Volume 2 Flashcards

(392 cards)

1
Q

__________ is defined as: a timely and efficient means of air replacement and re-hydration of
companies while maintaining their sector assignment.

A

Recycling

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2
Q

Who can occupy the position of Sector Officer?

A

BC and Capt.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

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3
Q

How far away from aircraft to smoke?

A

No smoking within 50’ of the aircraft.

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4
Q

Furthermore, when remaining air supply in the SCBA cylinder reaches the __% to __% range a May-Day should be called if personnel are still inside an IDLH
atmosphere and will be unable to exit within 5 minutes.

A

18% to 15%

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5
Q

During training fire the span of control for interior operations shall not exceed how many recruits per Company officer?

A

the span of control for interior operations shall not exceed two recruits for each company or training officer.

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6
Q

Whenever there are _____ or more companies operating in a sector, the IC should assign a Battalion Chief and FIT to that sector.

A

three

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

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7
Q

During large haz-mat evacuations, the Red Cross will need how long to get adequate personnel, equipment and supplies to the shelter sites?

A

The Red Cross will need up to three hours to get adequate personnel, equipment and supplies to the shelter sites.

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8
Q

Attack on any flammable liquid fire should be made with ________ Foam when available. When the fuel
is ethanol, or ethanol based (E-10, E-85 or E-95), fire attack should utilize ______ foam.

A

Class B

AFFF

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9
Q

What can we use to decide a safe staging distance on a Haz-mat incident?

A

THE DOT GUIDEBOOK,
NFPA REFERENCE MATERIALS, the NIOSH POCKET GUIDE, OR ANY OTHER MATERIAL SUCH
AS MSDS OR SHIPPING PAPERS AVAILABLE TO THEM SHOULD BE USED TO ESTABLISH A
SAFE DISTANCE FOR STAGING.

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10
Q

Fire Investigators are authorized to write D.R.s for what causes?

A

Fire Investigators are authorized to write arson and reckless burning DRs only.

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11
Q

Both types of deployment 2 and 3 require the on-duty deputy to call in off-duty personnel; The main difference between type 2 and 3 emergency deployment is?

A

Activation of a Type 2 Emergency Deployment calls off-duty personnel in to staff brush trucks or other adjunct response apparatus.

Activation of a Type 3 Emergency Deployment calls off-duty personnel in to staff reserve apparatus.

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12
Q

Who must obtain PARs of all crewmembers of all

companies assigned to his/her sector/division/group.

A

Sector Officers Division/Group Supervisors

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13
Q

Min size hoseline for car fire?

A

The minimum size of hoseline is the 1-1/2” handline.

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14
Q

The only way to guarantee a successful outcome of a Mayday situation is to?

A

PREVENT IT!

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15
Q

What is needed after a change in strategy?

A
A PAR (Personnel Accountability Report) shall be obtained after
any switch from offensive to defensive strategy.
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16
Q

Exposure of spectators/control of spectators in FG Factors is under what factor?

A

LIFE HAZARD

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

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17
Q

Who assumes the “secondary” 2 in 2 out position?

A

the engineer assumes the secondary 2 in / 2 out position.

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18
Q

If staged companies observe critical tactical needs, they will:

A

advise Command of such critical conditions and their actions.

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19
Q

The initial Roof Sector Officer must report to Command the following conditions:

a. Roof design and construction (flat, peaked, bowstring, etc.)
b. Structural conditions
c. _______________
d. Locations of fire walls
e. Locations of heavy objects that are affected by fire conditions
f. Ventilation plan

A

C. Fire conditions or effects of fire on roof

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20
Q

Who can act as victims during a training fire?

A

No personnel shall be permitted to act as a victim(s) during live training fires.

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21
Q

For Unified Command using what will allow other agencies to find key persons at the incident?

A

Use of the fire department sector vests and Command Officer vests

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22
Q

During heat stress management time of year, IC’s are responsible for monitoring and managing:

Assign companies to Rehab Sector/Division/Group as needed or requested (companies shall remain
in rehab for a minimum of __ minutes)

A

20

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23
Q

If conditions permit, a companies work cycle

could be up to _ to _ air cylinders.

A

2-3

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24
Q

During evacuation some citizens may refuse to leave. A few methods of persuasion to leave include:

