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2018 Bibliography > Volume 2 > Flashcards

Volume 2 Flashcards

1
Q

any person who receives our services and anyone with who our members have dealings. Defines what?

A

CALSSRC defines the customer as:

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2
Q

Roles and Responsibilities within the Incident Command System

Who will Occupy the position of Senior Advisor (Incident Advisor) on the Command Team (Incident
Advisory Team) during first and greater alarm incidents.

A

Shift Commanders Phoenix (North and South Deputy), Glendale (West Deputy) and Mesa (East
Deputy)

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3
Q

Roles and Responsibilities within the Incident Command System

Who will Occupy the position of IC on the Command Team (Incident Advisory Team) during first and
greater alarm incidents.

A

Battalion Chiefs

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4
Q

The Tactical Objectives (listed in order of priority) are:

A

A. Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured.

B. Stabilize the incident and provide for life safety.

C. Conserve property.

D. Provide for the safety, accountability, and welfare of personnel. This priority is ongoing throughout
the incident.

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5
Q

What system is used to facilitate the completion of the Tactical Objectives.

A

The Incident Command System

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6
Q

The Functions of Command include:

A
  1. Assume and announce Command and establish an effective initial command position (Command Post).
  2. Rapidly evaluate the situation (size up).
  3. Initiate, maintain, and control effective incident communications.
  4. Provide and manage a steady, adequate, and timely stream of appropriate resources.
  5. Identify the incident strategy, develop an Incident Action Plan (IAP), and assign companies and
    personnel consistent with plans and standard operating procedures.
  6. Develop an effective incident organization using Sectors/Divisions/Groups to decentralize and
    delegate geographic and functional responsibility.
  7. Review, and revise (as needed) the strategy to keep the IAP current.
  8. Provide for the continuity, transfer, and termination of Command.
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7
Q

Follow-up Report addresses:

1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. Any immediate safety concerns
  2. Accountability started (announce the initial accountability location)
  3. Disposition of resources (hold/add/return)
  4. IRIC - in place and identify
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8
Q

If a Chief Officer, member, or unit without tactical

capabilities (i.e. staff vehicle, no equipment, etc.) initiates Command; What should be the top priority?

A

the establishment of a Command Post should be a top priority.

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9
Q

The Fast-attack-mobile Command mode should not last more than a few minutes and will end with one
of the following:

A

A. Situation is stabilized.

B. Command is transferred from the fast attack company officer IC to a later arriving command
officer.

C. If the situation is not stabilized, the fast attack company officer IC must move to an exterior
(stationary) command position and is now in the Command mode. The company officer must
decide whether or not to withdraw the remainder of the crew, based on the crew’s capabilities
and experience, safety issues, and the ability to communicate with the crew. No crew will
remain in a hazardous area without radio communications.

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10
Q

What are The benefits of an upgraded Command post?

A
  • Provides IC #2 with a Support Officer
  • Establishes an Incident Safety Officer (FIT) (ISO)
  • IC #2 has a wider view of the fireground
  • Improves communication
  • Creates a lighted, warm (or cool), and dry environment for IC #2 to operate in
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11
Q

The first arriving Shift Commander ( preferably from the appropriate city that the incident is located in if available) will assume the roll of Senior Advisor and assist the IC. The second arriving Shift Commander will:

A

The second arriving Shift Commander sets up the Command Van (CV) and manages the movement
of Command to the CV.

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12
Q

Command should consider adding a command officer to any sector with ____ or more operating companies.

A

three

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13
Q

The Incident Command System (ICS) never “sleeps”. The ICS is in a constant state of readiness.
When there are no working incidents who has the responsibility to initiate ICS?

A

When there are no working incidents the Alarm Room Battalion Chief and Supervisor share the
responsibility of initiating the ICS.

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14
Q

The Command Team consists of:

A

the Incident Commander (IC), Support Officer, and Senior Advisor

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15
Q

The roles and responsibilities of the Command Team are identical to the roles and
responsibilities of the:

A

Incident Advisory Team

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16
Q

The primary players in the Command Team are the:

A

IC, Support Officer, and Senior Advisor.

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17
Q

Once IC #2 assumes Command the FIT becomes his/her:

A

Support Officer and the designated Incident Safety Officer (ISO)

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18
Q

At an incident who, is looking at the entire incident and
its impact from a broader perspective and providing direction, guidance and advice to the other members of the command team?

A

The Senior Advisor

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19
Q

The basic configuration of Command includes three levels:

A

Strategic Level - Overall direction of the incident.

Tactical Level - Objectives assigned to Sectors (Divisions or Groups)

Task Level - Task objectives assigned to Companies.

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20
Q

What is the function of command that the IC uses to track, communicate with, and account for resources in order to meet the incident objectives?

