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Capt. 2016 > Volume 2 > Flashcards

Volume 2 Flashcards

1
Q

__________ is defined as: a timely and efficient means of air replacement and re-hydration of
companies while maintaining their sector assignment.

A

Recycling

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2
Q

Who can occupy the position of Sector Officer?

A

BC and Capt.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

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3
Q

How far away from aircraft to smoke?

A

No smoking within 50’ of the aircraft.

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4
Q

Furthermore, when remaining air supply in the SCBA cylinder reaches the __% to __% range a May-Day should be called if personnel are still inside an IDLH
atmosphere and will be unable to exit within 5 minutes.

A

18% to 15%

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5
Q

During training fire the span of control for interior operations shall not exceed how many recruits per Company officer?

A

the span of control for interior operations shall not exceed two recruits for each company or training officer.

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6
Q

Whenever there are _____ or more companies operating in a sector, the IC should assign a Battalion Chief and FIT to that sector.

A

three

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

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7
Q

During large haz-mat evacuations, the Red Cross will need how long to get adequate personnel, equipment and supplies to the shelter sites?

A

The Red Cross will need up to three hours to get adequate personnel, equipment and supplies to the shelter sites.

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8
Q

Attack on any flammable liquid fire should be made with ________ Foam when available. When the fuel
is ethanol, or ethanol based (E-10, E-85 or E-95), fire attack should utilize ______ foam.

A

Class B

AFFF

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9
Q

What can we use to decide a safe staging distance on a Haz-mat incident?

A

THE DOT GUIDEBOOK,
NFPA REFERENCE MATERIALS, the NIOSH POCKET GUIDE, OR ANY OTHER MATERIAL SUCH
AS MSDS OR SHIPPING PAPERS AVAILABLE TO THEM SHOULD BE USED TO ESTABLISH A
SAFE DISTANCE FOR STAGING.

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10
Q

Fire Investigators are authorized to write D.R.s for what causes?

A

Fire Investigators are authorized to write arson and reckless burning DRs only.

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11
Q

Both types of deployment 2 and 3 require the on-duty deputy to call in off-duty personnel; The main difference between type 2 and 3 emergency deployment is?

A

Activation of a Type 2 Emergency Deployment calls off-duty personnel in to staff brush trucks or other adjunct response apparatus.

Activation of a Type 3 Emergency Deployment calls off-duty personnel in to staff reserve apparatus.

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12
Q

Who must obtain PARs of all crewmembers of all

companies assigned to his/her sector/division/group.

A

Sector Officers Division/Group Supervisors

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13
Q

Min size hoseline for car fire?

A

The minimum size of hoseline is the 1-1/2” handline.

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14
Q

The only way to guarantee a successful outcome of a Mayday situation is to?

A

PREVENT IT!

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15
Q

What is needed after a change in strategy?

A 
A PAR (Personnel Accountability Report) shall be obtained after
any switch from offensive to defensive strategy.
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16
Q

Exposure of spectators/control of spectators in FG Factors is under what factor?

A

LIFE HAZARD

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

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17
Q

Who assumes the “secondary” 2 in 2 out position?

A

the engineer assumes the secondary 2 in / 2 out position.

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18
Q

If staged companies observe critical tactical needs, they will:

A

advise Command of such critical conditions and their actions.

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19
Q

The initial Roof Sector Officer must report to Command the following conditions:

a. Roof design and construction (flat, peaked, bowstring, etc.)
b. Structural conditions
c. _______________
d. Locations of fire walls
e. Locations of heavy objects that are affected by fire conditions
f. Ventilation plan

A

C. Fire conditions or effects of fire on roof

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20
Q

Who can act as victims during a training fire?

A

No personnel shall be permitted to act as a victim(s) during live training fires.

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21
Q

For Unified Command using what will allow other agencies to find key persons at the incident?

A

Use of the fire department sector vests and Command Officer vests

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22
Q

During heat stress management time of year, IC’s are responsible for monitoring and managing:

Assign companies to Rehab Sector/Division/Group as needed or requested (companies shall remain
in rehab for a minimum of __ minutes)

A

20

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23
Q

If conditions permit, a companies work cycle

could be up to _ to _ air cylinders.

A

2-3

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24
Q

During evacuation some citizens may refuse to leave. A few methods of persuasion to leave include:

A
  • Be in uniform.
  • Wear your helmet.
  • Wear SCBA and facepiece (air hose may not need to be connected) when advising the citizen to leave.
  • Ask for next of kin and a phone number.
  • Write the next of kin information down.
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25
Q

The officer in charge is responsible for complying with the conditions stated on the Training Academy burn permit. This includes burning only when?

A

only during the months and hours specified on the permit.

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26
Q

Who will assume safety sector responsibilities for that sector/division/group, which includes accountability?

A

FIT

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27
Q

These are just as important as the tactical priorities and is critical to the success and positive outcome of an incident.

A

umbrella of service

TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A

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28
Q

The Hot Zone will be defined as:

A

any area that requires an:

  • SCBA,
  • charged hoseline,
  • special protective clothing,
  • Fire fighting Personnel are at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure.
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29
Q

During heat stress management time of year, Company Officers are responsible for monitoring and managing:

Work/rest cycles, request a relief company and assignment to rehab after crew has consumed ___
bottles of air

A

two

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30
Q

The four primary areas of concern for incidents

involving flammable liquids are?

A 
-extinguishment of flammable
liquid fires
-spills without fire
-disposal
-firefighter safety.
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31
Q

Small adults or young children should not ride in any rescue cab with what installed ?

A

airbags

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32
Q

Who obtains personal accountability reports (PAR) from Sector Officers/Division/Group Supervisors and crews.

A

Command (in the strategic mode)

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33
Q

Regardless of hospital diversion status, critical patients will always be triaged where?

A

Closest appropriate emergency department

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34
Q

Companies should respond to their move-up assignment in what status?

A

“out of service” status

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35
Q

ATTACK HOSE LINE CHOICE

The objective of the attack hose line choice is to provide: .

A

-enough GPM flow to overcome the volume of
fire being produced

-or an adequate flow to effectively cool and protect exposures

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36
Q

During the initial deployment of the first in company, the only radio communications with regards to 2 in / 2 out
that are necessary is when the 2 in / 2 out standard is:

A

not met.

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37
Q

This form of information management generally involves Command making a specific assignment and then receiving an information-oriented report.

A

Reconnaissance Factors

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

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38
Q 
What are the seven fireground factors?
F
O
O
B
R
A
L
A 
Building
Fire
Occupancy
Life hazard
Arrangement
Resources
Other factors/conditions

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

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39
Q

Where immediate and rapid evacuation makes door-to-door notification impossible, use what notification methods:

A
  1. Use three (3) five-second blasts of the siren while on the “YELP” setting
  2. Follow with the standard evacuation instruction over PA system (see instructions above)
  3. Use maximum volume on PA system
  4. Proceed slowly to maximize notification
  5. Initiate notification at the beginning of each block and each 50 yards after that
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40
Q

Emergency Deployment will be activated at the direction of _________________ the in conjunction with Alarm Room Headquarters (AHQ)

A

on-duty Operations Deputy Chief (i.e.,

Shift Commander, District Commander, etc.)

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41
Q

Customer valuables such as photo albums, video and audio tapes, clothing and other keepsakes found in closets need to be carefully:

A

wrapped and placed in boxes.

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42
Q

The use of the accountability system will commence as:

A

the first unit arrives on the scene.

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43
Q

The Phoenix Police Air Unit has the

ability to put ___ Bambi Buckets in service

A

two

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44
Q

The following are considered “______ ___” helicopters operations:
1. External load (slingloads, longlines, water bucket, etc.)
2. Hover sites (low-level hovering)
3. Helicopter rappelling (insertions and extraction’s)
4. Flights conducted below 500 feet above ground level (AGL)
5. Helicopter operations around a fire perimeter
6. Single skid landings
7. Any takeoff or landing requiring special pilot technique due to terrain, obstacles, or surface
condition.

A

Special Use

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45
Q

Going beyond our standard quick, effective, professional, customer service to create a feeling that the customer was the most important person we served all day. Defines What?

