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cv-22 > Volume 2a > Flashcards

Volume 2a Flashcards

1
Q

How are engine nacelles on the CV–22 Osprey positioned so it can be controlled as a
conventional fixed wing aircraft?

A

Horizontally

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2
Q

The component that can be rotated 90° to facilitate towing, parking, and jacking in a reduced
space environment is the

A

turret mounted wing.

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3
Q

What role system kit provides a means for rapidly inserting personnel into areas in which the
aircraft is unable to land?

A

FAST ROPE

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4
Q

The three fuselage interface/splice areas within the four structural systems are the

A

forward-to-mid fuselage; mid-to-aft fuselage, and aft fuselage-to-empennage

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5
Q

The E3s that the exterior access panels are designed to protect the aircraft from are

A

EMI, HPMR, NEMP

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6
Q

How many pounds per square foot is the cabin floor limit load?

A

300

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7
Q

How many independent troop seat release mechanisms are in the cabin compartment?

A

3

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8
Q

The graphite/epoxy composite component that acts to minimize the airflow disturbances
created by the rotor blades while in AIRPLANE MODE is the

A

vortex control device

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9
Q

Which assembly is used for daily maintenance to provide access to the hydraulic ground
support pan assembly and allow for the attachment of hydraulic ports for maintenance purposes?

A

Hydraulic ground service door

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10
Q

Which mount assembly provides a means for attaching the nacelle structure to the proprotor
gearboxes, transmission adapters, and conversion spindles?

A

Nacelle

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11
Q

The mode of operation that a solenoid operated lock pin engages the main cabin door aft
latch to prevent opening the door when there is no WOW and the nacelle angle is less than 45° is

A

SAFETY INTERLOCK

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12
Q

In the ramp fold down position, wheeled cargo cannot exceed a maximum weight of

A

5,000 pounds or 300 pounds per square foot.

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13
Q

The pilot and copilot seats adjust in 11 steps through a range of

A

five inches vertically and three inches longitudinally

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14
Q

Which assemby prevents recoil of the seat due to the elastic energy released at the
conclusion of a crash-induced seat stroke?

A

Anti-rebound.

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15
Q

What configuration has the proprotor blades folded toward the fuselage; the nacelles rotated
to the horizontal position; and the wing rotated 90° (left nacelle over the nose of the aircraft and
right nacelle over the empennage)?

A

FULL STOW

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16
Q

What configuration has the proprotor blades fully extended; the nacelles rotated to the
vertical position; and the wing rotated perpendicular to the fuselage?

A

flight ready

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17
Q

Which digit of the four-digit numbering system that identifies access panels and doors on
the Osprey provides a more detailed location of the panel/door within the zone?

A

Third

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18
Q

What component acts to hold the lower cabin door in place to prevent rotor wash from
throwing the door back into the closed position against the aircraft?

A

Down lock.

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19
Q

While both cabin doors have normal opening/closing mechanisms, what is the only door
that is given emergency opening provisions?

A

Upper

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20
Q

Emergency egress for the pilots is facilitated by the cockpit side windows, which are
configured with explosive escape separators. These explosive escape separators are also known as

A

fast burn

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21
Q

To avoid partially blocking the associated escape hatch after the escape hatch is separated
from the aircraft using the external initiator, what handle must be actuated manually to release the
associated troop seats?

A

Seat release

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22
Q

The primary composite material used on the Osprey is

A

GR/EP

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23
Q

During normal operation, the radiation hazard area of the operating multifunction radar for
personnel is

A

100 feet forward and +/–60 degrees of the nose of the aircraft

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24
Q

In the HELICOPTER MODE, the variable arc (in feet), and height (in feet) of the
proprotors above the ground or deck is

A

16 to 20 (variable arc), 20 to 22 (height).

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25
Q

With the aircraft in a hover at 10 feet above the ground or deck, the exhaust temperature at
about five feet above the deck can exceed how many degrees Fahrenheit above ambient
temperature?

A

100

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26
Q

Once the nose gear down-lock safety pin is activated by a pop-out handle on the right side
of the aircraft nose, what prevents inadvertent reset of the handle?

A

A removable down-lockpin with “remove before flight” flag

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27
Q

The equipment that is strictly prohibited from use for purging oxygen systems is

A

aircraft nitrogen servicing trailers.

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28
Q

If the aircraft is fully fueled and the entire left nacelle is removed, the wing rotation
condition that will cause a right tipover condition is from 0 to

A

20 degrees

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29
Q

What is the maximum total weight limit, in pounds, that may be on the empennage at any
one time?

A

1,200.

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30
Q

What term that is associated with inspections refers to a definite amount, operation, or
limitation that has been established and is contained in applicable directives?

A

Specified

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31
Q

What type of phase inspection will be performed at 630 aircraft hours?

A

C

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32
Q

What is the maximum amount of time that a phase inspection may be performed early or
extended to meet mission requirements?

A

10 percent (21 hours).