A

Incident organization

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21
Q

Whenever there are _____ or

more companies operating in a sector, the IC should assign a Battalion Chief and FIT to that sector.

A

three

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22
Q

Utilizing Sectors provides the following advantages:

A
  • Reduces the IC’s span of control
  • Creates more effective incident scene communications
  • Provides a standard and logical system to divide large geographical incidents into effectively sized units
  • Provides an array major support functions
  • Improves firefighter safety
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23
Q

When establishing a Sector, the IC will assign each Sector Officer what :
A.
B.
C.

A

A. Tactical Objectives.

B. A radio designation (Roof Sector, East Sector, etc.)

C. The identity of resources assigned to the Sector.

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24
Q

During offensive fires how many companies represent a reasonable maximum span of control for a Sector Officer?

A

five (5) companies

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25
Q

During defensive fires how many companies represent a reasonable maximum span of control for a Sector Officer?

A

seven (7) companies

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26
Q

Sector Officers assigned to operate within the hazard zone must be accompanied by:

A

by a partner (normally a F.I.T.).

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27
Q

Who has the responsibility to Manage Maydays within the Sector?

A

Sector Officers

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28
Q

When a command officer is assigned Sector responsibilities who assumes the role of sector safety officer?

A

the FIT/ISO becomes the Sector Safety Officer.

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29
Q

What is the primary function of a company officer working within a sector?

A

direct the operations of their individual crews in performing assigned tasks.

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30
Q

What level of the organization is designed to provide COORDINATION between the Sectors and Command?

A

The Branch

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31
Q

Who has the responsibility to decide whether or not to expand the organization to include branches?

A

the Senior Advisor

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32
Q

Who will manage and direct activities of Sector Officers?

A

Branch Officers

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33
Q

The _______ Section is the support mechanism for the organization.

A

Logistics

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34
Q

The _______ Section is responsible for gathering, assimilating, analyzing, and processing information needed for effective decision-making.

A

Planning

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35
Q

The ________ Section is responsible for the tactical priorities, accountability, safety and welfare of the personnel working in the Operations Section.

A

Operations

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36
Q

The __________ Section evaluates and manages the risk and financial requirements for the Fire Department’s involvement in the incident.

A

Administration

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37
Q

“In Transit” is the time it takes for a company to reach their assignment area after receiving an
order. It often varies due to:

A
  • Distance between staging and the incident
  • Size of the incident perimeter
  • Amount of equipment the company needs to assemble
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38
Q

What is a forward staging position located just outside the immediate hazard zone, safely distanced from the entrance of a tactical position/Sector.

A

“On Deck”

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39
Q

The most likely assignments for On Deck companies are:

A
  • Reinforce a position within an assigned sector
  • Crew relief within an assigned sector
  • Any other tactical position assigned by the IC
  • Rapid intervention crew
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40
Q

If conditions permit, a companies work cycle could be up to __ to __ air cylinders

A

2 to 3

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41
Q

Any situation where a firefighter is unable to safely exit the hazard zone or an event that cannot be resolved by that individual within 30 seconds; Defines what situation?

A

Definition of a Mayday Situation

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42
Q

NFPA 1500 Standard defines mayday readiness as the ability to:

A

“don, doff and manipulate the SCBA in zero visibility while wearing firefighting gloves.”

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43
Q

In order to establish effective Mayday readiness, it is necessary to recognize that Mayday readiness has 2 components. These components are:

A

Prevention and Response.

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44
Q

Company Officer responsibility for Mayday preventions include:

A

 Integrating a daily SCBA check into the crew routine

 Practicing crew communication in the hazard zone

 Rover integration into crew
o Individual rovers are responsible to ask if not explicitly discussed at the beginning of a shift

 Maintaining knowledge of portable radios and practicing their use

 Ensuring Company Officer responsibilities and expectations are clear to the entire crew

 Practicing and maintaining crew integrity/accountability

 Instilling the standard that firefighters should always stay on a hoseline

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45
Q

 Once the Mayday situation is recognized and reported, each firefighter should remember:
o B.O.A. =

A

Breath, Organize and Act

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46
Q

o GRAB LIVES=

A 
	G = Check Air Gauge
	R = Radio for Assistance
	A = Activate PASS Device
	B = Control Breathing, Conserve Air
	L = Stay Low
	I = Illuminate, Turn Flashlight On
	V = Make Loud Noises (Volume)
	E = Find An Exit
	S = Shield Your Airway (last ditch effort)
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47
Q

In the event of a Mayday situation, who will take responsibility of the resolution of the Mayday situation.

A

the Sector Officer

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48
Q

Who has the ultimate responsibility for actively and continually providing for the prevention and response to a Mayday situation.