A

Added value

CUSTOMER SERVICE MANAGEMENT
M.P. 201.00

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46
Q

The intent of what policy is to avoid any respiratory contact with products of combustion, super heated gases, toxic products or other hazardous contaminants.

A

S.C.B.A. policy

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47
Q

While the helicopter is on the ground, whether running or not, a “tail guard” shall be stationed ___ to ____
feet from the tail rotor to keep the area secured. At no time shall personnel pass _______ the body of
the helicopter and the tail rotor.

A

50 to 100

behind

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48
Q

What Emergency Deployment will require the on-duty Operations Deputy Chief or designee to
call off-duty personnel in to staff reserve apparatus?

A

TYPE 3 EMERGENCY DEPLOYMENT

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49
Q

Water rescue personnel shall be assigned upstream to:

A

advise Rescue Sector of any upstream hazards that may affect the rescue operation.

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50
Q

A Rehab truck will be dispatched:

A
  • on all First Alarm and greater incidents

- heat stress advisory is in effect.

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51
Q

Start cones at 160 feet for what road speed?

A

60 mph

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52
Q

When Lobby Sector is established all personnel entering the building or area must ______ ______ ______ ______ before reporting to any other sector or assignment.

A

report to Lobby Sector

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53
Q

In other situations, where immediate and rapid evacuation makes door-to-door notification impossible, use the following notification method:
• Use __ five-second blasts of the siren while on the “YELP” setting.

A

3

Other considerations:

  • Followed by the standard evacuation instruction over PA system (see instructions above)
  • Use maximum volume on PA system.
  • Proceed slowly to maximize notification.
  • Initiate notification at the beginning of each block and each 50 yards after that.
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54
Q

It was discovered that once the low air alarm of an SCBA is activated, a firefighter can crawl approximately ___ feet until their air supply is exhausted.

A

150’

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55
Q

Two separate water supplies shall be established during training fires. Water supply for the forward pumper shall be a minimum of:

A

500gpm

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56
Q

The tactical level of every incident has the responsibility to actively and routinely work toward Mayday prevention
and preparedness.

What tandem best manages the tactical level responsibilities?

A

The Battalion Chief and F.I.T. or I.S.O. tandem best manages these responsibilities.

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57
Q

For a mountain rescue, the rescuers shall be “on-rope” and ______ when operating near an edge.

A

“tied-in”

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58
Q

A personnel accountability report will be required for the following situations:

A
  • Any report of a missing or trapped fire fighter
  • Any change from offensive to defensive
  • Any sudden hazardous event at the incident - flash over, back draft, collapse, May Day, etc.
  • As companies report an all clear.
  • As companies report under control.
  • At every 30 minutes of elapsed time.
  • Any time Command feels it is necessary.
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59
Q

-Integrating a daily SCBA check into the crew routine
-Practicing crew communication in the hazard zone
-Rover integration into crew
o Individual rovers are responsible to ask if not explicitly discussed at the beginning of a shift
-Maintaining knowledge of portable radios and practicing their use
-Ensuring Company Officer responsibilities and expectations are clear to the entire crew
-Practicing and maintaining crew integrity/accountability
-Instilling the standard that firefighters should always stay on a hoseline

All of these define who’s responsibility for mayday Prevention?

A

Company Officer responsibility for Mayday preventions include:

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60
Q

Triage tags should be used any time there are:

A

three (3) or more IMMEDIATE patients or more than ten (10) patients.

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61
Q

Who can fill the role of senior advisor on the Command team (incident advisory team)?

A

Shift Commanders; The first arriving Shift Commander (North, South, East or West Deputy) usually fills the role of the Senior Advisor.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

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62
Q

Tactical objectives for fires involving high piled outside combustible storage include:

A
  1. Firefighter Safety
  2. Exposure Protection
  3. Environmental Protection (including public health)
  4. Fire Control
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63
Q

BUOY WALL SET UP
The engine company assigned to the landing zone sector will assist the water tender driver with set up
and filling the buoy wall tank. Start filling the tank slowly after approximately one foot of water is in the
tank the flow rate can be increased. Foam concentrate can be added to the tank when it is about one
foot from the top.
NOTE: Apparatus must be kept at least ____’ to the side of the flight path of helicopters dipping the tank.

A

150’

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64
Q

An ________ ___________ is defined as a forward and isolated zone where law enforcement officers are in
tactical positions with protective gear and weapons engaged and their primary purpose is mitigating a hostile
and/or violent incident or suspect. Fire department defines this as the hot zone.

A

inner perimeter

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65
Q

If the incident is within one mile of the station Companies should consider Level 2 staging in quarters.
Response time should also be a consideration. If the scene is further than one mile, companies should
stage:

A

in a location that allows them to reach the scene within a reasonable amount of time.

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66
Q

The effective management of each fireground factor requires Command to apply a somewhat different form of information management to each factor. What are the three forms of information management?

A

visual
recon
preplan

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

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67
Q

Atmospheric monitoring during a confined space rescue shall be done continuously and readings shall be communicated to Rescue Sector at least every __ minutes.

A

5

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68
Q

Phoenix transit buses if needed will be dispatched to what location on large scale medical incidents?

A

Dispatch Phoenix Transit buses to the Level 2 staging area.

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69
Q

The most likely assignments for On Deck companies are:

A
  • Reinforce a position within an assigned sector
  • Crew relief within an assigned sector
  • Any other tactical position assigned by the IC
  • Rapid intervention crew
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70
Q

When operating around a high-rise building where the potential hazards of falling glass and debris
exist, a fireground perimeter shall be established ____’ from the building and shall be observed by all
Fire personnel as a high hazard area.

A

200’

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71
Q

A FD customer can be:

A

· The actual service recipient
· Anyone who knows or is closely related to the service recipient (e.g., family, friends, neighbors, etc.)
· The people we encounter, directly and indirectly during our workday (e.g., members of organizations we
routinely do business with, people who visit our workplace, people who see us during our workday, and
people who see us on the road)
· The members of our organization including support staff (our customer services begin with how we treat
each other)

CUSTOMER SERVICE MANAGEMENT
M.P. 201.00

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72
Q

What Emergency Deployment will require the on-duty Operations Deputy Chief to call off-duty
personnel in to staff brush trucks or other adjunct response apparatus?

A

TYPE 2 EMERGENCY DEPLOYMENT

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73
Q

who is responsible to stay with his/her crew at all times.

A

Firefighters

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74
Q

The most urgent reason for calling additional alarms is for the purpose of:

A

covering life safety.

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75
Q

________ ________ is intended to significantly increase the number of available emergency response resources.

A

Emergency Deployment

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76
Q

A fire at what type of facility requires the State Fire Marshal to be contacted?

A

Any fire at a school facility requires the State Fire Marshall to be contacted.

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77
Q

__________ ______ is described as notifying command
of low-air alarm activation and immediately exiting the IDLH atmosphere intact as a crew
and notifying command that you are out with a PAR after exiting.

A

Immediate action

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78
Q

A _________ attack is the fastest control evolution available to counteract wildfire spread

A

direct water

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79
Q

one salvage cover can accommodate how many patients?

A

One salvage cover provides ample

working room for up to three patients.

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80
Q

During aircraft fires, if emergency evacuation is in progress, assist evacuation of passengers and/or provide them a path of egress, by discharging _____ foam only, from apparatus.

A

Class B

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81
Q

Physical fitness and mental preparedness are under what area of the umbrella of service?

A

Firefighter safety

TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A

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82
Q

This evacuation level of evacuation involves a small number of citizens. This typically includes workers at the site and people from adjacent occupancies or areas and lasts for less than an hour or two.

A

SITE EVACUATION

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83
Q

Who is responsible for the safety of ALL vehicle operations and managing compliance of this procedure?

A

The officer in charge or driver of the vehicle

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84
Q

Aircraft emergencies are broken down into three categories: Alert 1, Alert 2, and Alert 3.

What alert Indicates an aircraft is having minor difficulties?

A

Alert 1: Indicates an aircraft is having minor difficulties (i.e., a minor oil leak; one engine out on a three or
four-engine commercial aircraft or one engine out on a two-engine general aviation aircraft; fire
warning lights; etc.) A safe landing is expected.