A
  • Be in uniform.
  • Wear your helmet.
  • Wear SCBA and facepiece (air hose may not need to be connected) when advising the citizen to leave.
  • Ask for next of kin and a phone number.
  • Write the next of kin information down.
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25
The officer in charge is responsible for complying with the conditions stated on the Training Academy burn permit. This includes burning only when?
only during the months and hours specified on the permit.
26
Who will assume safety sector responsibilities for that sector/division/group, which includes accountability?
FIT
27
These are just as important as the tactical priorities and is critical to the success and positive outcome of an incident.
umbrella of service TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A
28
The Hot Zone will be defined as:
any area that requires an: - SCBA, - charged hoseline, - special protective clothing, - Fire fighting Personnel are at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure.
29
During heat stress management time of year, Company Officers are responsible for monitoring and managing: Work/rest cycles, request a relief company and assignment to rehab after crew has consumed ___ bottles of air
two
30
The four primary areas of concern for incidents | involving flammable liquids are?
``` -extinguishment of flammable liquid fires -spills without fire -disposal -firefighter safety. ```
31
Small adults or young children should not ride in any rescue cab with what installed ?
airbags
32
Who obtains personal accountability reports (PAR) from Sector Officers/Division/Group Supervisors and crews.
Command (in the strategic mode)
33
Regardless of hospital diversion status, critical patients will always be triaged where?
Closest appropriate emergency department
34
Companies should respond to their move-up assignment in what status?
“out of service” status
35
ATTACK HOSE LINE CHOICE | The objective of the attack hose line choice is to provide: .
-enough GPM flow to overcome the volume of fire being produced -or an adequate flow to effectively cool and protect exposures
36
During the initial deployment of the first in company, the only radio communications with regards to 2 in / 2 out that are necessary is when the 2 in / 2 out standard is:
not met.
37
This form of information management generally involves Command making a specific assignment and then receiving an information-oriented report.
Reconnaissance Factors Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02
38
``` What are the seven fireground factors? F O O B R A L ```
``` Building Fire Occupancy Life hazard Arrangement Resources Other factors/conditions ``` Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02
39
Where immediate and rapid evacuation makes door-to-door notification impossible, use what notification methods:
1. Use three (3) five-second blasts of the siren while on the "YELP" setting 2. Follow with the standard evacuation instruction over PA system (see instructions above) 3. Use maximum volume on PA system 4. Proceed slowly to maximize notification 5. Initiate notification at the beginning of each block and each 50 yards after that
40
Emergency Deployment will be activated at the direction of _________________ the in conjunction with Alarm Room Headquarters (AHQ)
on-duty Operations Deputy Chief (i.e., | Shift Commander, District Commander, etc.)
41
Customer valuables such as photo albums, video and audio tapes, clothing and other keepsakes found in closets need to be carefully:
wrapped and placed in boxes.
42
The use of the accountability system will commence as:
the first unit arrives on the scene.
43
The Phoenix Police Air Unit has the | ability to put ___ Bambi Buckets in service
two
44
The following are considered “______ ___” helicopters operations: 1. External load (slingloads, longlines, water bucket, etc.) 2. Hover sites (low-level hovering) 3. Helicopter rappelling (insertions and extraction’s) 4. Flights conducted below 500 feet above ground level (AGL) 5. Helicopter operations around a fire perimeter 6. Single skid landings 7. Any takeoff or landing requiring special pilot technique due to terrain, obstacles, or surface condition.
Special Use
45
Going beyond our standard quick, effective, professional, customer service to create a feeling that the customer was the most important person we served all day. Defines What?
Added value CUSTOMER SERVICE MANAGEMENT M.P. 201.00
46
The intent of what policy is to avoid any respiratory contact with products of combustion, super heated gases, toxic products or other hazardous contaminants.
S.C.B.A. policy
47
While the helicopter is on the ground, whether running or not, a "tail guard" shall be stationed ___ to ____ feet from the tail rotor to keep the area secured. At no time shall personnel pass _______ the body of the helicopter and the tail rotor.
50 to 100 behind
48
What Emergency Deployment will require the on-duty Operations Deputy Chief or designee to call off-duty personnel in to staff reserve apparatus?
TYPE 3 EMERGENCY DEPLOYMENT
49
Water rescue personnel shall be assigned upstream to:
advise Rescue Sector of any upstream hazards that may affect the rescue operation.
50
A Rehab truck will be dispatched:
- on all First Alarm and greater incidents | - heat stress advisory is in effect.
51
Start cones at 160 feet for what road speed?
60 mph
52
When Lobby Sector is established all personnel entering the building or area must ______ ______ ______ ______ before reporting to any other sector or assignment.
report to Lobby Sector
53
In other situations, where immediate and rapid evacuation makes door-to-door notification impossible, use the following notification method: • Use __ five-second blasts of the siren while on the "YELP" setting.
3 Other considerations: * Followed by the standard evacuation instruction over PA system (see instructions above) * Use maximum volume on PA system. * Proceed slowly to maximize notification. * Initiate notification at the beginning of each block and each 50 yards after that.
54
It was discovered that once the low air alarm of an SCBA is activated, a firefighter can crawl approximately ___ feet until their air supply is exhausted.
150'
55
Two separate water supplies shall be established during training fires. Water supply for the forward pumper shall be a minimum of:
500gpm
56
The tactical level of every incident has the responsibility to actively and routinely work toward Mayday prevention and preparedness. What tandem best manages the tactical level responsibilities?
The Battalion Chief and F.I.T. or I.S.O. tandem best manages these responsibilities.
57
For a mountain rescue, the rescuers shall be “on-rope” and ______ when operating near an edge.
“tied-in”
58
A personnel accountability report will be required for the following situations:
* Any report of a missing or trapped fire fighter * Any change from offensive to defensive * Any sudden hazardous event at the incident - flash over, back draft, collapse, May Day, etc. * As companies report an all clear. * As companies report under control. * At every 30 minutes of elapsed time. * Any time Command feels it is necessary.
59
-Integrating a daily SCBA check into the crew routine -Practicing crew communication in the hazard zone -Rover integration into crew o Individual rovers are responsible to ask if not explicitly discussed at the beginning of a shift -Maintaining knowledge of portable radios and practicing their use -Ensuring Company Officer responsibilities and expectations are clear to the entire crew -Practicing and maintaining crew integrity/accountability -Instilling the standard that firefighters should always stay on a hoseline All of these define who's responsibility for mayday Prevention?
Company Officer responsibility for Mayday preventions include:
60
Triage tags should be used any time there are:
three (3) or more IMMEDIATE patients or more than ten (10) patients.
61
Who can fill the role of senior advisor on the Command team (incident advisory team)?
Shift Commanders; The first arriving Shift Commander (North, South, East or West Deputy) usually fills the role of the Senior Advisor. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
62
Tactical objectives for fires involving high piled outside combustible storage include:
1. Firefighter Safety 2. Exposure Protection 3. Environmental Protection (including public health) 4. Fire Control
63
BUOY WALL SET UP The engine company assigned to the landing zone sector will assist the water tender driver with set up and filling the buoy wall tank. Start filling the tank slowly after approximately one foot of water is in the tank the flow rate can be increased. Foam concentrate can be added to the tank when it is about one foot from the top. NOTE: Apparatus must be kept at least ____' to the side of the flight path of helicopters dipping the tank.
150'
64
An ________ ___________ is defined as a forward and isolated zone where law enforcement officers are in tactical positions with protective gear and weapons engaged and their primary purpose is mitigating a hostile and/or violent incident or suspect. Fire department defines this as the hot zone.
inner perimeter
65
If the incident is within one mile of the station Companies should consider Level 2 staging in quarters. Response time should also be a consideration. If the scene is further than one mile, companies should stage:
in a location that allows them to reach the scene within a reasonable amount of time.
66
The effective management of each fireground factor requires Command to apply a somewhat different form of information management to each factor. What are the three forms of information management?
visual recon preplan Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02
67
Atmospheric monitoring during a confined space rescue shall be done continuously and readings shall be communicated to Rescue Sector at least every __ minutes.
5
68
Phoenix transit buses if needed will be dispatched to what location on large scale medical incidents?
Dispatch Phoenix Transit buses to the Level 2 staging area.
69
The most likely assignments for On Deck companies are:
* Reinforce a position within an assigned sector * Crew relief within an assigned sector * Any other tactical position assigned by the IC * Rapid intervention crew