A

The Incident Command Team

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49
Q

The critical points that have to be confirmed prior to giving the benchmark of “Mayday resolved” is:

A

 The individual(s) that are experiencing the Mayday situation are removed from the hazard zone
 All members involved in the rescue are accounted for and are out of the hazard zone
 All members working in all other sectors are accounted for
 The Incident Commander can give a PAR for the entire hazard zone

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50
Q

 Upon initiation of a Mayday, the tactical radio operator shall:

A

o Transmit the emergency traffic tone

o Voice on the tactical channel: “We have a Mayday on the scene, all units hold your traffic”

o Repeats the Mayday message using the standard radio order model

o Allows for the Incident Commander to speak to the Mayday initiator

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51
Q

 Upon the initiation of a Mayday, the incident is upgraded using the Mayday nature code

 If 3 – 1 incident, then balanced to ________

 If 1st Alarm incident, then balanced to ________

A
  • 1st Alarm Mayday

- 2nd Alarm Mayday

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52
Q

 The only way to guarantee a successful outcome of a Mayday situation is to:

A

PREVENT IT!

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53
Q

Actions in a calculated manner” require the following:

A
  • Incident Command established
  • Proper personal protective equipment
  • Accountability system established
  • Safety procedures in place
  • Continuous risk assessment by all members
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54
Q

Victims buried by a trench collapse or under water for __ minutes or more, would be unlikely to survive therefore an extremely cautious and a well-planned, safe, recovery operation is required.

A

10

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55
Q

The hot zone will be defined as:

A

any area that requires the use of an SCBA.

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56
Q

ACCOUNTABILITY
Company Officer / Task responsibilities

• Company officers must obtain PARs for their crews, which is a confirmation that all members assigned to his/her crew are accounted for and have:

A

an adequate exit air supply.

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57
Q

A minimum crew size will be considered __ or more members.

A

two

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58
Q

Passports are bright yellow tags, which measure approximately __ by __ inches that are marked with company identification and shift.

A

3 by 4

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59
Q

Implementation of the passport system will occur at any incident that:

A

requires the use of an SCBA.

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60
Q

The use of the accountability system will commence as:

A

the first unit arrives on the scene.

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61
Q

Once a passport is delivered to the pump operator, the passport will remain on the designated discharge gate indicating the:

A

“point of entry” to the hot zone.

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62
Q

Each back up accountability kit is kept in a blue nylon bag that contains the following equipment:

A
  • Three blank hoseline id tags – to mark company ID with grease pencil
  • One passport pouch
  • One blank passport – to mark crew member IDs with grease pencil
  • One blank passport with Velcro – to attach crew member nametags from underside of helmet
  • One grease pencil
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63
Q

Accountability can be terminated following a report of “___________,” at which time what must be obtained?

A

fire under control

a PAR for all crews must be obtained.

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64
Q

The PAR is a confirmation that all members are:

A

accounted for and have an adequate exit air supply.

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65
Q

A personnel accountability report will be required for the following situations:

A
  • Any report of a missing or trapped fire fighter
  • Any change from offensive to defensive
  • Any sudden hazardous event at the incident - flash over, back draft, collapse, May Day, etc.
  • As companies report an all clear.
  • As companies report under control.
  • At every 30 minutes of elapsed time.
  • Any time Command feels it is necessary.
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66
Q

OSHA states that “once fire fighters begin the interior attack on an interior structural fire, the atmosphere is assumed to be ____ and paragraph 29 CFR 1910.134(g)(4) _________ applies.”

A

IDLH

[two-in/two-out]

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67
Q

The objective of 2 in / 2 out is to have:

A

fully equipped firefighters in position during the initial fire attack to react in the event of a Mayday situation.

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68
Q

OSHA further defines an incipient stage fire as a “fire which is in the initial or beginning stage and which can be controlled or extinguished by _________, Class II standpipe or small hose systems without the need for:

A

portable fire extinguishers,

protective clothing or breathing apparatus.”

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69
Q

Standard Exceptions to the 2 in / 2 out Requirement at Structure Fires are:

A
  1. When there is a reported or suspected life hazard where immediate action could prevent the loss of life.
  2. When the fire is in an incipient stage as defined above.
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70
Q

One primary member of the 2 in / 2 out pair must be solely dedicated to:

A

tracking interior personnel.

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71
Q

If members of the 2 in / 2 out team are required to assist with a Mayday situation, it is imperative that they communicate their actions with Command or ____.

A

AHQ

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72
Q

When is the Incident Safety System implemented?

A

The Incident Safety System is implemented any time the Phoenix Fire Department responds to an incident.

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73
Q

Fire departments in the Phoenix Regional Automatic Aid Consortium (the consortium) manage safety using two different but interoperable systems;

A

the single dedicated Incident Safety Officer (ISO),

and

the Incident Safety Officer System (ISOS).

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74
Q

This position functions as the Incident Safety Officer in the ISOS until command van operations are commenced?

