1) resource?
A

b. Command, control, communications, and computers (C4) systems of active nuclear missions.

60
Q
  1. (232) What is the function of the nuclear weapon augmentation force if a weapon has been taken?
A

d. To assist in recapture and recovery operations.

61
Q
  1. (233) You will apply specific security principles to a close-in security area that contains
A

a. nuclear weapons.

62
Q
  1. (234) What type of demarcation do fences serve when they are used to secure area boundaries?
A

a. Legal and physical.

63
Q
  1. (234) How close to firm ground must the fence fabric extend in a restricted area?
A

c. Two inches.

64
Q
  1. (234) What type effect does restricted area lighting have in deterring intruders?
A

a. Psychological.

65
Q
  1. (234) Which type of lighting is a low illuminating light used in nuclear restricted areas?
A

d. Very near infrared.

66
Q
  1. (234) How many feet apart would you display restricted area signs along restricted area boundaries?
A

d. 100.

67
Q
  1. (235) In the stages of alarm protection, motion detection is also called
A

a. volumetric or space.

68
Q
  1. (235) Which detection stage of alarm protection provides response forces with the least amount of warning?
A

c. Point

69
Q
  1. (236) What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood?
A

d. Greater community voice in setting police priorities.

70
Q
  1. (236) The success of any community policing program depends on
A

b. the extent to which the program meets the community’s needs.

71
Q
  1. (237) What purpose does physical protection surveys in preventing crime?
A

a. Determine which program meets the community’s needs.

72
Q
  1. (238) What is the main purpose of traffic enforcement?
A

a. Enforce the traffic code.

73
Q
  1. (238) During a traffic stop, how far from the violator’s vehicle do you position your vehicle?
A

a. 10 to 12 feet to the rear and three feet to the left.

74
Q
  1. (239) How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident?
A

d. To protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard.

75
Q
  1. (240) When directing traffic on a one-way street, it is best for you to stand
A

d. in the center of the intersection.

76
Q
  1. (240) Verbal commands are seldom used when directing traffic for all of the following reasons
    except
A

a. motorists will start shouting back.

77
Q
  1. (241) Terminate a walk and turn field sobriety test when a suspect
A

b. steps off the line three or more times.

78
Q
  1. (241) What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the one-leg stand field sobriety test to indicate a blood alcohol content (BAC) of at least .08?
A

a. Two.

79
Q
  1. (241) You may administer a horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) field sobriety test on a suspect. HGN is when your eyes
A

c. involuntarily jerk

80
Q
  1. (241) What is the minimum number of clues a suspect must exhibit on the horizontal-gaze nystagmus (HGN) field sobriety test to indicate a blood alcohol content (BAC) of at least .08?
A

b. Four.

81
Q
  1. (242) It is important that you receive official certification of your qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible
A

c. in a civilian and military court.

82
Q
  1. (243) Results of chemical testing for alcohol or drug content are only valid if it is administered
A

d. by qualified personnel.

83
Q
  1. (244) What is your first step when writing a report once the incident is over?
A

a. Gather the facts

84
Q
  1. (245) Which sentence is an example of using active voice in a report?
A

a. Sgt Smith struck Amn Jones.

85
Q
  1. (246) What rule applies, in the Summary Reporting System, under number of premises entered, if several dwelling units under a single manager are burglarized and the manager reports it to police?
A

b. Hotel.

86
Q
  1. (246) Which of the following is not an allowable type of apprehension/detention code on the AF Form 3545, Incident Report?
A

d. Detained

87
Q
  1. (246) One use of the narrative page of AF Form 3545, Incident Report, is designed for
A

d. continuing any section of the form.

88
Q
  1. (247) If you use the question and answer technique with a suspect on the AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complaint, have
A

a. a witness to the statement initial all questions and answers.

89
Q
  1. (248) The chain-of-custody for an item of evidence on the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is initiated by the
A

c. property custodian.

90
Q
  1. (249) How many calendar days is a completed AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log maintained?
A

c. 90.

91
Q
  1. (250) DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who
A

d. commits a moving or nonmoving traffic offense.

92
Q
  1. (251) Who can authorize a search of people and property for evidence of a crime?
A

a. Commander having control over the area or person or property to be searched.

93
Q
  1. (252) What must you do if during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search?
A

c. Keep searching because the suspect signed the AF Form 1364, Consent to Search and Seizure.

94
Q
  1. (253) Which section of the DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, do you annotate the behind the wheel screening?
A

b. Section II, Initial Contact.

95
Q
  1. (253) Where would you annotate, on DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, the results of a suspect’s blood alcohol chemical test?
A

c. Section III, Standard Field Sobriety Testing.

96
Q
  1. (254) How many copies of the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Inmate or Detained Person, should you prepare and where are the copies kept?
A

b. Two; the case file and the person receiving custody.

97
Q
  1. (255) What happens to the original copy of AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, once you have completed it?
A

d. Given to the individual.

98
Q
  1. (256) Who is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice?
A

c. Chief, Security Forces (CSF).

99
Q
  1. (257) Who is responsible to ensure personnel are SFMIS trained?
A

b. Chief, Security Forces.

100
Q
  1. (257) In addition to analyzing law enforcement statistics, the Security Forces Management Information System (SFMIS) also analyzes threat
A

a. fusion.

Air Force CDCs (4 decks)

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