70
When operating around a high-rise building where the potential hazards of falling glass and debris exist, a fireground perimeter shall be established ____' from the building and shall be observed by all Fire personnel as a high hazard area.
200'
71
A FD customer can be:
· The actual service recipient · Anyone who knows or is closely related to the service recipient (e.g., family, friends, neighbors, etc.) · The people we encounter, directly and indirectly during our workday (e.g., members of organizations we routinely do business with, people who visit our workplace, people who see us during our workday, and people who see us on the road) · The members of our organization including support staff (our customer services begin with how we treat each other) CUSTOMER SERVICE MANAGEMENT M.P. 201.00
72
What Emergency Deployment will require the on-duty Operations Deputy Chief to call off-duty personnel in to staff brush trucks or other adjunct response apparatus?
TYPE 2 EMERGENCY DEPLOYMENT
73
who is responsible to stay with his/her crew at all times.
Firefighters
74
The most urgent reason for calling additional alarms is for the purpose of:
covering life safety.
75
________ ________ is intended to significantly increase the number of available emergency response resources.
Emergency Deployment
76
A fire at what type of facility requires the State Fire Marshal to be contacted?
Any fire at a school facility requires the State Fire Marshall to be contacted.
77
__________ ______ is described as notifying command of low-air alarm activation and immediately exiting the IDLH atmosphere intact as a crew and notifying command that you are out with a PAR after exiting.
Immediate action
78
A _________ attack is the fastest control evolution available to counteract wildfire spread
direct water
79
one salvage cover can accommodate how many patients?
One salvage cover provides ample | working room for up to three patients.
80
During aircraft fires, if emergency evacuation is in progress, assist evacuation of passengers and/or provide them a path of egress, by discharging _____ foam only, from apparatus.
Class B
81
Physical fitness and mental preparedness are under what area of the umbrella of service?
Firefighter safety TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A
82
This evacuation level of evacuation involves a small number of citizens. This typically includes workers at the site and people from adjacent occupancies or areas and lasts for less than an hour or two.
SITE EVACUATION
83
Who is responsible for the safety of ALL vehicle operations and managing compliance of this procedure?
The officer in charge or driver of the vehicle
84
Aircraft emergencies are broken down into three categories: Alert 1, Alert 2, and Alert 3. What alert Indicates an aircraft is having minor difficulties?
Alert 1: Indicates an aircraft is having minor difficulties (i.e., a minor oil leak; one engine out on a three or four-engine commercial aircraft or one engine out on a two-engine general aviation aircraft; fire warning lights; etc.) A safe landing is expected.
85
Victims buried by a trench collapse or under water for ___ minutes or more, would be unlikely to survive therefore an extremely cautious and a well-planned, safe, recovery operation is required.
10
86
Alert 2 will dispatch what unit(s)?
Alert 2: - two (2) engine companies (one A.L.S.), - one (1) ladder - one (1) brush truck - one (1) Battalion Chief.
87
The Decontamination Sector Officer is responsible for determining the most appropriate decontamination procedures and managing the decontamination process. This should be done in conjunction with advice from the:
Poison Control Center.
88
What additional information shall be relayed to responding units after dispatch to a haz-mat incident? .
-SAFEST APPROACH OR BEST ACCESS TO THE INCIDENT IF AVAILABLE
89
Who assumes responsibility for the effectiveness of their fire streams?
Company Officers and Sector Officers must assume responsibility for the effectiveness of their fire streams
90
For residential fires where the occupant has suffered a loss of living quarters and clothing, what may be used to provide support?
the American Red Cross
91
Strategic Level, Tactical Level, or Task Level is responsible for determining the appropriate strategy?
Strategic mode COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
92
The first, second and third priorities in defensive strategy are?
The first priority in defensive operations is personnel safety; The second is exposure protection. The next priority may be to knock down the main body of fire.
93
Any “Special Use” of helicopters during rescue operations will require a _______ ______ Sector to be established by Command.
Technical Rescue
94
Rescuing pets or animals during an incident should take the same priority as:
any loss control activity.
95
Fleet Management provides 24-hour service to maintain apparatus and equipment and to meet emergency needs of the Department. This service is maintained by _______ Fire Engineers working a 56-hour week.
three
96
Incidents at what locations present a major potential for flammable liquid spills, fires or hazardous materials incidents?
Freeway
97
For a freeway "Unified Command" what are the key agencies?
Key agencies at this Command Post will be: -fire department -Arizona Department of Public Safety (DPS) -Arizona Department of Transportation (ADOT) -and if freeway traffic is being diverted to city streets, the appropriate city police will need
98
Who provides the beginning of the Incident Safety Officer System (ISOS) and insures that firefighter safety is a priority upon arrival of the first unit?
This initial company officer as the IC/ISO
99
Customer service management defines that, our mission and number one priority is to:
deliver the best customer service possible. CUSTOMER SERVICE MANAGEMENT M.P. 201.00
100
List the specific FG factors listed under "Fire"
1. Size 2. Extent (% of structure involved) 3. Location 4. Stage (inception, free-burning, flashover) 5. Direction of travel (most dangerous) 6. Time of involvement 7. Type and amount of material involved (structure/interior finish/contents) 8. Type and amount of material left to burn 9. Product of combustion Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02
101
The objective in positive pressure for exposure control is?
The objective is to introduce PPV ahead of a moving fire and force it back into the fire area. An exit point in the fire area is needed in most cases.
102
What is a Command post consisting of more than | one agency called?
"Unified Command"
103
All crews entering a high rise fire shall bring a min of 1 spare ________.
SCBA bottle
104
A "follow up report" contains:
1. Any immediate safety concerns 2. Accountability started (announce the initial accountability location) 3. Disposition of resources (hold/add/return) 4. IRIC - in place and identify COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
105
There are two types of aircraft crashes:
1. High Impact | 2. Low Impact
106
For extrication sector a reasonable guideline is an initial commitment of one company per ____ victims.
five (5)
107
The benchmark of completion for the tactical priority fire control is:
"under control" TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A
108
HELICOPTER SAFETY FACTORS | Stage patients waiting to be loaded at least ___ feet away. Secure sheets and blankets and cover eyes during landing.
150'
109
In the City of Phoenix, a high-rise building is defined as:
6 elevator stops or greater or 75 feet in height or greater.
110
NFPA _____ Standard defines mayday readiness as the ability to “don, doff and manipulate the SCBA in zero visibility while wearing firefighting gloves.”
1500
111
Objectives assigned to Sectors (Divisions or Groups) are under which level of command?
Tactical level COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
112
The mission of PD operations at violent incidents is to mitigate and/or eliminate the threat. Fire Department personnel must initiate and maintain effective communications with PD throughout the incident.__________ is an excellent resource for effective communications and planning.
TLO/C958
113
Who will normally be responsible for clean-up operations at a radiological release?
Shippers and/or manufacturers of radiological materials will normally be responsible for clean-up operations
114
For a fire at a clandestine drug laboratory, what mode may be appropriate to take?
A defensive mode may be appropriate for personnel safety.
115
What is the designation for a helicopter operating under the direction of the Phoenix Fire Department?
Firebird
116
When branches are established Sector officers will use the radio designation of ________ when contacting their Branch Officer.
Command COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
117
Roof sector should be established for what reasons?
Command should establish a Roof Sector during offensive fire operations to evaluate roof conditions and to complete roof ventilation.
118
The term _____&_______ should be used when structuring a primary search over the radio;
"SEARCH & RESCUE"
119
If the extraction team is threatened or comes under fire, do what?
follow law enforcement leads
120
All other units will stage in their direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately one block from the scene until assigned by Command; the staged position should provide what tactical options?
A position providing a maximum of possible tactical options | regarding access, direction of travel, water supply, etc., should be selected.
121
What type of mercury release is exempt from cleanup requirements?
The Arizona Department of Environmental Quality has determined that a mercury release that occurs in a residence, including the interior of apartments, is household hazardous waste. As a result, the release is exempt from cleanup requirements.
122
What is a conscious process involving the very rapid but deliberate consideration of the critical factors, the development of a strategy and a rational plan of attack based on those conditions.
Size-up Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02
123
What may be called to the scene to provide cooling or shelter?