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85
Q

Victims buried by a trench collapse or under water for ___ minutes or more, would be unlikely to survive therefore an extremely cautious and a well-planned, safe, recovery operation is required.

A

10

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86
Q

Alert 2 will dispatch what unit(s)?

A

Alert 2:

  • two (2) engine companies (one A.L.S.),
  • one (1) ladder
  • one (1) brush truck
  • one (1) Battalion Chief.
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87
Q

The Decontamination Sector Officer is responsible for determining the most appropriate decontamination procedures and managing the decontamination process. This should be done in conjunction with advice from the:

A

Poison Control Center.

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88
Q

What additional information shall be relayed to responding units after dispatch to a haz-mat incident? .

A

-SAFEST APPROACH OR BEST ACCESS TO THE INCIDENT IF AVAILABLE

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89
Q

Who assumes responsibility for the effectiveness of their fire streams?

A

Company Officers and Sector Officers must assume responsibility for the effectiveness of their fire
streams

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90
Q

For residential fires where the occupant has suffered a loss of living quarters and clothing, what may be used to provide support?

A

the American Red Cross

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91
Q

Strategic Level, Tactical Level, or Task Level is responsible for determining the appropriate strategy?

A

Strategic mode

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

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92
Q

The first, second and third priorities in defensive strategy are?

A

The first priority in defensive operations is personnel safety;

The second is exposure protection.

The next priority may be to knock down the main body of fire.

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93
Q

Any “Special Use” of helicopters during rescue operations will require a _______ ______ Sector to be
established by Command.

A

Technical Rescue

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94
Q

Rescuing pets or animals during an incident should take the same priority as:

A

any loss control activity.

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95
Q

Fleet Management provides 24-hour service to maintain apparatus and equipment and to meet emergency needs of the Department. This service is maintained by _______ Fire Engineers working a 56-hour week.

A

three

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96
Q

Incidents at what locations present a major potential for flammable liquid spills, fires or hazardous materials incidents?

A

Freeway

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97
Q

For a freeway “Unified Command” what are the key agencies?

A

Key agencies at this Command Post will be:
-fire department
-Arizona Department of Public Safety (DPS)
-Arizona Department of Transportation (ADOT)
-and if freeway traffic is being diverted to city streets, the
appropriate city police will need

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98
Q

Who provides the beginning of the Incident Safety Officer System (ISOS) and insures that firefighter safety is a priority upon arrival of the first unit?

A

This initial company officer as the IC/ISO

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99
Q

Customer service management defines that, our mission and number one priority is to:

A

deliver the best customer service possible.

CUSTOMER SERVICE MANAGEMENT
M.P. 201.00

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100
Q

List the specific FG factors listed under “Fire”

A
  1. Size
  2. Extent (% of structure involved)
  3. Location
  4. Stage (inception, free-burning, flashover)
  5. Direction of travel (most dangerous)
  6. Time of involvement
  7. Type and amount of material involved (structure/interior finish/contents)
  8. Type and amount of material left to burn
  9. Product of combustion

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

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101
Q

The objective in positive pressure for exposure control is?

A

The objective is to introduce PPV ahead of a moving fire and force it back into the fire area.

An exit point in the fire area is needed in most cases.

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102
Q

What is a Command post consisting of more than

one agency called?

A

“Unified Command”

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103
Q

All crews entering a high rise fire shall bring a min of 1 spare ________.

A

SCBA bottle

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104
Q

A “follow up report” contains:

A
  1. Any immediate safety concerns
  2. Accountability started (announce the initial accountability location)
  3. Disposition of resources (hold/add/return)
  4. IRIC - in place and identify

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

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105
Q

There are two types of aircraft crashes:

A
  1. High Impact

2. Low Impact

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106
Q

For extrication sector a reasonable guideline is an initial commitment of one company per ____ victims.

A

five (5)

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107
Q

The benchmark of completion for the tactical priority fire control is:

A

“under control”

TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A

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108
Q

HELICOPTER SAFETY FACTORS

Stage patients waiting to be loaded at least ___ feet away. Secure sheets and blankets and cover eyes during landing.

A

150’

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109
Q

In the City of Phoenix, a high-rise building is defined as:

A

6 elevator stops or greater or 75 feet in height or greater.

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110
Q

NFPA _____ Standard defines mayday readiness as the ability to “don, doff and manipulate the SCBA in zero visibility while wearing firefighting gloves.”

A

1500

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111
Q

Objectives assigned to Sectors (Divisions or Groups) are under which level of command?

A

Tactical level

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

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112
Q

The mission of PD operations at violent incidents is to mitigate and/or eliminate the threat. Fire Department
personnel must initiate and maintain effective communications with PD throughout the incident.__________ is an excellent resource for effective communications and planning.

A

TLO/C958

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113
Q

Who will normally be responsible for clean-up operations at a radiological release?

A

Shippers and/or manufacturers of radiological materials will normally be responsible for clean-up operations

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114
Q

For a fire at a clandestine drug laboratory, what mode may be appropriate to take?

A

A defensive mode may be appropriate for personnel safety.

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115
Q

What is the designation for a helicopter operating under the direction of the Phoenix Fire Department?

A

Firebird

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116
Q

When branches are established Sector officers will use the radio designation of ________ when contacting their Branch Officer.

A

Command

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

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117
Q

Roof sector should be established for what reasons?

A

Command should establish a Roof Sector during offensive fire operations to evaluate roof conditions and to complete roof ventilation.

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118
Q

The term _____&_______ should be used when structuring a primary search over the radio;

A

“SEARCH & RESCUE”

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119
Q

If the extraction team is threatened or comes under fire, do what?

A

follow law enforcement leads

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120
Q

All other units will stage in their direction of travel, uncommitted, approximately one block from the
scene until assigned by Command; the staged position should provide what tactical options?

A

A position providing a maximum of possible tactical options

regarding access, direction of travel, water supply, etc., should be selected.

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121
Q

What type of mercury release is exempt from cleanup requirements?

A

The Arizona Department of Environmental Quality has determined that a mercury release that occurs in a residence, including the interior of apartments, is household hazardous waste. As a result, the release is exempt from cleanup requirements.

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122
Q

What is a conscious process involving the very rapid but deliberate consideration of the critical factors, the development of a strategy and a rational plan of attack based on those conditions.

A

Size-up

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

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123
Q

What may be called to the scene to provide cooling or shelter?

A

city buses

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124
Q

The benchmark of completion for the tactical priority property conservation is:

A

“loss stopped”

TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A

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125
Q

Most flammable liquid incidents involve Fire Code violations. Have the Dispatch Center dispatch ________ to investigate this aspect of the incident and take appropriate action.

A

Car 99

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126
Q

When Fire Control is the principle objective, what conditions must be considered?

A
  1. Fire extent
  2. Structural conditions
  3. Entry capability
  4. Ventilation profile
  5. Rescue profile of occupants
  6. Resources profile

Fire Control M.P. 202.04

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127
Q

Alert 1 and Alert 2 incidents all companies shall respond to the Glendale Control Tower at gate #___

A

9

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128
Q

Command should consider adding a command officer to any sector with ______ or more operating companies.

A

three
COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

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129
Q

The benchmark of completion for the tactical priority rescue is:

A

“All clear”

TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A

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130
Q

Activation of a Type ___ Emergency Deployment will automatically modify response requirements for all non-EMS incidents

A

1

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131
Q

During heat stress management time of year, what additional units will be dispatched to a WF?

A

Dispatch and Deployment shall provide an additional ALS Engine Company and Rehab Unit to any working
fire incidents.

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132
Q

The three tactical priorities are?

A

Rescue
Fire Control
Property Conservation

TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A

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133
Q

How far back from the entry point should PPV fans be positioned?

A

12’-15’

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134
Q

In cases of a fatal tree rescue, consider leaving what on-scene?

A

In cases of a fatality, consider leaving everything in place until the investigative process has been completed.

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135
Q

What are adaptive response units?

A

-(Move Up) The Adaptive Response Engine Company Program provides additional engine companies in the
dispatch system. These companies should be considered for use as substitutes for companies which
are out of service for extended periods of time due to training, maintenance, emergency incidents or
other approved company activities.