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33
Q

What type of inspection employs a logical walk-around sequence to ensure coverage of the
lower and upper aircraft surfaces and the cockpit?

A

Preflight

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34
Q

What type of inspection is to be accomplished upon the accrual of a specified number of
flying hours, equipment hours of operation, a lapse of calendar time, or after occurrence of a
specified or unusual condition?

A

Special

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35
Q

What does it mean when units of equipment are replaced upon accrual of a specified
number of flying hours, equipment hours of operation, a lapse of calendar time, or units of any
other specific measurement base?

A

Removal of the item and installation of a serviceable item in its place

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36
Q

The automated history system that will be used in place of AFTO Form 95 to document
significant historical events on aircraft, engines, aerospace ground equipment (AGE), and
armament equipment is the

A

maintenance information system

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37
Q

All aircraft fuel servicing/defueling operations will be performed in accordance with local
activities supplemental instructions and

A

NAVAIR 00–80T–109

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38
Q

What component controls and monitors ground fuel system servicing?

A

GRDP

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39
Q

During normal operations, the maximum fuel cell fill rate in gallons per minute when using
the GRAVITY FILL mode is

A

100

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40
Q

Except for the refuel close connection point, what method of refueling is similar to aerial
refueling?

A

Hover in-flight.

41
Q

The GRDP provides for all ground refuel and defuel modes, a basic display of fuel system
status, and

A

total fuel quantity, indications of low oil levels, and basic display of fuel system failures

42
Q

What mode of operation does the GRDP operates in?

A

ON

43
Q

What MLG component provides damping and shock absorbing of forces created during
landing or ground maneuvering, static load distribution, and dynamic load distribution?

A

Shock strut.

44
Q

What backup safety mechanism is manually installed to prevent accidental landing gear
retraction and to facilitate post-flight servicing and maintenance for the internal drag strut
actuator locks?

A

Ground lockpin

45
Q

What system on the NLG provides the means to raise the nose of the aircraft during ground
maintenance and towing of the aircraft?

A

Hike

46
Q

What does it mean if the NLG proximity switches determine the target is far?

A

NLG is on the ground

47
Q

What powers the landing gear and extend/retract tricycle configuration?

A

Hydraulic system 3.

48
Q

About how much pressure in psi is the emergency extension system pneumatic reservoir
charged, when the temperature is 70°F?

A

2800

49
Q

Without hydraulic power applied to the steering unit, the nose gear can swivel how many
degrees?

A

360

50
Q

What components convert the mechanical inputs to electrical signals and provide nose
wheel steering movement information to the FCCs?

A

CCPT

51
Q

If the landing gear has not been extended, the landing gear control lever handle flashes
whenever the aircraft is below

A

200 feet AGL in altitude and less than 60 knots forward airspeed.

52
Q

What prevents wheel brake assembly rotation?

A

Torque lug bushing.

53
Q

What parking brake component applies hydraulic pressure separately to the MLG left and
right wheels and brakes and retains hydraulic pressure for parking brake engagement?

A

Transfer module

54
Q

What type of maintenance pump provides hydraulic pressure to recharge the back-up brake
accumulator and provide pressure to operate the cargo ramp system?

A

Electric motor driven hydraulic

55
Q

Operation of the wheel and brake system in POWERED mode, hydraulic system 3 supplies
how much pressure in psi to the pressure reducer?

A

5000

56
Q

What independent hydraulic system(s) provide hydraulic power to the Osprey?

A

Hydraulic system 1, 2, and 3.

57
Q

Hydraulic actuator control to induce roll is provided by the

A

Flapperons

58
Q

During ground operations, what facilitates fluid transfer between hydraulic system 3 and
hydraulic systems 1 and 2?

A

Fluid compensation valves

59
Q

What hydraulic component stores fluid displaced by actuated components and filters supply
and return fluid?

A

Flight control module

60
Q 
What component is incorporated into the flight control module to maintain 5000 psi of
pressure during system startup and shutdown to prevent pump cavitation?
A

Accumulator

61
Q

What valve assembly, in the hydraulic flight control module, that has a flat-face poppet
microseal design, is jam free high, and prevents system pressure back flow into the hydraulic
pump pressure line?

A

High flow check valve.

62
Q 
What flight control module component is used to shuttle the additional hydraulic fluid
gained by hydraulic system 1 during APU clutch and ground check out operations back into
hydraulic system 3?
A

Fluid compensation valve

63
Q

What flight control module component regulates hydraulic fluid temperature by providing a
maximum pressure-to-return leak path flow of up to 2 gpm, when fluid temperature is below 40
degrees Fahrenheit, to rapidly heat up the hydraulic system fluid and maximize hydraulic system
operation?

A

Thermal control valve module

64
Q

During ground operations prior to start-up, what hydraulic system provides 5000 psi
hydraulic pressure to all three hydraulic systems?

A

Hydraulic system 3.

65
Q

What flight control utility module 3 component shuts off hydraulic fluid to the utility
system in the fuselage, including the landing gear, brakes, winch/hoist, and cargo ramp while the
aircraft is in flight?