city buses
124
The benchmark of completion for the tactical priority property conservation is:
"loss stopped" TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A
125
Most flammable liquid incidents involve Fire Code violations. Have the Dispatch Center dispatch ________ to investigate this aspect of the incident and take appropriate action.
Car 99
126
When Fire Control is the principle objective, what conditions must be considered?
1. Fire extent 2. Structural conditions 3. Entry capability 4. Ventilation profile 5. Rescue profile of occupants 6. Resources profile Fire Control M.P. 202.04
127
Alert 1 and Alert 2 incidents all companies shall respond to the Glendale Control Tower at gate #___
9
128
Command should consider adding a command officer to any sector with ______ or more operating companies.
three COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
129
The benchmark of completion for the tactical priority rescue is:
"All clear" TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A
130
Activation of a Type ___ Emergency Deployment will automatically modify response requirements for all non-EMS incidents
1
131
During heat stress management time of year, what additional units will be dispatched to a WF?
Dispatch and Deployment shall provide an additional ALS Engine Company and Rehab Unit to any working fire incidents.
132
The three tactical priorities are?
Rescue Fire Control Property Conservation TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A
133
How far back from the entry point should PPV fans be positioned?
12'-15'
134
In cases of a fatal tree rescue, consider leaving what on-scene?
In cases of a fatality, consider leaving everything in place until the investigative process has been completed.
135
What are adaptive response units?
-(Move Up) The Adaptive Response Engine Company Program provides additional engine companies in the dispatch system. These companies should be considered for use as substitutes for companies which are out of service for extended periods of time due to training, maintenance, emergency incidents or other approved company activities.
136
What emergency deployment type will automatically modify response requirements for all non-EMS incidents?
TYPE 1 EMERGENCY DEPLOYMENT
137
“In Transit” is the time it takes for a company to reach their assignment area after receiving an order. It often varies due to:
* Distance between staging and the incident * Size of the incident perimeter * Amount of equipment the company needs to assemble
138
To review, and revise (as needed) the strategy to keep the IAP current defines what function of command?
7. Seven COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
139
spectators, vehicle traffic (including emergency vehicles) and animals must be kept a minimum of ____' away from the landing zone
200'
140
What safety intervention approach is the most frequent type of interaction?
The second approach: is for non-life threatening situations and involves a more "one on one" correction of safety problems with individual firefighters, company officers, and/or sector officers
141
When using stairs to ascend, crews must collectively check their air supply every __ floors, managed by the captain
5
142
When a move-up requires a company to leave their city (ie: Glendale), who gets notified?
the appropriate Shift Commander should be notified.
143
The activities required to stop or reduce primary or secondary damage to property is what tactical priority?
Property Conservation TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A
144
If ladder crews cannot get on the roof to ventilate because of fire conditions/roof profile, Command should consider this a _______ situation.
marginal
145
During a car fire, when rescue is not a factor, first water should be applied for several seconds to:
extinguish fire or cool down the area around any fuel tanks or fuel systems
146
On Deck crews must remain intact, in a ready state and monitor the tactical channel at all times. On deck crews must also size up the area that they are assigned to, this size up should include:
* Locating the structures entrance/exit points in their assigned area * Interior and exterior conditions * Unit ID of crews operating inside the structure * Approximate location of interior crews * Identify which crews are operating each hose line
147
When persons disobey or interfere with a firefighter at a fire scene, they may be:
arrested, if necessary, in aggravated cases prosecuted
148
Deploy an attack line to the aircraft’s interior, without inhibiting passenger egress. Fire intensity will require the use of ____" or __" hand-lines, utilizing ___ patterns.
1-3/4" or 2" fog
149
To reduce risk, and assist with scene management, training fire participants shall be formed into individual companies consisting of no more than _____ members and supervised by a company officer.
four (4)
150
What is one of the most important reasons to assign | companies to On-Deck positions?
The ability to respond quickly to a May-Day situation is one of the most important reasons to assign companies to On-Deck positions.
151
Of all the medical sectors, which one typically requires the heaviest commitment of personnel?
Treatment Sector
152
The use of class __ foam in firefighting is another method of reducing water damage.
A
153
Who is responsible for compliance with this procedure and the safe backing of the apparatus?
The company officer is responsible for compliance with this procedure and the safe backing of the apparatus.
154
Some roles of the FIT/ISO as a Sector Safety Officer (partnered with BC) are?
• Perform Sector Safety Officer function/role • Assess safety concerns within sector • Assist the BC with managing the sector (stay together) • Manage accountability within the sector (hose tags too) • Provide air management within the sector • Manage work/rest cycles within the sector • Manage the sector’s On-Deck crews recycle and rehab • Establish communications with Safety Section (you will call them ‘Command’) once the IC has established the position and assigned a Safety Channel • Coordinate with other sector safety officers COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
155
Any emergency situation that threatens life, safety, or property. Defines?
An incident
156
Heat stress management is implemented effective of _______ to __________ each year or at the discretion of who?
June 1st to September 30th | on-duty Shift Commander
157
There are three types of mercury; the two most common types are:
elemental and inorganic mercury.
158
Bumper assemblies have been known to travel ___ feet
25
159
Water rescue personnel shall be assigned downstream to use:
throw bags to capture rescue personnel or victim(s) that may be washed downstream.
160
Who is responsible for the completion of the tactical objectives?
The Incident Commander COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
161
After what brush assignment will a brush fire be declared wildland and receive appropriate additional resources?
Any WORKING FIRST ALARM BRUSH assignment or greater will be deemed a wildland fire and receive appropriate additional resources.
162
The remaining 25% of the air supply is the:
emergency reserve to be used only in the event an emergency occurs while exiting such as becoming lost, trapped, or entangled upon exiting the hazard zone.
163
What actions taken at a haz-mat incident affects the outcome more than any other single factor?
The ACTIONS taken by command in the FIRST FEW minutes of an incident affects the outcome more than any other single factor.
164
Helicopter operations are considered high-risk and shall be decided upon through consultation with who?
- Rescue Sector - Safety - Command - Technical Advisor.
165
A "mass casualty incident” is defined as any incident involving ___ to ___ patients.
25 to 100
166
When a fire department Rescue is responding to an "emergency" and will have a response time exceeding ___ minutes, the Dispatcher will contact the private ambulance companies and determine if they have a closer unit.
20
167
During heat stress management time of year, IC's are responsible for monitoring and managing: Utilize the practice of first company in, _____ _____
first company out routine
168
A hazardous material incident has two initial zones associated with the scene, similar to a fire. There are:
the LIMITED ACCESS ZONE and the EVACUATION ZONE.
169
Divisions are always going to be assigned by their:
Divisions are assigned by their geographic location (North Division).
170
Who best functions as a liaison with law enforcement agencies?
TLO/C958 Captains
171
The basic configuration of Command includes three levels:
Strategic Level - Overall direction of the incident. Tactical Level - Objectives assigned to Sectors (Divisions or Groups) Task Level - Task objectives assigned to Companies. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
172
The following considerations may be used to refuse an escort in a rescue when transporting a patient to an emergency department:
- Infectious Exposures - Contamination - Danger to Rescue Driver or Patient
173
In what event is the 2 in / 2 | out procedure is not required?
initial company arrives on-scene of a fire in the incipient stages
174
BLS nature codes will be dispatched without what?
BLS Nature Codes will be dispatched without a C2 or C3 | response flag.
175
Transportation sector should initiate medical facility | inventory by contacting the Dispatch Center on _____ early during the incident
Med-9
176
In the event of contamination to clothes during a mercury release; do NOT put the clothes in what type of bag?
DO NOT USE BIOHAZARD BAGS BECAUSE THE CONTRACTORS CANNOT ACCEPT IT; THERE ARE DIFFERENT FEDERALLY MANDATED DISPOSAL REQUIREMENTS THAT MUST BE COMPLIED WITH RELATING TO MERCURY AND BIOHAZARDOUS WASTE.
177
When operating in a defensive strategy, operating positions should be:
as far from the involved area as | possible while still remaining effective.
178
Benchmarks for PACAN reports are:
- 10 minute elapsed time on air - all clear - fire control - lost stopped
179
Positive pressure ventilation is effective only when applied properly. Two major items are required:
1. An "exit" for the pressurized air must be provided and must be located in the fire area. This is generally a window, door or other opening. 2. Positive pressure ventilation must be injected from the unburned side of the fire. I
180
What is a conscious process involving the very rapid but deliberate consideration of the critical factors, the development of a strategy and a rational plan of attack based on those conditions?
Size up
181
if responding code 2 AOI for longer than ___ minutes, the unit will be placed _________.
If a unit is responding longer than ten (10) minutes on an AOI call, CAD will automatically place the unit in the Unavailable On Incident (UOI) status,
182
Who can fill the role of Senior Advisor (Incident Advisor) during first and greater alarm incidents?
Shift Commanders Phoenix (North and South Deputy), Glendale (West Deputy) and Mesa (East Deputy) COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
183
A critical aspect of extrication is:
triage.
184
This position functions as the Incident | Safety Officer in the ISOS until command van operations are commenced and a Safety Officer is assigned.
Support Officer
185
a primary search must be completed where?
The Incident Commander shall direct a primary search in all involved and exposed occupancies which can be entered.
186
What is the minimum level of protection required for everyone working the tire fire?
Full turnout gear is the minimum level of protection required for everyone working the tire fire.
187
Fire load (size, nature) in FG Factors is under what factor?
OCCUPANCY Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02
188
What fire present the same potential threat to the environment that an incident involving an oil tanker or a railroad tank car carrying hazardous substances.
Tire fires
189
Capability and willingness of personnel in FG Factors is under what factor?
RESOURCES Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02
190
The tactical benchmark for the end point of a Mayday is what?
“Mayday resolved”.
191
ALL PERSONNEL ENTERING THE HOT ZONE SHALL:
* WEAR FULL TURNOUTS * HAVE CREW INTACT * BE ASSIGNED TO A SECTOR
192
Most dangerous direction (avenue of spread) in FG Factors is under what factor?
ARRANGEMENT Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02
193
What procedures are designed to ensure a seamless transition from a Type 5/4 incident to a Type 3/2/1 (NIMS).
COMMAND PROCEDURES | M.P. 201.01
194
All reserve apparatus during type 3 emer. deployment will place themselves in an ____ status if not assigned to a call.
UNV
195
Securing" the fire scene is a function of:
loss control.
196
What sector is responsible for having the immediate area checked for equipment which may have been left at the scene upon termination of the incident.
Resource
197
What is used to facilitate the completion of the Tactical Objectives?
Incident Command System COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
198
The Incident Commander must consider the following factors in developing a basic rescue size-up:
* Number, location and condition of victims * Affect the fire has on the victims * Capability of the control forces to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control fire
199
Units may operate without SCBA protection if the CO is lower than what PPM?
CO Below 50ppm (CO): Level of carbon monoxide is below 50 parts per million, units may operate without SCBA protection.
200
Formal departmental critiques will be conducted at the discretion of the _______ ________ Chief.
Tactical Services
201
________ gloves under the leather gloves will give added protection from contact with the contaminated water, oil, and mud.
Surgical
202
The primary use of the TIC for the fire department is for:
conducting search/rescue and crew accountability tasks.
203
When a command officer is assigned Sector responsibilities the ________ becomes the Sector Safety Officer.
FIT/ISO COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
204
Who can fill the role of support officer on the incident advisory team (command team) ?
BSO, ISO, FIT or next arriving command officer COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
205
The umbrella of service is made up of three ongoing | considerations. They are:
fire fighter safety, customer service, and Loss Control. TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A
206
In treatment sector, yellow salvage covers can also be used to identify the care areas for what patients?
delayed patients
207
When would passing CMD to the next on-scene unit be advisable?
This is indicated when the initial commitment of the first arriving Company requires a full crew (i.e., high-rise or an immediate rescue situation) and another Company or Command Officer is on the scene. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
208
If three (3) large scale incidents are working simultaneously, each incident may use ____% of Automatic Aid resources.
twenty-five percent(25%)
209
min gpm of training fire backup line?
95gpm
210
Level 1 staging and any non essential civilians should | be at least ___ feet from the collapse area at a trench failure.
150
211
A second supply line should be considered on any working incident. Considerations include:
- alternate side of the fire - commercial buildings - large volume of fire
212
Extending WHEREVER POSSIBLE an aggressive well-placed and adequate offensive interior fire attack is what we do to:
attempt to stabilize fire conditions. Fire Control M.P. 202.04
213
Start cones at 105 feet for what road speed?
40 mph
214
What list should provide Command with a "checklist" of the basic items that are involved in size-up, decision-making, initiating action, review and revision on the fireground.
Fireground factors Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02
215
Sectors may be assigned by their geographic location (North Sector) or function (Ventilation Sector). Groups are assigned by their:
function (Ventilation Group). COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
216
The on-going responsibility that is not completed with benchmarks of completion are often referred to as the:
umbrella of service TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A
217
Failure to provide two supply lines will limit the ladder to about _____ GPM depending upon the length of the single line
1200
218
Accurate response codes will be displayed on the MCT, if no response code is designated, the response will be Code ___ unless directed by a company officer.
code 2
219
NESHAPs asbestos form must be filed with Maricopa County Department of Environmental Services, Air Quality Division at least _____ working days prior to the scheduled burn.
ten (10)
220
Critique should be limited to a maximum of ___ to ____ hours in duration if possible.
1 to 1-1/2 hours
221
__________ includes activities required to stop direct and indirect fire damage in addition to those required to minimize the effects of firefighting operations.
Salvage
222
Evacuation branch should have their own what?
A separate radio frequency should be used for the Evacuation Branch. This should be assigned as early in the incident as possible.
223
An evaluation of all members of the Operations Division in the use of the S.C.B.A. shall be conducted both _______ and _________
quarterly and annually
224
OSHA further defines an incipient stage fire as:
a “fire which is in the initial or beginning stage and which can be controlled or extinguished by portable fire extinguishers, Class II standpipe or small hose systems without the need for protective clothing or breathing apparatus.”
225
It is recommended that major tire fires be handled as:
hazardous materials incidents.
226
What presents the greatest potential for damage to evidence which may be used by the Fire Investigators and the Police Department in subsequent court cases and prosecution?
Fire fighting operations
227
Upon the initiation of a Mayday, the incident is upgraded using the Mayday nature code to? 3-1 to ? 1st to ?
1st alarm mayday | 2nd alarm mayday
228
The incident advisory team consists of:
Incident Commander (IC), Support Officer, and Senior Advisor. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
229
During heat stress management time of year, Company Officers are responsible for monitoring and managing: A minimum of ___ ounces __ quarts of fluid should be consumed during the 24 hour shift
64 ounces (2 quarts)
230
Standard Exceptions to the 2 in / 2 out Requirement at Structure Fires are?
1. When there is a reported or suspected life hazard where immediate action could prevent the loss of life. 2. When the fire is in an incipient stage
231
It is imperative that Command assign a _____ Sector as early as possible during marginal situations.
Roof
232
During a Haz-Mat incident what is our primary objective before formulating a plan of action?
The primary objective is to identify the type of materials involved in a situation, and the hazards presented, before formulating a plan of action.
233
On Deck crews will be supervised by:
either the Sector Officer or Company Officer and they will remain On Deck until assigned by the IC or Sector Officer.
234
Exterior attack directed to first reduce fire extension and then bring the fire under control. Defines what strategy?
Defensive Strategy Fire Control M.P. 202.04
235
A Limited Access Zone shall be established and maintained around any suspected gas leak and ________ tape should be used to identify the Limited Access Zone when necessary.
"fire line"
236
The basic variables relating to attack operations involve:
· Location/position of attack · Size of attack · Support functions
237
Who is responsible for insuring that the fire area has been thoroughly overhauled.
The IC
238
The first arriving response command officer (usually a Battalion Chief), following standard transfer of Command procedures will assume Command and becomes the IC. Who becomes the support officer and assumes the responsibilities of the Incident Safety Officer.
The FIT assigned to the IC
239
"anytime the breathing apparatus being used cannot deliver air to the user as designed; whether by mechanical failure or if the individual has consumed the air supply beyond the designed work cycle, or an individual becomes lost or trapped within an IDHL environment regardless of air supply". What does this define?