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136
Q

What emergency deployment type will automatically modify response requirements for all non-EMS incidents?

A

TYPE 1 EMERGENCY DEPLOYMENT

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137
Q

“In Transit” is the time it takes for a company to reach their assignment area after receiving an
order. It often varies due to:

A
  • Distance between staging and the incident
  • Size of the incident perimeter
  • Amount of equipment the company needs to assemble
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138
Q

To review, and revise (as needed) the strategy to keep the IAP current defines what function of command?

A
  1. Seven

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

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139
Q

spectators, vehicle traffic (including emergency vehicles) and animals must be kept a minimum of ____’ away from the landing zone

A

200’

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140
Q

What safety intervention approach is the most frequent type of interaction?

A

The second approach: is for non-life threatening situations and involves a more “one on one” correction
of safety problems with individual firefighters, company officers, and/or sector officers

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141
Q

When using stairs to ascend, crews must collectively check their air supply every __ floors, managed by the captain

A

5

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142
Q

When a move-up requires a company to leave their city (ie: Glendale), who gets notified?

A

the appropriate Shift Commander should be notified.

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143
Q

The activities required to stop or reduce primary or secondary damage to property is what tactical priority?

A

Property Conservation

TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A

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144
Q

If ladder crews cannot get on the roof to ventilate because of fire conditions/roof profile, Command should consider this a _______ situation.

A

marginal

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145
Q

During a car fire, when rescue is not a factor, first water should be applied for several seconds to:

A

extinguish fire or cool down the area around any fuel tanks or fuel systems

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146
Q

On Deck crews must remain intact, in a ready state and monitor the tactical channel at all times. On
deck crews must also size up the area that they are assigned to, this size up should include:

A
  • Locating the structures entrance/exit points in their assigned area
  • Interior and exterior conditions
  • Unit ID of crews operating inside the structure
  • Approximate location of interior crews
  • Identify which crews are operating each hose line
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147
Q

When persons disobey or interfere with a firefighter at a fire scene, they may be:

A

arrested, if necessary, in aggravated cases prosecuted

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148
Q

Deploy an attack line to the aircraft’s interior, without inhibiting passenger egress. Fire intensity will
require the use of ____” or __” hand-lines, utilizing ___ patterns.

A

1-3/4” or 2”

fog

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149
Q

To reduce risk, and assist with scene management, training fire participants shall be formed into individual companies consisting of no more than _____ members and supervised by a company officer.

A

four (4)

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150
Q

What is one of the most important reasons to assign

companies to On-Deck positions?

A

The ability to respond quickly to a May-Day situation is one of the most important reasons to assign
companies to On-Deck positions.

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151
Q

Of all the medical sectors, which one typically requires the heaviest commitment of personnel?

A

Treatment Sector

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152
Q

The use of class __ foam in firefighting is another method of reducing water damage.

A

A

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153
Q

Who is responsible for compliance with this procedure and the safe backing of the apparatus?

A

The company officer is responsible for compliance with this procedure and the safe backing of the apparatus.

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154
Q

Some roles of the FIT/ISO as a Sector Safety Officer (partnered with BC) are?

A

• Perform Sector Safety Officer function/role
• Assess safety concerns within sector
• Assist the BC with managing the sector (stay together)
• Manage accountability within the sector (hose tags too)
• Provide air management within the sector
• Manage work/rest cycles within the sector
• Manage the sector’s On-Deck crews recycle and rehab
• Establish communications with Safety Section (you will call them ‘Command’) once the IC has
established the position and assigned a Safety Channel
• Coordinate with other sector safety officers

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

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155
Q

Any emergency situation that threatens life, safety, or property. Defines?

A

An incident

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156
Q

Heat stress management is implemented effective of _______ to __________ each year or at the discretion
of who?

A

June 1st to September 30th

on-duty Shift Commander

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157
Q

There are three types of mercury; the two most common types are:

A

elemental and inorganic mercury.

158
Q

Bumper assemblies have been known to travel ___ feet

A

25

159
Q

Water rescue personnel shall be assigned downstream to use:

A

throw bags to capture rescue personnel or victim(s) that may be washed downstream.

160
Q

Who is responsible for the completion of the tactical objectives?

A

The Incident Commander

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

161
Q

After what brush assignment will a brush fire be declared wildland and receive appropriate additional resources?

A

Any WORKING FIRST ALARM BRUSH assignment or greater will be deemed a wildland fire and
receive appropriate additional resources.

162
Q

The remaining 25% of the air supply is the:

A

emergency reserve to be used only in the
event an emergency occurs while exiting such as becoming lost, trapped, or entangled
upon exiting the hazard zone.

163
Q

What actions taken at a haz-mat incident affects the outcome more than any other single factor?

A

The ACTIONS taken by command in the FIRST FEW minutes of an incident affects the outcome more than any other single factor.

164
Q

Helicopter operations are considered high-risk and shall be decided upon through consultation with who?

A
  • Rescue Sector
  • Safety
  • Command
  • Technical Advisor.
165
Q

A “mass casualty incident” is defined as any incident involving ___ to ___ patients.

A

25 to 100

166
Q

When a fire department Rescue is responding to an “emergency” and will have a response time
exceeding ___ minutes, the Dispatcher will contact the private ambulance companies and determine if
they have a closer unit.

A

20

167
Q

During heat stress management time of year, IC’s are responsible for monitoring and managing:

Utilize the practice of first company in, _____ _____

A

first company out routine

168
Q

A hazardous material incident has two initial zones associated with the scene, similar to a fire.
There are:

A

the LIMITED ACCESS ZONE and the EVACUATION ZONE.

169
Q

Divisions are always going to be assigned by their:

A

Divisions are assigned by their geographic location (North Division).

170
Q

Who best functions as a liaison with law enforcement agencies?

A

TLO/C958 Captains

171
Q

The basic configuration of Command includes three levels:

A

Strategic Level - Overall direction of the incident.
Tactical Level - Objectives assigned to Sectors (Divisions or Groups)
Task Level - Task objectives assigned to Companies.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

172
Q

The following considerations may be used to refuse an escort in a rescue when transporting a patient to an emergency department:

A
  • Infectious Exposures
  • Contamination
  • Danger to Rescue Driver or Patient
173
Q

In what event is the 2 in / 2

out procedure is not required?

A

initial company arrives on-scene of a fire in the incipient stages

174
Q

BLS nature codes will be dispatched without what?

A

BLS Nature Codes will be dispatched without a C2 or C3

response flag.

175
Q

Transportation sector should initiate medical facility

inventory by contacting the Dispatch Center on _____ early during the incident

A

Med-9

176
Q

In the event of contamination to clothes during a mercury release; do NOT put the clothes in what type of bag?

A

DO NOT USE BIOHAZARD BAGS BECAUSE THE CONTRACTORS CANNOT ACCEPT IT; THERE ARE DIFFERENT FEDERALLY MANDATED DISPOSAL REQUIREMENTS THAT MUST BE COMPLIED WITH RELATING TO MERCURY AND BIOHAZARDOUS WASTE.

177
Q

When operating in a defensive strategy, operating positions should be:

A

as far from the involved area as

possible while still remaining effective.

178
Q

Benchmarks for PACAN reports are:

A
  • 10 minute elapsed time on air
  • all clear
  • fire control
  • lost stopped
179
Q

Positive pressure ventilation is effective only when applied properly. Two major items are required:

A
  1. An “exit” for the pressurized air must be provided and must be located in the fire area. This
    is generally a window, door or other opening.
  2. Positive pressure ventilation must be injected from the unburned side of the fire.
    I
180
Q

What is a conscious process involving the very rapid but deliberate consideration of the critical factors, the development of a strategy and a rational plan of attack based on those conditions?

A

Size up

181
Q

if responding code 2 AOI for longer than ___ minutes, the unit will be placed _________.

A

If a unit is responding longer than ten (10) minutes on an AOI call, CAD will automatically place the unit in the Unavailable On Incident (UOI) status,

182
Q

Who can fill the role of Senior Advisor (Incident Advisor) during first and greater alarm incidents?

