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cv-22 > Volume 1 > Flashcards

Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the Air Force core values?

A

Integrity, service before self, and excellence

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2
Q

Careerism and self-interest can do the most damage when displayed by the

A

leader

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3
Q

When people are taught the right way to do something, they’re also being taught the

A

safe way

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4
Q

How should you treat safety, when it is integrated effectively into your job training?

A

As a separate item from the training

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5
Q

If you see people who outrank you walking around with tools in their pockets or using equipment
improperly, you should

A

alert them to the potential hazards

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6
Q

A major cause of accidents is

A

horseplay

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7
Q

Which item may be worn when performing maintenance on electrical equipment or aircraft electrical
systems?

A

Plastic rim glasses.

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8
Q

If the load is too heavy or bulky for two people to carry safely, what should you do?

A

Use a hand truck or forklift.

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9
Q

Which symptom is not a sign of fuel vapor inhalation?

A

Emotional irritability.

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10
Q

When using compressed air for cleaning, use a diffuser nozzle and make sure the pressure does not
exceed how many pounds per square inch (psi)?

A

30

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11
Q

You use compressed air to clean clothing when

A

it is not on the body

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12
Q

What are the grounding procedures for hand-operated hydraulic servicing carts during servicing
operations?

A

Do not need to ground.

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13
Q

During engine runup, all unnecessary personnel and equipment will be kept clear at least what
distance from the rotary wing aircraft?

A

A distance equal to its length.

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14
Q

Exercise caution when approaching the plane of rotation of the main rotor blades, especially during
engine runup and shut down, because the rotor blades tend to

A

droop at decreased speeds

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15
Q

Radiation hazards vary based on the

A

strength of emission and time of exposure

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16
Q

What is normally a safe distance to the front and sides of the intake duct when a jet engine is
operating?

A

25 ft

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17
Q

Which object would cause an aircraft to be considered “explosives-loaded”?

A

Flares

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18
Q

What precaution must be observed before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar?

A

Remove all ammunition and explosives

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19
Q

The proper positioning of fire extinguishers is determined by

A

distance criteria.

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20
Q

When possible, from where should you fight a fire?

A

The upwind side

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21
Q

A fire occurring in paints, cooking oil, grease, and petroleum products is a class

A

B

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22
Q

A fire occurring in electrical equipment is a class

A

C

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23
Q

A fire occurring in combustible metals such as magnesium, potassium, zinc sodium, and etc., is a

A

D

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24
Q

Which type of auxiliary publication augments directive-type publications issued by higher
headquarters?

A

Supplement

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25
Q

Which visual aid gives examples of international aircraft marshaling signals?

A

AFVA 11-224

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26
Q

Which publication contains official and professional information on matters related to
defense policies and programs of interest?

A

Staff digests

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27
Q

Which type of technical order (TO) files normally are established and maintained by Air
Force bases and activities?

A

Limited

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28
Q

Technical orders (TO) are filed and updated in accordance with

A

TO 00–5–1-WA–1, AF Technical Order System

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29
Q

In a general technical order (TO), which part of the number identifies an individual TO?

A

Fourth

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30
Q

Which technical order (TO) establishes functional-check-flight requirements for the HH–
60G helicopter?

A

TO 1H–1(H)G–6.

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31
Q

Which technical order (TO) gives instructions for time compliance technical orders
(TCTO)?

A

TO 00–5–15-WA–1, Air Force Time Compliance Technical Order System

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32
Q

An urgent action time compliance technical order (TCTO) must be completed within one to

A

10 days

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33
Q

What time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for a deficiency that constitutes a
hazard through prolonged continued usage?

A

Routine action.

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34
Q

Which device or publication enables you to accomplish scheduled inspections on aircraft
efficiently?

A

inspection workcards

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35
Q

How soon should you submit a technical order (TO) deficiency report if you discover an
error in the TO that involves flight safety that would result in serious injury?

A

Immediately

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36
Q

Which level of maintenance performs off-equipment maintenance for the direct support of
using organizations?

A

Intermediate

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37
Q

Who uses the Maintenance Information System (MIS) to identify and track Repeat/Recur
discrepancy trends, and documents the discrepancies accordingly on Air Force Technical Order(AFTO) Form/IMT 781A, after an aircraft flight is completed?

A

Aircrew and Maintenance Debrief Section.

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38
Q

What must units develop to insure crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery
(CDDAR) coverage after duty hours?

A

Emergency recall or mobilization rosters

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39
Q

Who appoints the crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery (CDDAR) Team Chief?

A

Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)

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40
Q

During the fix phase of an aircraft inspection, besides performing maintenance found during
the look phase, what other maintenance is performed?