Air emergency
240
The third type of mercury and the least common is:
Organic Mercury
241
All companies responding to staging will stay off the air, respond directly to the designated Staging Area, and the Company Officer will report in person to:
the Staging Officer.
242
The maximum number of Sectors that an IC can effectively manage is called the span of control. The span of control is usually ____ sectors and should never exceed _____ sectors.
five, seven COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
243
Who shall receive a walk through briefing of the building prior to each training fire?
All personnel involved in the drill shall be instructed on each element of the attack plan prior to igniting the structure and shall receive a walk through briefing of the building prior to each training fire.
244
In addition to violent incident objectives, the EMS tactical objectives to be completed during any multi-patient/mass casualty incident include:
1. Completion of a “Triage Report” | 2. Declaration of “All IMMEDIATES Transported”
245
When laddering a roof, the ladder selected shall be one which will extend ___'-___' above the roof line.
2' - 3'
246
Fires cannot be considered under control until what is addressed?
all seven sides are addressed.
247
Should anything become unsafe during the | approach of any helicopter during landing operations instruct the pilot to:
GO AROUND three times.
248
Initial ___% of SCBA air is "working and exiting air"
75%
249
The tactical priorities are considered complete when:
These objectives are considered complete when the benchmarks are declared. TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A
250
Who has the ultimate responsibility for actively and continually providing for the prevention and response to a Mayday situation?
The Incident Command Team
251
The initial dispatch information is rarely complete. These situations evolve rapidly and it is necessary to assume that the information, which is initially received, will change. It is important to approach these incidents slowly and cautiously. Over-committing, prior to evaluation, can pose significant danger to firefighters. What incidents are these?
Violent incidents
252
The hot zone will be defined as:
any area that requires the use of an SCBA.
253
The landing zone must be relatively flat and free of obstructions for an area of at least ____ x ____ for each helicopter.
100' x 100'
254
Building a _________ __________is the best support mechanism the Incident Commander can utilize to achieve a balance between managing personnel and incident needs.
Command organization COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
255
Provide and manage a steady, adequate, and timely stream of appropriate resources defines what function of command?
fourth function of command COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
256
A “disaster” is defined as any incidents involving more than ___ patients.
100
257
Drawbacks to the drown it strategy during tire fires include:
• An increase in the toxic air emissions as the fire is cooled causing the combustion process to slow down
258
During the Arrival phase of a structural collapse incident, Command must do what to prevent the situation from quickly deteriorating into a chaotic event?
Command must take strong control of | the incident to prevent the situation from quickly deteriorating into a chaotic event.
259
What attack line is Slow, difficult to move, volume at 250 GPM?
2 1/2"
260
In treatment sector, Red salvage covers can also be used to identify the care areas for what patients?
immediate patients
261
What companies may be used as an improvised standpipe at car fire incidents on elevated freeways or parking garages?
Ladder companies
262
If a Chief Officer, member, or unit without tactical | capabilities (i.e. staff vehicle, no equipment, etc.) initiates Command what should be a top priority?
the establishment of a Command Post should be a top priority. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
263
When stopping a leak in a chlorine tank applying what can make the leak worse?
Do not apply water to chlorine containers - it will make the leak worse.
264
1. Identified all entrance/exit points 2. Control all access points when alternate entrances are present 3. Identify suitable entrance/exit point or location 4. Maintain full accountability 5. Record names, times and assignment of personnel 6. Collect all accountability tags 7. For High-rise buildings, normally Lobby Sector is the ground floor lobby area 8. Special Ops Incident: Define perimeter with HAZARD ZONE tape These are all responsibilities of:
Lobby sector
265
Emergency Deployment will be activated at the direction of the:
on-duty Operations Deputy Chief (i.e., Shift Commander, District Commander, etc.) in conjunction with Alarm Room Headquarters (AHQ)
266
Activation of each Type of Emergency Deployment will activate a system wide __________ page so that all jurisdictions within the Automatic Aid System are aware of high activity levels and potential impact to individual jurisdictions
Qpage/phone also MCT message and station package announcement
267
A Battalion Chief along with his FIT should be placed in each sector to insure the actions of crews working within the sector accomplish the tactical objectives. The FIT assumes the role of assistant safety officer while the BC focuses on _______ in the sector.
tactics
268
The Bambi Buckets can hold from ___ to ___ gallons of water, depending on air temperature and humidity and may be filled from a canal, buoy wall tank, or any other body of water that is available.
67 to 96
269
Who should be assigned "rescue sector" at a confined space rescue?
First arriving TRT unit that is staffed with a TRT Company Officer should be assigned Rescue Sector.
270
What may be employed as a rope to ascend or descend to the freeway proper?
A booster line or other hose line may be employed as a rope to ascend or descend to the freeway proper.
271
The Ultimate goal for any Mayday response is to:
successfully resolve the Mayday and at the same time not create any further Mayday situations
272
Companies assigned to On-Deck must prepare themselves to function as rescue crews by performing the following tasks/actions:
* Monitor tactical radio channel; * Retrieve RIC Bag and confirm contents; * Confirm TIC is in a ready state; * Determine which line each interior company is on—(hose tags); * Coordinate the opening of doors and windows; * Illuminate entrance/exits; * Develop and discuss a possible search and rescue plan.
273
Who shall have full authority to intervene and control or stop any aspect of the operations when in his/her judgment; a potential or real risk to personnel exists?
The Safety Officer
274
A sector below ground on an incident is termed?
Subsector COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
275
At larger medical incidents (more than ___ patients), the first arriving company officer should assume Command and assign Triage to the next arriving fire company.
10
276
If two (2) large scale incidents are working simultaneously, each incident may use(___%) of Automatic Aid resources
thirty-five percent (35%)
277
This form of intelligence (information management)involves the perceptive capability of Command.
Visual Factors Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02
278
The decision to return evacuees to their homes after evacuation will be the sole responsibility of the Fire Department ________ _________. If the EOC is operating, the decision to return evacuees will be made by the ____ _______.
Incident Commander EOC staff
279
What may enhance the visibility in a visibly diminished atmosphere, thus increasing fire fighter safety and survival, as well as improve the survival potential of our customers.
TIC
280
The purpose of the Decontamination Procedure is to assure that any potentially harmful or dangerous residues, on persons, equipment or apparatus, are confined within:
the Hot Zone.
281
Alert 3 will dispatch what unit(s)?
Alert 3: - two (2) engine companies (one A.L.S.) - one (1) ladder company - one (1) brush truck - one (1) utility truck - one (1) foam capability - one (1) Battalion Chief - Glendale shift commander.
282
Who assumes the "primary" 2 in 2 out position?
The plug person assumes the | primary 2 in / 2 out position
283
The "bury it" strategy for attacking tire fires is best employed in what situations?
The bury it strategy could be employed in areas that have minimal water supply or in areas that are densely populated.
284
Safety Intervention at scene operations involves three approaches?
1. First is for life threatening situations 2. Second is for non-life threatening situations 3.Third approach occurs in the on-going incident planning process
285
Once determined safe, an Offensive Fire Attack is centered around:
RESCUE.
286
The overall incident objectives for violent incidents are:
1. Firefighter safety 2. Life safety 3. Incident control.
287
In regards to LT response, a good rule to follow: when in doubt, request:
a Ladder company backup.
288
What define standard activities that are performed by the Incident Commander to achieve the Tactical Objectives.
The Functions of Command COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
289
Helicopters may be requested for transportation of personnel and/or equipment urgently needed at the scene of an emergency, particularly when _______ is a factor. The request for assistance should include the number of personnel and the weight and volume of equipment to be transported.
distance
290
If C957 or BC152 feels there is a need to enter the hot zone he/she must:
team up with the second C957
291
Aircraft emergencies are broken down into three categories: Alert 1, Alert 2, and Alert 3. What alert Indicates that an aircraft has crashed on or off the airport, or there is a high probability the aircraft will crash
Alert 3: Indicates that an aircraft has crashed on or off the airport, or there is a high probability the aircraft will crash, or the pilot has indicated that the landing gear will not work, and therefore, they will have to crash land on the airport.
292
For Cooling Containers--Flame Impingement Apply heavy streams to what part of the tank?