A

Support Officer:

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75
Q

Who develops the Incident Safety Plan?

A

Hazard control strategies developed by the ISO

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76
Q

Who provides the beginning of the Incident Safety Officer System (ISOS)?

A

This initial company officer as the IC/ISO provides the beginning of the Incident Safety Officer System (ISOS) and insures that firefighter safety is a priority upon arrival of the first unit and is maintained though standard transfer of Command and ISO responsibilities until the incident is stabilized or Command is terminated.

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77
Q

Of the Incident command team who will Evaluate the fireground organization and span of control?

A

the Support Officer

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78
Q

What is a forward staging position located just outside the immediate hazard zone, safely distanced from the entrance of a tactical position/Sector?

A

”On Deck”

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79
Q

The most likely assignments for On Deck companies are:

A
  • Reinforce a position within an assigned sector
  • Crew relief within an assigned sector
  • Any other tactical position assigned by the IC
  • Rapid Intervention Crew
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80
Q

What is one of the most important reasons to assign companies to On-Deck positions?

A

The ability to respond quickly to a May-Day situation

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81
Q

On all first alarm or greater incidents who will be dispatched and will fill the role of a mobile AISO when assigned by the IC to provide an additional layer of safety?

A

cars 957 north and south or BC152

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82
Q

Who may be assigned to secure utilities?

A

C957 may be assigned the following duties

83
Q

hen an ISO qualified person arrives at the Command Post (CV), the who may assign him/her to the position of ISO.

A

Senior Advisor

84
Q

The Incident Safety Officer (ISO) function operating in the Command Van (CV) works under the direction of:

A

the Senior Advisor (SA)

85
Q

What is an additional communication tool for sector officers to communicate with the command team in the event of a significant incident situation?

A

The tactical safety channel

86
Q

SAFETY INTERVENTION

Intervention at scene operations involves three approaches, what are they?

A

First is for life threatening situations

second is for non-life threatening situations

the third approach occurs in the on-going incident planning process.

87
Q

SAFETY INTERVENTION
Intervention at scene operations involves three approaches, What approach does the below sentence relate to?

Any LIFE THREATENING conditions will be corrected immediately and directly

A

First Approach- life threatening conditions

88
Q

SAFETY INTERVENTION
Intervention at scene operations involves three approaches, What approach does the below sentence relate to?

This approach is the most frequent type of interaction.

A

Second approach- non life threatening conditions:

89
Q

SAFETY INTERVENTION
Intervention at scene operations involves three approaches, What approach does the below sentence relate to?

This approach occurs in the on-going incident planning process.

A

Third approach- on going incident planning:

90
Q

The Resource Sector is a part of our Incident Command System and may be assigned under who?

A

the Logistics Section Officer.

91
Q

What Sector is used to control access to a building or

area?

A

Lobby sector

92
Q

In the case of a technical operation, e.g., hazardous materials incident, trench rescue, or confined space, the perimeter shall be defined by:

A

HAZARD ZONE tape with an entrance/exit point identified.

93
Q

The key to an organized and manageable evacuation is to develop an:

A

Incident Command System early and initiate a plan and to continually update the plan.

94
Q

AREA OF EVACUATION

How should evacuation boundaries be set up?

A

The evacuation boundaries should

follow streets and established roadways.

95
Q

In some situations, in-place sheltering can be used to protect the public rather than initiating an evacuation. In
place sheltering can be considered during the following circumstances:

A
  1. The hazardous material has been identified as having a low or moderate level of health risk
  2. The material has been released from its container and is now dissipating
  3. Leaks can be controlled rapidly and before evacuation can be completed
  4. Exposure to the product is expected to be short-term and of low health risk
  5. The public can be adequately protected by staying indoors
96
Q

There are three levels of evacuation. What are they?

A
  1. SITE EVACUATION
  2. INTERMEDIATE LEVEL EVACUATION
  3. LARGE-SCALE EVACUATION
97
Q

There are three levels of evacuation. This level affects off-site homes and businesses and normally affects fewer than 100 people. What level is it?

A
  1. INTERMEDIATE LEVEL EVACUATION
98
Q

There are three levels of evacuation. The citizens in this level of evacuation are easily evacuated and collected upwind of the perimeter area. What level is this?

A
  1. SITE EVACUATION
99
Q

There are three levels of evacuation. In this level Evacuees may be out of their homes and businesses for many hours if not days. What level is this?

A
  1. LARGE-SCALE EVACUATION
100
Q

During evacuation, Once long-term sheltering is identified, who will manage shelters?

A

Once long-term sheltering is identified, the Red Cross will manage shelters

101
Q

During evacuation, Once long-term sheltering is identified, the Red Cross will manage shelters; How long will the red cross need to assemble the adequate personnel, equipment and supplies to the shelter sites?