A

Preplanned maintenance

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41
Q

Who establishes the requirements for the development of a 3-level, career development
course (CDC), and exportable training courses?

A

Career field

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42
Q

Which individual or activity determines the inspection method used to inspect aircraft?

A

Local or major command (MAJCOM).

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43
Q

How many authorized inspection concepts are used by the Air Force?

A

5

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44
Q

When an H–60 is scheduled to fly after being idle for 48 hours, what type of inspection
should you perform?

A

Pre-flight

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45
Q

When an aircraft lands following the last flight of a flying period, what type of inspection
should you perform?

A

Basic post-flight.

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46
Q

What type of inspection is performed when a newly assigned aircraft arrives on station?

A

Acceptance

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47
Q

Which form is the source document for logging flight activity for individuals?

A

Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 781, AFORMS (Air Force Operations Resource
Management System) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document

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48
Q

Which form is used to record aircraft time, engine data, and includes operating times?

A

AFTO Form 781J, Aerospace Vehicle-Engine (operating time, cycle, and oil added) Flight
Document.

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49
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining the binder of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781-
series forms?

A

Crew chief

50
Q 
The technical orders (TO) that authorize the use of abbreviations for use in Air Force
Technical Order (AFTO) 781-series forms are listed in
A

TO 00–20–1-WA–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies,
and Procedures.

51
Q

Which symbol represents an unknown condition and a more serious condition may exist?

A

Red dash

52
Q

Which Air Force form is used to show physical presence or absence of aircraft –21
equipment?

A

AF Form 2691, Aircraft/Missile Equipment Property Record

53
Q

Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form serves as a permanent history of significant
actions for an aircraft?

A

AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data

54
Q

The maintenance data documentation (MDD) system provides a mechanism for

A

collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

55
Q

Which is not an intended user for maintenance data documentation (MDD) data?

A

Worldwide Data Collection Center (WDCC).

56
Q

Individual Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) identification (ID) passwords
should be changed whenever compromise is suspected or not more than every

A

60 days

57
Q

Critical items are generally small numbers of items that cause the largest number of

A

not mission capable supply (NMCS) conditions.

58
Q

Critical items may be designated by the local chief

A

of supply

59
Q

Which expendability, recoverability, reparability codes (ERRC) are considered repair asset
codes?

A

XD or XF

60
Q

Which form is used for internal control of a repair cycle asset item?

A

AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag.

61
Q

To verify the Daily Document Register (D04), a requesting organization or shop should
retain what Air Force (AF) Form

A

2413, Supply control log.

62
Q

Within how many hours is a submission of a Category I deficiency report required?

A

24

63
Q

What are the three classifications of defects for material and equipment?

A

Critical, major, and minor

64
Q

What preferred method uses Microsoft Access to draft and submit deficiency reports?

A

DREAMS II.

65
Q

A commander assures that property is receiving proper care and is being properly
safeguarded by

A

making frequent visits to base activities

66
Q

Which type of responsibility is assumed by an individual who has acquired physical
possession of government property?

A

Custodial.

67
Q

When using a 12-inch torque wrench handle with a 3-inch extension to torque a flight
control bolt to 120 inch-pounds, what is the proper torque setting?

A

96 inch-pounds

68
Q

When setting your torque wrench prior to torquing a self-locking nut for a tail drive shaft
clamp, you must figure out the

A

nut friction torque, and add it to the required torque value

69
Q

The proper way to store a torque wrench is with the

A

handle at the lowest setting

70
Q

The C–8-type tensiometer is capable of measuring cable tension from

A

10 to 200 pounds with an accuracy of 95 percent

71
Q

Which special tool is used to measure the flight control surfaces in degrees of travel?

A

Propeller protractor

72
Q

What happens when the battery voltage on the digital protractor drops below 7 volts?

A

The LCD displays “LOW BAT”

73
Q

How many threads must be showing through a self-locking nut for maximum locking effect?

A

2

74
Q

Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the

A

groove on the end of the barrel.

75
Q

When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, how many bolts
may be wired in a series?

A

3

76
Q

How many turns per inch are allowed on .020 gauge safety wire?

A

9-12

77
Q 
What is the purpose of Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245, Industrial/Support
Equipment Record (Continuous Sheet)?
A

A continuance sheet for AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record

78
Q

What Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) roster shows a documented record of
your certified powered support equipment qualifications?

A

Special certification roster

79
Q

On a piece of powered support equipment that is operationally ready, but not required for
use, a service inspection should be accomplished every

A

7 days

80
Q

Which optional feature can be installed on the –86 to provide 28.5 volts direct current
(VDC)?

A

Transformer rectifier

81
Q

On the –86 generator control panel, the indication of a clogged air filter is a

A

yellow air service indicator flag

82
Q

What is another name for engine wash cart?