Apply heavy streams to the vapor space area above the tanks liquid line.
293
Any LIFE THREATENING conditions will be:
corrected immediately and directly.
294
(CALSSRC) is an Automatic Aid System is a consortium of governments (Cities, Towns, and Fire Districts) joined by an intergovernmental agreement upon which the participants agree to operationally act as one-entity for the purpose of improved fire/rescue/emergency medical services. What does (CALSSRC) stand for?
Central Arizona Life Safety System Response Council CUSTOMER SERVICE MANAGEMENT M.P. 201.00
295
What are the functions and sections of rehab?
``` Function A: Assessment Function B: Hydration and Replenishment Function C: Medical Treatment and Transport SECTION D: Documentation SECTION E: Reassignment ```
296
The fifth function of command is:
5. Identify the incident strategy, develop an Incident Action Plan (IAP), and assign companies and personnel consistent with plans and standard operating procedures. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
297
Compartmentation/separation in FG Factors is under what factor?
BUILDING Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02
298
It is the Responsibility of the ___ to perform the Functions of Command to achieve the Tactical Objectives.
IC
299
The average passenger car tire holds___ gallons of oil
2.5
300
The first three functions of command are:
1. Assume and announce Command and establish an effective initial command position (Command Post). 2. Rapidly evaluate the situation (size up). 3. Initiate, maintain, and control effective incident communications. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
301
Operate roof lines only for the purpose of:
protecting personnel and external exposures unless Command orders a coordinated roof attack.
302
Who can fill the role of IC on the command team?
Captains or BC's COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
303
For flammable liquid fires one 95 GPM class B foam line is needed for every ____ square feet of spill area.
600
304
Low-risk operations may not always be possible at tree rescue incidents, but should be considered first. The order of rescue from low-risk to high-risk are:
- Self-rescue. - Aerial Platform Ladder Truck. - Ground Ladders. - Climb the Tree.
305
During heat stress management time of year, Company Officers are responsible for monitoring and managing: ``` Cardiovascular activity (i.e., tennis, racquetball, running, etc.) shall be limited to a maximum of __ minutes ```
30
306
When large volume is needed, ____ feet in length will provide about ____GPM and would need to be pumped.
4 inch hose is limited to about 800 GPM at 500 feet in | length before it must be pumped by another engine at the hydrant.
307
_______ and _______ ________ are responsible to monitor the welfare of their personnel at all times and determine if sector recycling or a formal rehab is appropriate.
Sector & company officers
308
If a scene becomes violent, fire personnel are empowered to take appropriate actions to mitigate harm to crew and patient. This may include:
neutralizing the threat if necessary.
309
Important tactical considerations during tire fires include:
* Life safety * Protecting exposures * Isolating burning tires * Use of heavy equipment * Overhead or underground utilities
310
What color salvage covers can be used to identify the extrication Assembly Area?
Assembly Area." Green salvage covers can be used to identify this area
311
Accountability can be terminated when? at which time a ___ for all crews must be obtained.
following a report of "fire under control," PAR
312
Utilizing Sectors provides the following advantages: (5)
1. Reduces the IC’s span of control 2. Creates more effective incident scene communications 3. Provides a standard and logical system to divide large geographical incidents into effectively sized units 4. Provides an array major support functions 5. Improves firefighter safety COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
313
The decision to return evacuees to their homes will be the sole responsibility of the fire department ________ ___________ . If the EOC is operating, the decision to return evacuees will be made by the ____ _______.
Incident Commander EOC staff
314
The primary players in the Command Team are?
The primary players in the Command Team are the IC, Support Officer, and Senior Advisor. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
315
What tactical objective is ongoing through an incident?
Provide for the safety, accountability, and welfare of personnel. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
316
What hand lines may be used to protect | exposures from defensive positions outside of the collapse zone.
Large volume hand lines such as 2 ½ inch and 2 inch lines may be used to protect exposures from defensive positions outside of the collapse zone.
317
Command should abandon marginal attacks when:
1. A primary all clear is obtained and the situation is still marginal. 2. The roof is unsafe or untenable. Especially working fires in large unsupported or lightweight trussed attic spaces. 3. Interior forces encounter heavy heat and cannot locate the fire or cannot make any progress on the fire. 4. Heavy smoke is being forced from the building under pressure and is increasing.
318
Alert 1 will dispatch what unit(s)?
Alert 1: Response consists of one (1) Engine Company.
319
1. Search, rescue, and treatment 2. Ventilate 3. Forcible entry 4. Raise ladders 5. ____________/___________ 6. Utility control 7. Provide lighting 8. Operate ladder pipes (aerials and platforms only) 9. Perform overhaul 10. Extrication 11. _____ _______
5. Provide access/check fire extension | 11. Loss control
320
The tactical priorities listed in order are?
A. Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured. B. Stabilize the incident and provide for life safety. C. Conserve property. D. Provide for the safety, accountability, and welfare of personnel. This priority is ongoing throughout the incident. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
321
As an incident grows who has the responsibility to decide whether or not to expand the organization to include branches?
Senior Advisor has the responsibility to decide whether or not to expand the organization to include branches. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
322
PPE for tx. of a radiological pt. includes?
All treatment personnel should use SCBA or dust-filtering type masks, long sleeve shirts or coats, gloves and nomex hoods.
323
“multi-patient incident” is defined as any incident with fewer than ____ patients.
twenty (25)
324
The roles and responsibilities of the ________ Team are identical to the roles and responsibilities of the Incident Advisory Team.
command COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
325
Status 3 is an urgent message for ALL Rescues to:
return to service as quickly as possible.
326
The following sectors shall be established on all structural training fires. RIC (rescue)-must be manned by:
This sector will be manned by experienced firefighting personnel (not recruit firefighters) and each Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) shall consist of a minimum of three firefighters.
327
For stray uninjured animals and dangerous animals, who should you contact?
Maricopa County Animal Control
328
It is imperative that our incident command system utilize the same strategic decision making model for operations at violent incidents as it does for structural fire incidents. The strategic decision making model includes:
1. The identification of the incident’s critical factors 2. Selection of the appropriate risk management plan 3. Identification of strategy 4. Development of an Incident Action Plan (IAP) 5. Identification and completion of the incidents tactical objectives
329
The Incident Safety System is implemented any time:
the Phoenix Fire Department responds to an incident.
330
What sector serves as the liaison between the Fire Department and those citizens (responsible parties) directly, or perhaps indirectly involved in or affected by the incident?
Occupant services sector
331
Level II staging should be considered for:
- Greater alarms - first alarm medical - hazardous materials incidents
332
CALSSRC defines what as: | Any person who receives our services and anyone with who our members have dealings.
Customer CUSTOMER SERVICE MANAGEMENT M.P. 201.00
333
Aircraft emergencies are broken down into three categories: Alert 1, Alert 2, and Alert 3. What alert Indicates that an aircraft is having major difficulties?
Alert 2: Indicates that an aircraft is having major difficulties (i.e. a positive indication of fire on board the aircraft; faulty landing gear; no hydraulic pressure; engine failure on a two-engine large aircraft; etc.) A difficult or crash landing may be expected.
334
During a violent incident, the Alarm Room will be informed of the incident address or location and request a premises alert for a minimum of one-quarter (1/4) mile radius. This will allow:
1. PD evacuation zones and routes | 2. provide a buffer zone for active shooter scenarios
335
What is critical to address while building your Incident Action Plan on fires involving high piled outside combustible storage?
Water supply is critical (pumped water/reversing off forward pumper, relay operations, drafting operations)
336
Rescue efforts should be extended in the following order:
* Most severely threatened * The largest number (groups) * The remainder of the fire area * The exposed areas
337
The following sectors shall be established on all structural training fires. Rehab- Who is assigned to Rehab sector at Training fires?
All personnel not assigned to other sectors will be under the direction of Rehab.
338
The triage priority during a rapid extrication or | extraction event is to identify:
critical/viable patients.
339
On scene at incidents we will always operate within the ______ ______ ______ .
incident command system COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
340
Who may be assigned to Secure Utilities other than a truck or squad company?
C957 may be assigned
341
During a confined space rescue request _______ response if there has been a serious injury or death.
OSHA
342