A

The Red Cross will need up to three hours to get adequate personnel, equipment and supplies to the shelter sites.

102
Q

During evacuation a Red Cross representative should be assigned to each shelter. Who else should also be assigned to each shelter?

A

An Occupant Services officer should also be

assigned to each shelter.

103
Q

The Planning Section is responsible for all planning associated with the evacuation. The actual evacuation process would normally be managed in the Operations Section as an:

A

Evacuation Branch or Sector.

104
Q

The Planning Section would be responsible for developing an evacuation plan in joint cooperation with who?

A

the Police Department.

105
Q

The Evacuation Branch officer may be a:

A

police officer

106
Q

Evacuees should be advised to take the following items:

A
  1. Wallet/purse
  2. House and car keys
  3. Money
  4. Eyeglasses
  5. Medications
  6. Proper/warm clothing
  7. Family pet
107
Q

A Transportation Sector should be established within the Evacuation Branch. One responsibility of the Transportation Branch/Sector includes getting city buses , what is the minimum starting number of buses?

A

two

108
Q

During an evacuation operation, if the EOC is in operation who is responsible for briefing and maintaining communication with the EOC?

A

the Planning Section is responsible for briefing and maintaining communication with the EOC.

109
Q

If during an evacuation and the EOC is in operation, who is responsible for the decision to return evacuees?

A

If the EOC is operating, the decision to return evacuees will be made by the EOC staff.

110
Q

Determining Critique Levels,

The incident may qualify for one of five levels of critique; what are they?

A

Individual–Conducted within the individual company by the company officer.

Company Level–Post-incident critique conducted on site, prior to departing the scene.

Battalion Level–Initiated and organized by the battalion chief.

Operations Level–Conducted within the battalion by the battalion chief or Shift Commander.

Department Level-

111
Q

There are five levels of critique; what level is described below?

“Post-incident critique conducted on site, prior to departing the scene”

A

Company Level critique

112
Q

There are five levels of critique; what level is described below?

“Conducted within the individual company by the company officer”

A

Individual level critique

113
Q

There are five levels of critique; what level is described below?

“Initiated and organized by the battalion chief”

A

Battalion Level critique

114
Q

There are five levels of critique; what level is described below?

“Conducted within the battalion by the battalion chief or Shift Commander”

A

Operations Level critique

115
Q

Critique Preparation Packet

A thorough critique of major incidents may require the
assistance of several divisions or sections; What is the turnaround for submitting the information
to the Tactical Services chief?

A

turnaround will be ten (10) calendar days.

116
Q

All formal critiques should be how long?

A

Critique should be limited to a maximum of 1 to 1-1/2 hours in duration if possible.

117
Q

If there is evidence of significant fire but companies are unable to determine location and extent; As IC what should you do?

A

SUMMON ADDITIONAL RESOURCES

118
Q

Aerial observation may be desirable to assist Command in complex situations; What situations would this be needed?

A

brush firefighting

complex structural fires involving difficult access

high-rise fires,

tracking direction and distance of air contamination at haz mat fires.

119
Q

During major incidents, Command may request to have the surrounding airspace restricted to avoid
interference with emergency operations; who should this request be made to?

A

The request must be made to the FAA Flight Service Station

120
Q

What are the two methods of brush firefighting available using helicopters?

A

Bambi buckets; PHX has (2) MESA has (1) they can hold 67-96 gallons

aerial water drop capability;

121
Q

The Phoenix Fire Department currently has four buoy wall tanks. Mesa Fire Department has one buoy
wall. How much water do they hold?

A

The buoy wall tanks will hold either 3,000 or 4,000 gallons of water

122
Q

Helicopters with full buckets are prohibited from flying where?

A

over occupied structures or traffic.

Roadways must be closed or structures evacuated if no other flight path can be used.

123
Q

When setting up a buoy wall tank what should you put beneath them?

A

Place one or two salvage covers on the ground to protect the bottom of the tank.

124
Q

What is the average flying time per fuel load for contract helicopters?

A

Average flying time per fuel load is 1-1/2

to two hours and a refueling vehicle can be dispatched to the scene.

125
Q

The risk of using helicopters and placing rescue personnel in dangerous situations must be weighed against the urgency of the rescue situation; what considerations could increase this risk?

A

These considerations may be critical during hours of darkness or poor flying weather.

126
Q

“special use” helicopters will only conducted by what personnel?

A

“Special Use” helicopter operations shall only be performed by certified City of Phoenix Police
Department pilots and Phoenix Fire Department Technical Rescue Technicians.

127
Q

Prior to initiating any rescue operation that required the “Special Use” of a helicopter, a risk benefit analysis will be completed by who?

A

Technical Sector Officer (T.S.O),

Phoenix PD pilot,

Command

128
Q

Mesa Police Department helicopter designation is ______

A

Falcon.