A

Utility isolation valve

66
Q

Under what conditions will a pressure/temperature bypass valve internal to the MWGB heat
exchanger route hydraulic fluid bypass the heat exchanger?

A

Temperatures below 150°F, or differential pressure above 40 psi

67
Q

When using the electric motor/pump, or when using hydraulic system 3, the cargo ramp and
door opening and closing times take about how many seconds?

A

30 to 60 for the pump, 12 for system 3.

68
Q

What functions does the PFCS combine to transmit pilot or copilot inputs to components
that control the aircraft?

A

Mechanical, electronic, and hydraulic

69
Q 
Utilizing signals from the FCCs, what components provide a motorized autotrim/autopilot
function and displace the mechanical flight controls accordingly?
A

CCFDAs

70
Q

The lateral mass balance bellcrank assembly reduces the effects of PIOs by the counterweight
action of what component?

A

Bellcrank

71
Q

The link assembly configuration of cyclic system mechanical control adjustable rod end
provides course adjustments of

A

1/2 turn – 180 degrees

72
Q

With simultaneous blade pitch changes, what component transmits a PDS to the FADEC to
increase or decrease engine power accordingly?

A

FCC

73
Q

In AIRPLANE MODE, yaw directional control is accomplished by displacing what
component?

A

The rudders

74
Q

What aluminum yaw interconnect assembly provides a connection for coordination of yaw
control mechanical assemblies that are located between the left and right yaw pedal assemblies?

A

Bellcrank

75
Q

What kind of device is the yaw pedal adjust mechanism assembly that is designed for
ergonomically repositioning the left and right yaw and brake pedals?

A

Electromechanical.

76
Q

What status display provides an overview of flight control surfaces, hydraulic system
pressures, and FCCs?

A

CDU

77
Q

Which panel has the capability to activate and/or reset the AFCS, adjust individual engine
torque values, and engage backup HPDUs on the conversion actuators?

A

Flight control.

78
Q

How many degrees are the flaps set to, when the flap control panel lever is set at F (Full)?

A

72.5

79
Q

How many active and inactive (spare) torque sensors are there for each proprotor mast?

A

Three active sensors and three inactive (spare) sensors

80
Q

What is the maximum percent of surface hinge movement that the left, right, and center
elevator servo actuators are capable of supplying?

A

50

81
Q

What hydraulic system powers each section of the swashplate actuators?

A

A and B: system 1, C: system 2.

82
Q

In pounds, what is the individual and combined load capacity of the external cargo system?

A

10,000 (individual), 15,000 (combined)

83
Q

With the doors open, the cargo hook external doors must be latched open prior to flight
when the speed will be above how many knots?

A

80

84
Q

What assembly is used to mechanically release both cargo hooks in the event of electrical
failure of the external cargo hook system?

A

Emergency manual release assembly

85
Q

When hydraulic pressure is not applied, the rescue hoist hydraulic brake is capable of
holding a maximum load of how many pounds?

A

1500

86
Q

What provides for the activation of the reel-out limit switch and the reel-in speed reduction
switch to stop the hoist with 250 feet of cable remaining?

A

Cyclocentric mechanism

87
Q

In feet, the three standard lengths of the fast rope are

A

60, 90, and 120

88
Q

What part of the Osprey fuselage is the cargo ramp fast rope trapeze assembly attached to?

A

Cargo ramp actuator beam

89
Q

In psig, at what pressure is the enriched N2 environment kept in the fuel cells to provide a
fire and explosion suppressive environment?

A

One to two

90
Q

What fuel distribution pumps are controlled by the FMU to provide a continuous flow of
fuel to the feed cells during flight?

A

Suction lift pumps

91
Q

In an emergency, what provides an external path for fuel being jettisoned?

A

Jettison tube assembly

92
Q

Using the fuel dump system, what is minimum pounds-per-minute rate that fuel can be
discharged through the jettison tube assembly?

A

800

93
Q

What normally closed valve in the fuel dump system is commanded open to allow fuel to
flow out of the jettison tube assembly?

A

Jettison shutoff valve

94
Q

What is the only component in each of the auxiliary fuel cells indication systems?

A

Fuel quantity probe

95
Q

What is the primary stability and attachment point for the aerial refueling probe assembly?

A

Aluminum fitting fastened to the anti-plow bulkhead fitting

96
Q

What component provides control and monitoring of fuel CG management system operation
for the left side of the aircraft, and monitoring of the low level sensor in the left feed tank?

A

FMU 1 (left FMU).

97
Q

What is the fuel capacity, in gallons, of a MATS assembly?

A

430

98
Q

What component prevents the top portion of the MATS bladder from contacting the
container and creates an air cavity around the bladder?

A

Spacer ring

99
Q

What tape uses a magnetic float and marked tape to verify a MATS assembly has been
completely filled with fuel?

A

Fuel fill indicating tape

cv-22 (4 decks)

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