The Fast-attack-mobile Command mode will end with one of the following:
A. Situation is stabilized. B. Command is transferred from the fast attack company officer IC to a later arriving command officer. C. If the situation is not stabilized, the fast attack company officer IC must move to an exterior (stationary) command position and is now in the Command mode. The company officer must decide whether or not to withdraw the remainder of the crew, based on the crew’s capabilities and experience, safety issues, and the ability to communicate with the crew. No crew will remain in a hazardous area without radio communications. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
343
Who has overall responsibility for the safety of responders working at an emergency scene?
IC
344
Shut down all heavy equipment and re-route non-essential traffic at least ___ feet from the collapse area at a trench rescue.
300
345
What attack line provides Fast, mobile, greater volume, 175 GPM?
1 3/4"
346
First due companies approaching the scene with any evidence of a working fire in a structure should lay their own supply line. Exceptions to this guideline may include:
* Obvious critical rescue requiring a full crew * Unsure of actual fire location in multi-unit building complex * Hydrant within fifty feet of the fire
347
If an animal is injured to such an extent that its life is in danger, at the discretion of the ranking fire department officer, the animal may be transported to a veterinarian for emergency care. The cost for this treatment will either be passed on to the owner, if the owner cannot be identified who pays?
ASPCA will pay for the treatment
348
For a mercury release we SHALL NOT ENTER THE REPORTED SPILL AREA, UNLESS FOR:
RESCUE OR TREATMENT
349
What three factors have a critical effect on the fire behavior of a wildland fire?
The factors are: WEATHER, FUEL, and TOPOGRAPHY.
350
What is initiated and utilized to assist in managing Command Mode - Stationary Command Post incidents?
The tactical worksheet shall be initiated and utilized to assist in managing these types of incidents. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
351
There is no greater time for a clear and concise utilization of the ____ _______ _______ than during a Mayday event
Risk Management System
352
When emergency vehicles must travel in center or oncoming traffic lanes, the maximum permissible speed shall be:
20 mph.
353
When an incident becomes so large that an Incident Management Team (IMT) is requested, Command will not transfer to the IMT (Type I/III) unless a formal written _________ __ __________has been signed by both the JHA and the IMT.
Delegation of Authority COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
354
In situations where the simultaneous arrival of first due companies happens, who determines who actually arrived first?
It will be the ongoing responsibility of Dispatch to confirm the arrival of the first on-scene unit.
355
Hazards associated with structural collapse include:
* Secondary collapse. * Explosion and fire. * Broken gas and water lines. * Energized electrical lines. * Falling debris.
356
Who will be responsible to see the passports are retrieved.
Both the Company Officer and Accountability Officer
357
Violent incidents involving medical patients should utilized standard Command Procedures and EMS responsibilities. Command is responsible for the completion of the tactical objectives. The general tactical objectives, listed in order of priority, are:
1. Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured. 2. Stabilize the incident and provide for life safety. 3. Ensure the functions of triage, extrication, treatment and transportation are established as needed and performed appropriately. 4. Provide for the safety, accountability and welfare of rescue personnel and victims. 5. Conserve property.
358
“Special Use” landing zones are technical by nature and shall be staffed by members of the ___________ at both the base and off-site landing zones.
Technical Rescue Team
359
OSHA states that “once fire fighters begin the interior attack on an interior structural fire, the atmosphere is assumed _______ and what standard applies?
IDLH | [two-in/two-out]
360
Requests for emergency transportation outside Phoenix must meet the following criteria prior to any response by a Phoenix Rescue:
• First, request to that city current C.O.N. holder • Second, request to an air transport C.O.N. holder* • Third, request to Phoenix Fire Department** **Patient must be unstable or patient condition would worsen as a result of an extended wait for an ambulance.
361
What safety intervention approach occurs in the on-going incident planning process?
The third approach occurs in the on-going incident planning process.
362
Each member of the Operations Division shall be accountable for one (1) S.C.B.A. and shall check the condition of that S.C.B.A. at the:
- beginning of each shift - after each use - and at any other time it may be necessary to render the equipment in a ready state of condition.
363
The first ___ functions of command must be addressed immediately from the initial assumption of Command.
six COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
364
Ventilation hole(s) of at least ___% of roof surface of the involved area is a rule of thumb to consider.
10%
365
Staging of Rescue companies off the freeway may be required. Rescues should be brought into the scene ___ or ____ at a time.
one or two
366
After dispatch, if the TRO receives no acknowledgement within one minute they will:
request acknowledgment by radio on all channels and via MCT.
367
The Phoenix Fire Department currently has four buoy wall tanks. Mesa Fire Department has one buoy wall. The buoy wall tanks will hold either 3,000 or 4,000 gallons of water.
3,000 or 4,000
368
In the "basic offensive fire plan" do you id critical factors or take command first?
1. Take Command 2. Identify critical fireground factors 3. Address 2 in / 2 out decision prior to entry 4. First line--fast, aggressive interior attack 5. Provide support activities (e.g., ventilation, forcible entry) 6. Do primary search 7. Second line--backup first/cover opposite side 8. Pumped water 9. Quickly evaluate success and react Fire Control M.P. 202.04
369
The first unit arriving on the scene of a multiple unit freeway incident will determine if the D.P.S. has established a ________ ____.
Command Post.
370
Salvage objectives are:
* Stop or reduce the source of damage | * Protect or remove contents
371
During heat stress management time of year, IC's are responsible for monitoring and managing: Consider the establishment of a ________ Sector/Division/Group on all working fires
Rehab
372
“Bump bags” are hose packs that consist of?
These hose packs consist of 1 ½” “trunk” line with a gated “y” and one or two 1” forestry hose lines with nozzle.
373
When there are no working incidents the who is responsible for initiating the ICS?
Alarm Room Battalion Chief and Supervisor share the responsibility of initiating the ICS. COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
374
Successful options for fighting a tire fire have been employed individually and in many cases, in combination with one another. Reduced to the lowest common denominator, these options are:
* Burn it * Bury it * Drown it
375
If we respond to a unsafe trench or excavation, personnel are not allowed where?
It shall be the policy of the Phoenix Fire Department | that NO personnel shall be allowed into an unsafe trench or excavation.
376
What is the critical factor in a primary search?
Time is the critical factor in the primary search process
377
What is one of the most commonly used insulation types?
cellulose
378
How many people could be affected for a "large-Scale evacuation"?
A large or concentrated release of a hazardous substance may cause a large scale evacuation. Thousands of citizens could be evacuated.
379
The value of exposures in FG Factors is under what factor?
Arrangement Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02
380
During major incidents, one company per____ patients should be the initial objective (one rescuer per patient).
four (4)
381
Elapsed time notifications are generated every ___ minutes until the situation is placed _____ _______.
5 under control
382
Implementation of the passport system will occur:
at any incident that requires the use of an SCBA.
383
This level of evacuation affects off-site homes and businesses and normally affects fewer than 100 people. People may remain out of the area for two to four hours or more
INTERMEDIATE LEVEL EVACUATION
384
All personnel on-scene shall be:
* Positioned in Staging. * Assigned to a task or operating within a sector. • Having completed an assignment and no other assignment is available within that sector, crews should be assigned to a Resource, Staging, or Rehabilitation Sector until such time as they can be reassigned to an operating sector or released to in-service status.
385
The ________________ is responsible for the accountability of crews assigned to Rehab Sector.
Rehab Sector Officer
386
How do staging sector officers stay visible and accessible?
This will be accomplished by leaving the red lights operating on the staging officers apparatus and by wearing a sector vest.
387
Should a situation occur where a later arriving Company or Command officer cannot locate or communicate with Command (after several radio attempts), they will:
assume and announce their assumption of Command and initiate whatever actions are necessary to confirm the safety of the missing crew COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01
388
If two (2) large scale incidents are working simultaneously, each incident may use ___% of Automatic Aid resources.
(35%)
389
Only _____ Rescues will be allowed out-of-service at one time for scheduled activities such as P.M., training, physicals, etc.
two
390
Start cones at 65 feet for what road speed?
25 mph
391
Any type of incident in which Fire Department members may be exposed to harm as a result of a violent or threatening act. Defines what?
A violent incident
392
The Fast-attack-mobile Command mode should not last more than a how long?
a few minutes COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01