A

Shift Commanders Phoenix (North and South Deputy), Glendale (West Deputy) and Mesa (East
Deputy)

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

183
Q

A critical aspect of extrication is:

A

triage.

184
Q

This position functions as the Incident

Safety Officer in the ISOS until command van operations are commenced and a Safety Officer is assigned.

A

Support Officer

185
Q

a primary search must be completed where?

A

The Incident Commander shall direct a primary search in all involved and exposed occupancies which can be entered.

186
Q

What is the minimum level of protection required for everyone working the tire fire?

A

Full turnout gear is the minimum level of protection required for everyone working the tire fire.

187
Q

Fire load (size, nature) in FG Factors is under what factor?

A

OCCUPANCY

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

188
Q

What fire present the same potential threat to the environment that an incident involving an oil tanker or
a railroad tank car carrying hazardous substances.

A

Tire fires

189
Q

Capability and willingness of personnel in FG Factors is under what factor?

A

RESOURCES

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

190
Q

The tactical benchmark for the end point of a Mayday is what?

A

“Mayday resolved”.

191
Q

ALL PERSONNEL ENTERING THE HOT ZONE SHALL:

A
  • WEAR FULL TURNOUTS
  • HAVE CREW INTACT
  • BE ASSIGNED TO A SECTOR
192
Q

Most dangerous direction (avenue of spread) in FG Factors is under what factor?

A

ARRANGEMENT

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

193
Q

What procedures are designed to ensure a seamless transition from a Type 5/4 incident to a Type 3/2/1 (NIMS).

A

COMMAND PROCEDURES

M.P. 201.01

194
Q

All reserve apparatus during type 3 emer. deployment will place themselves in an ____ status if not assigned to a call.

A

UNV

195
Q

Securing” the fire scene is a function of:

A

loss control.

196
Q

What sector is responsible for having the immediate area checked for equipment which may have been left at the scene upon termination of the incident.

A

Resource

197
Q

What is used to facilitate the completion of the Tactical Objectives?

A

Incident Command System

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

198
Q

The Incident Commander must consider the following factors in developing a basic rescue size-up:

A
  • Number, location and condition of victims
  • Affect the fire has on the victims
  • Capability of the control forces to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control fire
199
Q

Units may operate without SCBA protection if the CO is lower than what PPM?

A

CO Below 50ppm (CO): Level of carbon monoxide is below 50 parts per million, units may operate
without SCBA protection.

200
Q

Formal departmental critiques will be conducted at the discretion of the _______ ________ Chief.

A

Tactical Services

201
Q

________ gloves under the leather gloves will give added protection from contact with the contaminated water, oil, and mud.

A

Surgical

202
Q

The primary use of the TIC for the fire department is for:

A

conducting search/rescue and crew accountability tasks.

203
Q

When a command officer is assigned Sector responsibilities the ________ becomes the Sector Safety
Officer.

A

FIT/ISO

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

204
Q

Who can fill the role of support officer on the incident advisory team (command team) ?

A

BSO, ISO, FIT or next arriving command officer

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

205
Q

The umbrella of service is made up of three ongoing

considerations. They are:

A

fire fighter safety, customer service, and Loss Control.

TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A

206
Q

In treatment sector, yellow salvage covers can also be used to identify the care areas for what patients?

A

delayed patients

207
Q

When would passing CMD to the next on-scene unit be advisable?

A

This is indicated when the initial commitment of the first
arriving Company requires a full crew (i.e., high-rise or an immediate rescue situation) and another
Company or Command Officer is on the scene.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

208
Q

If three (3) large scale incidents are working simultaneously, each incident may use ____% of Automatic Aid resources.

A

twenty-five percent(25%)

209
Q

min gpm of training fire backup line?

A

95gpm

210
Q

Level 1 staging and any non essential civilians should

be at least ___ feet from the collapse area at a trench failure.

A

150

211
Q

A second supply line should be considered on any working incident. Considerations include:

A
  • alternate side of the fire
  • commercial buildings
  • large volume of fire
212
Q

Extending WHEREVER POSSIBLE an aggressive well-placed and adequate offensive interior fire attack is what we do to:

A

attempt to stabilize fire conditions.

Fire Control M.P. 202.04

213
Q

Start cones at 105 feet for what road speed?

A

40 mph

214
Q

What list should provide Command with a “checklist” of the basic items that are involved in size-up, decision-making, initiating action, review and revision on the fireground.

A

Fireground factors

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

215
Q

Sectors may be assigned by their geographic location (North Sector) or function (Ventilation Sector). Groups are assigned by their:

A

function (Ventilation Group).

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

216
Q

The on-going responsibility that is not completed with benchmarks of completion are often referred to as the:

A

umbrella of service

TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A

217
Q

Failure to provide two supply lines will limit the ladder to about _____ GPM depending upon the length of the single line

A

1200

218
Q

Accurate response codes will be displayed on the MCT, if no response code is designated, the response will be Code ___ unless directed by a company officer.

A

code 2

219
Q

NESHAPs asbestos form must be filed with Maricopa County Department of Environmental Services, Air Quality Division at least _____ working days prior to the scheduled burn.

A

ten (10)

220
Q

Critique should be limited to a maximum of ___ to ____ hours in duration if possible.

A

1 to 1-1/2 hours

221
Q

__________ includes activities required to stop direct and indirect fire damage in addition to those required to minimize the effects of firefighting operations.

A

Salvage

222
Q

Evacuation branch should have their own what?

A

A separate radio frequency should be used for the Evacuation Branch. This should be assigned as early in the incident as possible.

223
Q

An evaluation of all members of the Operations Division in the use of the S.C.B.A. shall be conducted both _______ and _________

A

quarterly and annually

224
Q

OSHA further defines an incipient stage fire as:

A

a “fire which is in the initial or beginning stage and which can be controlled or extinguished by portable fire
extinguishers, Class II standpipe or small hose systems without the need for protective clothing or breathing
apparatus.”

225
Q

It is recommended that major tire fires be handled as:

A

hazardous materials incidents.

226
Q

What presents the greatest potential for
damage to evidence which may be used by the Fire Investigators and the Police Department in
subsequent court cases and prosecution?

A

Fire fighting operations

227
Q

Upon the initiation of a Mayday, the incident is upgraded using the Mayday nature code to?

3-1 to ?
1st to ?

A

1st alarm mayday

2nd alarm mayday

228
Q

The incident advisory team consists of:

A

Incident Commander (IC), Support Officer, and Senior Advisor.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

229
Q

During heat stress management time of year, Company Officers are responsible for monitoring and managing:

A minimum of ___ ounces __ quarts of fluid should be consumed during the 24 hour shift

A

64 ounces (2 quarts)

230
Q

Standard Exceptions to the 2 in / 2 out Requirement at Structure Fires are?

A
  1. When there is a reported or suspected life hazard where immediate action could prevent the loss of life.
  2. When the fire is in an incipient stage
231
Q

It is imperative that Command assign a _____ Sector as early as possible during marginal situations.

A

Roof

232
Q

During a Haz-Mat incident what is our primary objective before formulating a plan of action?

A

The primary objective is to identify the type of materials involved in a situation, and the hazards
presented, before formulating a plan of action.

233
Q

On Deck crews will be supervised by:

A

either the Sector Officer or Company Officer and they will remain On Deck until assigned by the IC
or Sector Officer.

234
Q

Exterior attack directed to first reduce fire extension and then bring the fire under control. Defines what strategy?

A

Defensive Strategy

Fire Control M.P. 202.04

235
Q

A Limited Access Zone shall be established and maintained around any suspected gas leak
and ________ tape should be used to identify the Limited Access Zone when necessary.

A

“fire line”

236
Q

The basic variables relating to attack operations involve:

A

· Location/position of attack
· Size of attack
· Support functions

237
Q

Who is responsible for insuring that the fire area has been thoroughly overhauled.

A

The IC

238
Q

The first arriving response command officer (usually a Battalion Chief), following standard transfer of
Command procedures will assume Command and becomes the IC. Who becomes the support officer and assumes the responsibilities of the Incident Safety Officer.