A

Spray unit cart.

83
Q

On the engine wash cart, the mixer assembly produces a water to soap ratio of

A

4:1

84
Q

When you start the first hydraulic high-pressure pump motor on the A/M27T–2A hydraulic
test stand, approximately how many seconds must you wait before you proceed to the next system
so that the motor can go into the “run” configuration?

A

3-4

85
Q

With the motor running on the A/M27T–2A hydraulic test stand, which valve should you
press to relieve any air that was trapped in the system from the fill and bleed operation?

A

Bleed

86
Q

What is the maximum output of the MC–2A air compressor?

A

200 psi

87
Q

Up to how many feet can the MA–3 ground air conditioner unit be self-propelled using
battery power?

A

200

88
Q

What must be replaced on the nitrogen cart after dehydrating 16 cylinders of gas?

A

Purifier cartridge.

89
Q

What is the purpose of the cellophane wrap on the separation membranes on the Self
Generating Nitrogen Servicing Cart (SGNSC)?

A

Necessary for proper function and nitrogen production

90
Q

The hydraulic relief valves on the hydraulic filler and pressurization unit are set at what
maximum and minimum levels to relieve the low and high pressure systems from excessive
pressure?

A

100 psi (low); 3,300 psi (high).

91
Q

What is the maximum height, in feet, of the B–1 stand?

A

10

92
Q

What is the maximum weight, in pounds, allowed on the B–5 maintenance stand?

A

600

93
Q

What is the maximum height, in feet, of the B–7 stand?

A

16

94
Q

Prior to lowering jacks and helicopter, you must check

A

and remove all obstructions

95
Q

What is the maximum lifting capacity, in pounds, of the J–1 hoist?

A

5000

96
Q

The usual way of counteracting torque in a single-rotor helicopter is to

A

use an anti-torque tail rotor

97
Q

A pilot would use autorotation

A

during an emergency landing with an engine failure

98
Q

To correct for the dissymmetry of lift, the helicopter uses

A

a flapping hinge.

99
Q

Which helicopter flight characteristic usually develops during takeoff or landing and when the
helicopter/tiltrotor is 87 to 95 percent airborne?

A

Ground resonance.

100
Q

What is incorporated into the cyclic system to prevent gyroscopic precession?

A

Offset linkage.

101
Q

Which aircraft design allows for stronger and lighter structure?

A

Semi-monocoque

102
Q

An aircraft weight and balance update is required

A

when a component weighing five pounds or more is removed or installed.

103
Q

The fuel servicing point is identified by a black

A

four-pointed star

104
Q

What form of corrosion occurs from the combined effects of abrasion and wear and corrosion
at the interface of two contacting surfaces?

A

Fretting

105
Q

Which of these is not part of corrosion prevention?

A

Removing rust

106
Q

You should not clean exterior plastic surfaces with

A

Cheesecloth

107
Q

What method of cleaning aircraft can damage/deteriorate sealants, paint coatings, elastomers;
disbond adhesives, and craze plastics?

A

Steam cleaning.

108
Q

When washing the engines and the outside air temperature is between 5 degrees Fahrenheit
(°F) and 40°F, what should the percentage ratio mix of methanol or isopropyl alcohol in the water
solution be?

A

60% water and 40% methanol or isopropyl alcohol

109
Q

Lubrication charts showing what type of lubricant to use on aircraft components can be found
in

A

the applicable –2–1 aircraft technical order (TO) or interactive electronic technical manual
(IETM) for the CV–22.

110
Q

Lubrications that are stored in containers larger than 1 quart must first be

A

filtered before use

111
Q

All of the following are publications that apply to aircraft towing except

A

AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.

112
Q

What is the minimum number of tow crewmembers necessary for a normal towing operation?

A

3

113
Q

To lessen the danger of a tripod jack pivoting while it supports helicopter, you should

A

make sure two legs of the tripod jack are parallel to the fuselage centerline.

114
Q

Who should remove the safety devices on live ammunition prior to launching an aircraft?

A

Qualified weapons personnel.

115
Q

What is the proper sequence to ground an aircraft after flight?

A

Ground to aircraft

116
Q

Pertaining to navy shipboard personnel, what color jersey does a safety officer wear?

A

White

117
Q

When refueling, what is the minimum safe distance between aircraft?

A

50 ft

118
Q

Before you move the aircraft into a fuel cell, you must first

A

purge and dry the tanks.

119
Q

To stay in constant contact with the aircrew during ground operations, you should

A

use the aircraft intercom system.

120
Q

Which troubleshooting aid is designed to promote understanding of the system?

A

Schematic.

cv-22 (4 decks)

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