129
Q

Command will assign personnel to select and identify a landing zone, The assigned personnel shall have what equipment?

A

portable radio, eye protection, ear protection, high-visibility safety vests.

130
Q

What size is the helicopter LZ

A

100’ x 100’ for each helo with 60’ x 60’ touchdown area in the middle

131
Q

The landing zone should be located at least ____ yards from other activity areas.

A

100

132
Q

While the helicopter is on the ground, whether running or not; a tail guard should be positioned where?

A

a “tail guard” shall be stationed 50 to 100
feet from the tail rotor to keep the area secured.

At no time shall personnel pass behind the body of
the helicopter and the tail rotor

133
Q

Radio contact with a helo pilot will be maintained by LZ for how long and why?

A

Radio contact and the landing zone shall be maintained for two to three minutes after departure of the
helicopter in case an in-flight emergency is experienced and the helicopter needs to return to the
landing zone.

134
Q

How should you carry tools while operating around helicopters?

A

Carry tools horizontally and below waist level, never upright or over shoulder

135
Q

All fire personnel and crew members will wear the following PPE when operating in or on the helicopter.

A

Flight Helmet

Fire Resistant Clothing

Leather Boots

Gloves

136
Q

List LZ SURFACE SELECTION in order of best to least preferred:

A
  1. Concrete
  2. Asphalt
  3. Grass
  4. Compacted dirt (lightly moistened to control dust)
  5. Dry, loose dirt/sand (heavily moistened to control dust)
137
Q

List all Engine Company Functions:

A
  1. Search, rescue, and treatment
  2. Stretch hoselines
  3. Operate nozzles
  4. Pump hoselines
  5. Loss contro
138
Q

List 5 of the least known Ladder Company/Tender Functions:

A
  1. Search, rescue, and treatment
  2. Provide access/check fire extension
  3. Raise ladders
  4. Utility control
  5. Provide lighting

OTHERS:

  1. Forcible entry
  2. Operate ladder pipes (aerials and platforms only)
  3. Perform overhaul
  4. Extrication
  5. Loss control
  6. Ventilate
139
Q

The descriptions below is tied to which fireground factor?

Type and amount of material involved (structure/interior finish/contents)

Type and amount of material left to burn

A

FIRE

140
Q

The descriptions below is tied to which fireground factor?

Type of contents

A

OCCUPANCY

141
Q

The descriptions below is tied to which fireground factor?

Value of exposures

A

ARRANGEMENT

142
Q

What must be completed in order to

stabilize any fire situation?

A

TACTICAL PRIORITIES

143
Q

Tactical benchmarks are complete when what happens?

A

These objectives are considered complete when the benchmarks are declared.

144
Q

The umbrella of service is made up of what three ongoing considerations ?

A

They are fire fighter safety, customer service, and Loss Control.

145
Q

The fireground strategy is also based on:

A
  1. The building (type of construction, condition, age, etc)
  2. Structural integrity of the building (contents vs. structural involvement)
  3. The fire load (what type of fuel is burning and what’s left to burn)
  4. The fire and/or smoke conditions (extent, location, etc.)
  5. The rescue profile (savable occupants/survivability profile)
146
Q

What action does the Incident Commander take to provide for overall incident scene safety?

A

By controlling the fireground strategy, the Incident Commander is providing overall incident scene safety.

147
Q

Where should your first attack line go when in an offensive fire attack?

A

Initial attack efforts must be directed toward supporting a primary search – the first attack line must go
between the victims and the fire to protect avenues of rescue and escape.

148
Q

Failure to address all seven sides of the fire will frequently result in:

A

fire extension.

149
Q

What is a major support item that must be addressed during concealed space attacks?

A

Early ventilation (natural or positive pressure)

150
Q

The basic variables relating to fire attack operations involve:

A

 Location/position of attack

 Size of attack

 Support functions

151
Q

When should Command abandon marginal attacks?

A
  1. A primary all clear is obtained and the situation is still marginal.
  2. The roof is unsafe or untenable. Especially working fires in large unsupported or lightweight trussed
    attic spaces.
  3. Interior forces encounter heavy heat and cannot locate the fire or cannot make any progress on the fire.
  4. Heavy smoke is being forced from the building under pressure and is increasing.
152
Q

The first priority in defensive operations is _________ ; the second is _________.

A

personnel safety

exposure protection

153
Q

Master streams are generally the most effective tactic to be employed in defensive operations. For tactical
purposes, a standard master stream flow of at least ___ GPM should be the guideline.

A

750

154
Q

When the exposure is severe and water is limited, the most effective tactic is to put water WHERE and, if need be, from the interior of the exposure.

A

on the exposure

155
Q

Rescue efforts should be extended in the following order:

A
  • Most severely threatened
  • The largest number (groups)
  • The remainder of the fire area
  • The exposed areas
156
Q

The most urgent reason for calling additional alarms is for the purpose of covering ________.