A

The FIT assigned to the IC

239
Q

“anytime the breathing apparatus being used cannot
deliver air to the user as designed; whether by mechanical failure or if the individual has
consumed the air supply beyond the designed work cycle, or an individual becomes lost
or trapped within an IDHL environment regardless of air supply”.

What does this define?

A

Air emergency

240
Q

The third type of mercury and the least common is:

A

Organic Mercury

241
Q

All companies responding to staging will stay off the air, respond directly to the designated Staging Area, and the
Company Officer will report in person to:

A

the Staging Officer.

242
Q

The maximum number of Sectors that an IC can effectively manage is called the span of control. The
span of control is usually ____ sectors and should never exceed _____ sectors.

A

five, seven

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

243
Q

Who shall receive a walk through briefing of the building prior to each training fire?

A

All personnel involved in the drill shall be instructed on each element of the attack plan prior to igniting the structure and shall receive a walk through briefing of the building prior to each training fire.

244
Q

In addition to violent incident objectives, the EMS tactical objectives to be completed during any multi-patient/mass casualty incident include:

A
  1. Completion of a “Triage Report”

2. Declaration of “All IMMEDIATES Transported”

245
Q

When laddering a roof, the ladder selected shall be one which will extend ___’-___’ above the roof line.

A

2’ - 3’

246
Q

Fires cannot be considered under control until what is addressed?

A

all seven sides are addressed.

247
Q

Should anything become unsafe during the

approach of any helicopter during landing operations instruct the pilot to:

A

GO AROUND three times.

248
Q

Initial ___% of SCBA air is “working and exiting air”

A

75%

249
Q

The tactical priorities are considered complete when:

A

These objectives are considered complete when the benchmarks are declared.

TACTICAL PRIORITIES M.P. 202.02A

250
Q

Who has the ultimate responsibility for actively and continually providing for the prevention and response to a Mayday situation?

A

The Incident Command Team

251
Q

The initial dispatch information is rarely complete. These situations evolve rapidly and it is necessary to assume
that the information, which is initially received, will change. It is important to approach these incidents slowly and cautiously. Over-committing, prior to evaluation, can pose significant danger to firefighters.

What incidents are these?

A

Violent incidents

252
Q

The hot zone will be defined as:

A

any area that requires the use of an SCBA.

253
Q

The landing zone must be relatively flat and free of obstructions for an area of at least ____ x ____ for
each helicopter.

A

100’ x 100’

254
Q

Building a _________ __________is the
best support mechanism the Incident Commander can utilize to achieve a balance between managing
personnel and incident needs.

A

Command organization

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

255
Q

Provide and manage a steady, adequate, and timely stream of appropriate resources defines what function of command?

A

fourth function of command

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

256
Q

A “disaster” is defined as any incidents involving more than ___ patients.

A

100

257
Q

Drawbacks to the drown it strategy during tire fires include:

A

• An increase in the toxic air emissions as the fire is cooled causing the combustion process
to slow down

258
Q

During the Arrival phase of a structural collapse incident, Command must do what to prevent the situation from quickly deteriorating into a chaotic event?

A

Command must take strong control of

the incident to prevent the situation from quickly deteriorating into a chaotic event.

259
Q

What attack line is Slow, difficult to move, volume at 250 GPM?

A

2 1/2”

260
Q

In treatment sector, Red salvage covers can also be used to identify the care areas for what patients?

A

immediate patients

261
Q

What companies may be used as an improvised standpipe at car fire incidents on elevated freeways or parking garages?

A

Ladder companies

262
Q

If a Chief Officer, member, or unit without tactical

capabilities (i.e. staff vehicle, no equipment, etc.) initiates Command what should be a top priority?

A

the establishment of a Command
Post should be a top priority.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

263
Q

When stopping a leak in a chlorine tank applying what can make the leak worse?

A

Do not apply water to chlorine containers - it will make the leak worse.

264
Q
  1. Identified all entrance/exit points
  2. Control all access points when alternate entrances are present
  3. Identify suitable entrance/exit point or location
  4. Maintain full accountability
  5. Record names, times and assignment of personnel
  6. Collect all accountability tags
  7. For High-rise buildings, normally Lobby Sector is the ground floor lobby area
  8. Special Ops Incident: Define perimeter with HAZARD ZONE tape

These are all responsibilities of:

A

Lobby sector

265
Q

Emergency Deployment will be activated at the direction of the:

A

on-duty Operations Deputy Chief
(i.e., Shift Commander, District Commander, etc.)
in conjunction with Alarm Room Headquarters (AHQ)

266
Q

Activation of each Type of Emergency Deployment will activate a system wide __________ page so
that all jurisdictions within the Automatic Aid System are aware of high activity levels and potential
impact to individual jurisdictions

A

Qpage/phone also MCT message and station package announcement

267
Q

A Battalion Chief along with his FIT should be placed in each sector to insure the actions of crews working within the sector accomplish the tactical objectives. The FIT assumes the role of assistant safety officer while the BC focuses on _______ in the sector.

A

tactics

268
Q

The Bambi Buckets can hold from ___ to ___ gallons of water, depending on air temperature and humidity
and may be filled from a canal, buoy wall tank, or any other body of water that is available.

A

67 to 96

269
Q

Who should be assigned “rescue sector” at a confined space rescue?

A

First arriving TRT unit that is staffed with a TRT Company Officer should be assigned Rescue Sector.

270
Q

What may be employed as a rope to ascend or descend to the freeway proper?

A

A booster line or other hose line may be employed as a rope to ascend or descend to the freeway proper.

271
Q

The Ultimate goal for any Mayday response is to:

A

successfully resolve the Mayday and at the same time not create any further Mayday situations

272
Q

Companies assigned to On-Deck must prepare themselves to function as rescue crews by performing the following tasks/actions:

A
  • Monitor tactical radio channel;
  • Retrieve RIC Bag and confirm contents;
  • Confirm TIC is in a ready state;
  • Determine which line each interior company is on—(hose tags);
  • Coordinate the opening of doors and windows;
  • Illuminate entrance/exits;
  • Develop and discuss a possible search and rescue plan.
273
Q

Who shall have full authority to intervene and control or stop any aspect of the operations when in his/her judgment; a potential or real risk to personnel exists?

A

The Safety Officer

274
Q

A sector below ground on an incident is termed?

A

Subsector

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

275
Q

At larger medical incidents (more than ___ patients), the first arriving company officer should assume Command and assign Triage to the next arriving fire company.

A

10

276
Q

If two (2) large scale incidents are working simultaneously, each incident may use(___%) of Automatic Aid resources

A

thirty-five percent (35%)

277
Q

This form of intelligence (information management)involves the perceptive capability of Command.

A

Visual Factors

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

278
Q

The decision to return evacuees to their homes after evacuation will be the sole responsibility of the Fire Department ________ _________. If the EOC is operating, the decision to return evacuees will be made by the ____ _______.

A

Incident Commander

EOC staff

279
Q

What may enhance the visibility in a visibly diminished atmosphere, thus increasing fire fighter safety and survival, as well as improve the survival potential of our customers.

A

TIC

280
Q

The purpose of the Decontamination Procedure is to assure that any potentially harmful or dangerous residues, on persons, equipment or apparatus, are confined within:

A

the Hot Zone.

281
Q

Alert 3 will dispatch what unit(s)?

A

Alert 3:

  • two (2) engine companies (one A.L.S.)
  • one (1) ladder company
  • one (1) brush truck
  • one (1) utility truck
  • one (1) foam capability
  • one (1) Battalion Chief
  • Glendale shift commander.
282
Q

Who assumes the “primary” 2 in 2 out position?

A

The plug person assumes the

primary 2 in / 2 out position

283
Q

The “bury it” strategy for attacking tire fires is best employed in what situations?

A

The bury it strategy could be employed in areas that have minimal water supply or in areas that are
densely populated.

284
Q

Safety Intervention at scene operations involves three approaches?

A
  1. First is for life threatening situations
  2. Second is for non-life threatening situations 3.Third approach occurs in the on-going incident planning process
285
Q

Once determined safe, an Offensive Fire Attack is centered around:

A

RESCUE.

286
Q

The overall incident objectives for violent incidents are:

A
  1. Firefighter safety
  2. Life safety
  3. Incident control.
287
Q

In regards to LT response, a good rule to follow: when in doubt, request:

A

a Ladder company backup.

288
Q

What define standard activities that are performed by the Incident Commander to achieve the
Tactical Objectives.

A

The Functions of Command

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

289
Q

Helicopters may be requested for transportation of personnel and/or equipment urgently needed at the
scene of an emergency, particularly when _______ is a factor. The request for assistance should
include the number of personnel and the weight and volume of equipment to be transported.

A

distance

290
Q

If C957 or BC152 feels there is a need to enter the hot zone he/she must:

A

team up with the second C957

291
Q

Aircraft emergencies are broken down into three categories: Alert 1, Alert 2, and Alert 3.

What alert Indicates that an aircraft has crashed on or off the airport, or there is a high probability the aircraft
will crash

A

Alert 3: Indicates that an aircraft has crashed on or off the airport, or there is a high probability the aircraft
will crash, or the pilot has indicated that the landing gear will not work, and therefore, they will
have to crash land on the airport.

292
Q

For Cooling Containers–Flame Impingement

Apply heavy streams to what part of the tank?

A

Apply heavy streams to the vapor space area above the tanks liquid line.

293
Q

Any LIFE THREATENING conditions will be:

A

corrected immediately and directly.

294
Q

(CALSSRC) is an Automatic Aid System is a consortium of
governments (Cities, Towns, and Fire Districts) joined by an intergovernmental agreement upon which the
participants agree to operationally act as one-entity for the purpose of improved fire/rescue/emergency medical
services. What does (CALSSRC) stand for?

A

Central Arizona Life Safety System Response Council

CUSTOMER SERVICE MANAGEMENT
M.P. 201.00

295
Q

What are the functions and sections of rehab?

A 
Function A: Assessment
Function B: Hydration and Replenishment
Function C: Medical Treatment and Transport
SECTION D: Documentation
SECTION E: Reassignment
296
Q

The fifth function of command is:

A
  1. Identify the incident strategy, develop an Incident Action Plan (IAP), and assign companies and
    personnel consistent with plans and standard operating procedures.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

297
Q

Compartmentation/separation in FG Factors is under what factor?

A

BUILDING

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

298
Q

It is the Responsibility of the ___ to perform the Functions of Command to achieve the Tactical
Objectives.

A

IC

299
Q

The average passenger car tire holds___ gallons of oil

A

2.5

300
Q

The first three functions of command are:

A
  1. Assume and announce Command and establish an effective initial command position
    (Command Post).
  2. Rapidly evaluate the situation (size up).
  3. Initiate, maintain, and control effective incident communications.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

301
Q

Operate roof lines only for the purpose of:

A

protecting personnel and external exposures unless Command orders a coordinated roof attack.

302
Q

Who can fill the role of IC on the command team?

A

Captains or BC’s

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

303
Q

For flammable liquid fires one 95 GPM class B foam line is needed for every ____ square feet of spill area.

A

600

304
Q

Low-risk operations may not always be possible at tree rescue incidents, but should be considered first. The order of rescue from low-risk to high-risk are:

A
  • Self-rescue.
  • Aerial Platform Ladder Truck.
  • Ground Ladders.
  • Climb the Tree.
305
Q

During heat stress management time of year, Company Officers are responsible for monitoring and managing:

Cardiovascular activity (i.e., tennis, racquetball, running, etc.) shall be limited to a maximum of \_\_
minutes
A

30

306
Q

When large volume is needed, ____ feet in length will provide about ____GPM and would need to be pumped.

A

4 inch hose is limited to about 800 GPM at 500 feet in

length before it must be pumped by another engine at the hydrant.

307
Q

_______ and _______ ________ are responsible to monitor the welfare of their personnel at all times and
determine if sector recycling or a formal rehab is appropriate.

A

Sector & company officers

308
Q

If a scene becomes violent, fire personnel are empowered to take appropriate actions to mitigate harm to crew and patient. This may include:

A

neutralizing the threat if necessary.

309
Q

Important tactical considerations during tire fires include:

A
  • Life safety
  • Protecting exposures
  • Isolating burning tires
  • Use of heavy equipment
  • Overhead or underground utilities
310
Q

What color salvage covers can be used to identify the extrication Assembly Area?

A

Assembly Area.” Green salvage covers can be used to identify this area

311
Q

Accountability can be terminated when? at which time a ___ for all crews must be obtained.

A

following a report of “fire under control,”

PAR

312
Q

Utilizing Sectors provides the following advantages: (5)

A
  1. Reduces the IC’s span of control
  2. Creates more effective incident scene communications
  3. Provides a standard and logical system to divide large geographical incidents into
    effectively sized units
  4. Provides an array major support functions
  5. Improves firefighter safety

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

313
Q

The decision to return evacuees to their homes will be the sole responsibility of the fire department ________ ___________ . If the EOC is operating, the decision to return evacuees will be made by the ____ _______.

A

Incident Commander

EOC staff

314
Q

The primary players in the Command Team are?

A

The primary players in the Command Team are the IC,
Support Officer, and Senior Advisor.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

315
Q

What tactical objective is ongoing through an incident?

A

Provide for the safety, accountability, and welfare of personnel.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

316
Q

What hand lines may be used to protect

exposures from defensive positions outside of the collapse zone.

A

Large volume hand lines such as 2 ½ inch and 2 inch lines may be used to protect
exposures from defensive positions outside of the collapse zone.

317
Q

Command should abandon marginal attacks when:

A
  1. A primary all clear is obtained and the situation is still marginal.
  2. The roof is unsafe or untenable. Especially working fires in large unsupported or lightweight trussed
    attic spaces.
  3. Interior forces encounter heavy heat and cannot locate the fire or cannot make any progress on the
    fire.
  4. Heavy smoke is being forced from the building under pressure and is increasing.
318
Q

Alert 1 will dispatch what unit(s)?

A

Alert 1: Response consists of one (1) Engine Company.

319
Q
  1. Search, rescue, and treatment
  2. Ventilate
  3. Forcible entry
  4. Raise ladders
  5. ____________/___________
  6. Utility control
  7. Provide lighting
  8. Operate ladder pipes (aerials and platforms only)
  9. Perform overhaul
  10. Extrication
  11. _____ _______
A
  1. Provide access/check fire extension

11. Loss control

320
Q

The tactical priorities listed in order are?

A

A. Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured.
B. Stabilize the incident and provide for life safety.
C. Conserve property.
D. Provide for the safety, accountability, and welfare of personnel. This priority is ongoing throughout
the incident.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

321
Q

As an incident grows who has the responsibility to decide whether or not to expand the organization to include branches?

A

Senior Advisor has the responsibility to decide whether or not to expand the organization to include branches.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

322
Q

PPE for tx. of a radiological pt. includes?

A

All treatment personnel should use SCBA or dust-filtering type masks, long sleeve shirts or coats, gloves and nomex hoods.

323
Q

“multi-patient incident” is defined as any incident with fewer than ____ patients.

A

twenty (25)

324
Q

The roles and responsibilities of the ________ Team are identical to the roles and responsibilities of the Incident Advisory Team.

A

command

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

325
Q

Status 3 is an urgent message for ALL Rescues to:

A

return to service as quickly as possible.

326
Q

The following sectors shall be established on all structural training fires.

RIC (rescue)-must be manned by:

A

This sector will be manned by experienced firefighting personnel (not recruit firefighters) and each Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) shall consist of a minimum of three firefighters.

327
Q

For stray uninjured animals and dangerous animals, who should you contact?

A

Maricopa County Animal Control

328
Q

It is imperative that our incident
command system utilize the same strategic decision making model for operations at violent incidents as it does for structural fire incidents.

The strategic decision making model includes:

A
  1. The identification of the incident’s critical factors
  2. Selection of the appropriate risk management plan
  3. Identification of strategy
  4. Development of an Incident Action Plan (IAP)
  5. Identification and completion of the incidents tactical objectives
329
Q

The Incident Safety System is implemented any time:

A

the Phoenix Fire Department responds to an incident.