A

life safety.

157
Q

Command must define Offensive/Defensive Strategy based upon the Risk Management System. In addition,
Command will consider the following when Fire Control is the principle objective:

A
  1. Fire extent
  2. Structural conditions
  3. Entry capability
  4. Ventilation profile
  5. Rescue profile of occupants
  6. Resources profile
158
Q

Do not operate exterior streams, whether hand lines, master streams, ladder pipes, etc., into an area
where interior crews are operating. This procedure is intended to prevent injuries to personnel due to:

A

stream blast and the driving of fire and/or heavy heat and smoke onto interior crews.

159
Q

When laddering a roof, the ladder selected shall be one which will extend __’ to __’ above the roof line.

A

2’ - 3’

160
Q

What is defined as any area that requires an SCBA, charged hoseline, special protective
clothing, or in which Fire fighting Personnel are at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the
environment or structure?

A

The Hot Zone

161
Q

ALL PERSONNEL ENTERING THE HOT ZONE SHALL:

A
  • WEAR FULL TURNOUTS
  • HAVE CREW INTACT
  • BE ASSIGNED TO A SECTOR
162
Q

What roof construction can be expected to fail after minimal fire exposure?

A

light weight truss and bar joist roof construction can be expected to fail after minimal fire exposure.

163
Q

All of the descriptions below represent signs of what?

  • Cracks in exterior walls.
  • Bulges in exterior walls.
  • Sounds of structural movement–creaking, groaning, snapping, etc.
  • Smoke or water leaking through walls.
  • Flexible movement of any floor or roof where fire fighters walk.
  • Interior or exterior bearing walls or columns–leaning, twisting or flexing.
  • Sagging or otherwise distorted rooflines.
  • Time of fire involvement.
A

Signs of building collapse

164
Q

Most structures are not designed to withstand the effects of fire, and can be expected to fail if exposed
to heavy fire involvement. If after __-__ minutes of interior operations heavy fire conditions still exist,
Command should initiate a careful evaluation of structural conditions, and should be fully prepared to
withdraw interior crews and change to a defensive strategy.

A

10-15

165
Q

The initiator of “emergency traffic” should address what two things?

A

initiator should describe the apparent

hazard and order a positive response

166
Q

If a working fire is suspected in a high-rise building, the following two procedures shall be adhered to:

A
  • Utilize stairways to go aloft.
  • Elevators may be used to go aloft provided the following measures have been taken.

A. The elevator shaft must be checked to insure that heat/fire have not damaged the hoist mechanism,
etc. This can be done by checking the space between the door frame and the elevator car and
shining a light up the shaft. If smoke or fire are visible in the shaft, DO NOT USE THE ELEVATOR.

B. Before using an elevator, the nearest enclosed stairway should be identified. Should the elevator
stop at a floor with heavy SMOKE or intense heat, fire fighters can then head directly for the stairs
without losing time searching for them.

C. You must verify that the floor you are going to is uninvolved. This can be done by utilizing the
following measures.

167
Q

When operating around a high-rise building where the potential hazards of falling glass and debris
exist, a fireground perimeter shall be established ___’ from the building and shall be observed by all
Fire personnel as a high hazard area.

A

200’

168
Q

With the TIC, Some factors that can be assessed from the outside include:

A

finding the seat of the fire,

observing changing or spreading conditions,

identifying critical building construction features

identifying conditions that could threaten
structural integrity

169
Q

The primary use of the TIC for the fire department is for:

A

conducting search/rescue

and

crew accountability tasks.

170
Q

If a S.C.B.A. is found to be functioning improperly, it shall be:

A

taken out of service, red tagged, reported,

and replaced immediately.

171
Q

In routine fire situations, the decision to remove S.C.B.A. shall be made by _________, with the
approval of Sector Officers, based on an evaluation of _________ conditions.’

A

company officers

atmospheric

172
Q

An evaluation of all members of the Operations Division in the use of the S.C.B.A. shall be conducted when?

A

both quarterly and annually.

173
Q

How much of firefighters air is reserved for “working and exiting”? What is the remaining air used for?

A

It is critical that firefighters understand that the initial 75% of the air supply is the “working and exiting air”.

The remaining 25% of the air supply is the emergency reserve to be used only in the event an emergency occurs while exiting such as becoming lost, trapped, or entangled upon exiting the hazard zone.

174
Q

Benchmarks for PACAN reports are:

A

10 minute elapsed time on air

all clear

fire control,

lost stopped.

175
Q

The following quaite defines what?

“anytime the breathing apparatus being used cannot
deliver air to the user as designed; whether by mechanical failure or if the individual has
consumed the air supply beyond the designed work cycle, or an individual becomes lost
or trapped within an IDHL environment regardless of air supply”.

A

An air emergency

176
Q

when remaining air supply in the SCBA cylinder reaches the __% to __% range a May-Day should be called if personnel are still inside an IDLH atmosphere and will be unable to exit within 5 minutes.

A

18% to 15%

177
Q

The initial Roof Sector Officer must report to Command the following conditions:

A

a. Roof design and construction (flat, peaked, bowstring, etc.)
b. Structural conditions
c. Fire conditions or effects of fire on roof
d. Locations of fire walls
e. Locations of heavy objects that are affected by fire conditions
f. Ventilation plan

178
Q

What sector is responsible for having the immediate area checked for equipment which may have been left at the scene upon termination of the incident?

A

Resource Sector is

179
Q

For high-rise operations, the Resource Sector is normally established where?

A

five floors below the on-deck floor or any

other safe, uncontaminated environment below the fire

180
Q

Members assigned to Rehab are to report back to their previously assigned sector within what time frame?

A

NONE!

Members assigned to Rehab do not report back to their previously assigned sector.

To be reassigned to another sector, they must be assigned by Command after being cleared by Rehab.

181
Q

A Rehab Team concept will be used wherever possible to establish and manage the Rehab Sector. This team
shall consist of:

A
  1. Rehab Truck
  2. Utility Truck
  3. Rescue
  4. ALS Company
  5. Designated Sector Officer
  6. C959, as needed
  7. Health Center officer, as needed
182
Q

Rehab Sector will have entry and exit points where?

A

The Rehab Sector area boundaries will be defined and will have only ONE entry point.

183
Q

REHAB SECTOR

Function A: Assessment

HR must be below ___

A

120

184
Q

REHAB SECTOR

Function C: Medical Treatment and Transport

Function C is managed by who?

A

ALS crews and a Rescue will manage this function.

185
Q

REHAB SECTOR

Function C: Medical Treatment and Transport

To be reassigned members must have:

A

A heart rate below 100 bpm with no irregular beats

Systolic BP below 160 Diastolic BP below 100

Respiratory rate between 12‐20 per minute

No abnormal neurological findings. (see below)

No complaints

186
Q

Personnel with the following signs and symptoms may be experiencing?

skin that feels hot to the touch, dry, red, bumpy rash or is blistering.

A

Heat Stress

187
Q

We ventilate to:

A

alter interior conditions

188
Q

If ladder crews cannot get on the roof to ventilate because of fire conditions/roof profile, Command should consider this a:

A

marginal situation.

189
Q

When crews are unable to locate the fire in a bow string roofed structure what shall you do?

A

if it’s safe to do so, quickly search the building and

implement a defensive strategy.

190
Q

What is an effective operational group for many fireground tasks and provides a sound basis for the creation of sectors which may be built upon as the incident progresses?

A

An Attack Team

191
Q

In the City of Phoenix, a high-rise building is defined as:

A

6 elevator stops or greater or 75 feet in height or greater.

192
Q

During a Hi Rise fire what Engine Company should establish water connection to building standpipe system?

A

Second arriving Engine

193
Q

On a Hi-Rise fire, After a declaration of a “working fire”, once on scene, all 1st and 2nd Alarm
companies should proceed?

A

proceed directly to the building and report to Lobby

Sector

194
Q

All crews entering building must bring a minimum of __ spare SCBA bottle(s)
·

A

1 spare per crewmember initially

195
Q

An important element of loss control is to:

A

extinguish the fire. Fighting the fire from the unburned portion will effect loss control.

196
Q

The most significant thing we can do to reduce damage is

A

to put the fire out.

197
Q

When water has filled the attic space and is pooling on the gypsum what should be done to remove that water?

A

use a drill or a screwdriver as a

hole punch to allow the water to escape.

198
Q

Cut small ceiling inspection holes, preferably _” x _,” to check attics.

A

6” x 6,”

199
Q

What is one often overlooked function of loss control?

A

“Securing” the fire scene is also a function of loss control.

(and also described in M.P Overhaul as: “Securing the fire scene is also a function of overhaul”)

200
Q

Salvage objectives are:

A
  • Stop or reduce the source of damage

* Protect or remove contents

201
Q

Where should salvage efforts begin?

A

Salvage efforts should begin in areas most severely threatened by damage. In most cases that will be
areas directly adjacent to or below the fire area.

202
Q

Common salvage equipment includes:

A

salvage covers and boxes

rolled plastic

hall runners

brooms

squeegees.

203
Q

The goal of overhaul is to reduce the incidence of ____________, control loss, and stabilize the incident scene while providing for firefighter safety in doing so.

Additional objectives include:

A

secondary fires

  • Preserving evidence
  • Securing the fire scene
204
Q

Who is responsible for insuring that the fire area has been thoroughly overhauled?

A

The IC

2018 Bibliography (6 decks)

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