330
Q

What sector serves as the liaison between
the Fire Department and those citizens (responsible parties) directly, or perhaps indirectly involved in or
affected by the incident?

A

Occupant services sector

331
Q

Level II staging should be considered for:

A
  • Greater alarms
  • first alarm medical
  • hazardous materials incidents
332
Q

CALSSRC defines what as:

Any person who receives our services and anyone with who our members have dealings.

A

Customer

CUSTOMER SERVICE MANAGEMENT
M.P. 201.00

333
Q

Aircraft emergencies are broken down into three categories: Alert 1, Alert 2, and Alert 3.

What alert Indicates that an aircraft is having major difficulties?

A

Alert 2: Indicates that an aircraft is having major difficulties (i.e. a positive indication of fire on board the
aircraft; faulty landing gear; no hydraulic pressure; engine failure on a two-engine large aircraft;
etc.) A difficult or crash landing may be expected.

334
Q

During a violent incident, the Alarm Room will be informed of the incident address or location and request a premises alert for a minimum of one-quarter (1/4) mile radius. This will allow:

A
  1. PD evacuation zones and routes

2. provide a buffer zone for active shooter scenarios

335
Q

What is critical to address while building your Incident Action Plan on fires involving high piled outside combustible storage?

A

Water supply is critical (pumped water/reversing off forward pumper, relay operations, drafting
operations)

336
Q

Rescue efforts should be extended in the following order:

A
  • Most severely threatened
  • The largest number (groups)
  • The remainder of the fire area
  • The exposed areas
337
Q

The following sectors shall be established on all structural training fires.

Rehab- Who is assigned to Rehab sector at Training fires?

A

All personnel not assigned to other sectors will be under the direction of Rehab.

338
Q

The triage priority during a rapid extrication or

extraction event is to identify:

A

critical/viable patients.

339
Q

On scene at incidents we will always operate within the ______ ______ ______ .

A

incident command system

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

340
Q

Who may be assigned to Secure Utilities other than a truck or squad company?

A

C957 may be assigned

341
Q

During a confined space rescue request _______ response if there has been a serious injury or death.

A

OSHA

342
Q

The Fast-attack-mobile Command mode will end with one of the following:

A

A. Situation is stabilized.
B. Command is transferred from the fast attack company officer IC to a later arriving command officer.
C. If the situation is not stabilized, the fast attack company officer IC must move to an exterior
(stationary) command position and is now in the Command mode. The company officer must
decide whether or not to withdraw the remainder of the crew, based on the crew’s capabilities
and experience, safety issues, and the ability to communicate with the crew. No crew will
remain in a hazardous area without radio communications.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

343
Q

Who has overall responsibility for the safety of responders working at an emergency scene?

A

IC

344
Q

Shut down all heavy equipment and re-route non-essential traffic at least ___ feet from the collapse area at a trench rescue.

A

300

345
Q

What attack line provides Fast, mobile, greater volume, 175 GPM?

A

1 3/4”

346
Q

First due companies approaching the scene with any evidence of a working fire in a structure should lay
their own supply line. Exceptions to this guideline may include:

A
  • Obvious critical rescue requiring a full crew
  • Unsure of actual fire location in multi-unit building complex
  • Hydrant within fifty feet of the fire
347
Q

If an animal is injured to such an extent that its life is in danger, at the discretion of the ranking fire department officer, the animal may be transported to a veterinarian for emergency care. The cost for this treatment will either be passed on to the owner, if the owner cannot be identified who pays?

A

ASPCA will pay for the treatment

348
Q

For a mercury release we SHALL NOT ENTER THE REPORTED SPILL AREA, UNLESS FOR:

A

RESCUE OR TREATMENT

349
Q

What three factors have a critical effect on the fire behavior of a wildland fire?

A

The factors are: WEATHER, FUEL, and TOPOGRAPHY.

350
Q

What is initiated and utilized to assist in managing Command Mode - Stationary Command Post incidents?

A

The tactical worksheet shall be initiated and utilized to assist in managing these types of incidents.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

351
Q

There is no greater time for a clear and concise utilization of the ____ _______ _______ than
during a Mayday event

A

Risk Management System

352
Q

When emergency vehicles must travel in center or oncoming traffic lanes, the maximum permissible
speed shall be:

A

20 mph.

353
Q

When an incident becomes so large that an Incident Management Team (IMT) is requested,
Command will not transfer to the IMT (Type I/III) unless a formal written _________ __ __________has
been signed by both the JHA and the IMT.

A

Delegation of Authority

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

354
Q

In situations where the simultaneous arrival of first due companies happens, who determines who actually arrived first?

A

It will be the ongoing responsibility of Dispatch to confirm the arrival of the first on-scene
unit.

355
Q

Hazards associated with structural collapse include:

A
  • Secondary collapse.
  • Explosion and fire.
  • Broken gas and water lines.
  • Energized electrical lines.
  • Falling debris.
356
Q

Who will be responsible to see the passports are retrieved.

A

Both the Company Officer and Accountability Officer

357
Q

Violent incidents involving medical patients should utilized standard Command Procedures and EMS
responsibilities. Command is responsible for the completion of the tactical objectives. The general tactical
objectives, listed in order of priority, are:

A
  1. Remove endangered occupants and treat the injured.
  2. Stabilize the incident and provide for life safety.
  3. Ensure the functions of triage, extrication, treatment and transportation are established as needed and
    performed appropriately.
  4. Provide for the safety, accountability and welfare of rescue personnel and victims.
  5. Conserve property.
358
Q

“Special Use” landing zones are technical by nature and shall be staffed by members of the ___________ at both the base and off-site landing zones.

A

Technical Rescue Team

359
Q

OSHA states that “once fire fighters begin the interior attack on an interior structural fire, the atmosphere is
assumed _______ and what standard applies?

A

IDLH

[two-in/two-out]

360
Q

Requests for emergency transportation outside Phoenix must meet the following criteria prior to any response by a Phoenix Rescue:

A

• First, request to that city current C.O.N. holder
• Second, request to an air transport C.O.N. holder*
• Third, request to Phoenix Fire Department**
**Patient must be unstable or patient condition would worsen as a result of an extended wait for an
ambulance.

361
Q

What safety intervention approach occurs in the on-going incident planning process?

A

The third approach occurs in the on-going incident planning process.

362
Q

Each member of the Operations Division shall be accountable for one (1) S.C.B.A. and shall check the condition of that S.C.B.A. at the:

A
  • beginning of each shift
  • after each use
  • and at any other time it may be necessary to render the equipment in a ready state of condition.
363
Q

The first ___ functions of command must be addressed immediately from the initial assumption of Command.

A

six

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

364
Q

Ventilation hole(s) of at least ___% of roof surface of the involved area is a rule of thumb to consider.

A

10%

365
Q

Staging of Rescue companies off the freeway may be required. Rescues should be brought into the scene ___ or ____ at a time.

A

one or two

366
Q

After dispatch, if the TRO receives no acknowledgement within one minute they will:

A

request acknowledgment by radio on all channels and via MCT.

367
Q

The Phoenix Fire Department currently has four buoy wall tanks. Mesa Fire Department has one buoy
wall. The buoy wall tanks will hold either 3,000 or 4,000 gallons of water.

A

3,000 or 4,000

368
Q

In the “basic offensive fire plan” do you id critical factors or take command first?

A
  1. Take Command
  2. Identify critical fireground factors
  3. Address 2 in / 2 out decision prior to entry
  4. First line–fast, aggressive interior attack
  5. Provide support activities (e.g., ventilation,
    forcible entry)
  6. Do primary search
  7. Second line–backup first/cover opposite
    side
  8. Pumped water
  9. Quickly evaluate success and react

Fire Control M.P. 202.04

369
Q

The first unit arriving on the scene of a multiple unit freeway incident will determine if the D.P.S. has established a ________ ____.

A

Command Post.

370
Q

Salvage objectives are:

A
  • Stop or reduce the source of damage

* Protect or remove contents

371
Q

During heat stress management time of year, IC’s are responsible for monitoring and managing:

Consider the establishment of a ________ Sector/Division/Group on all working fires

A

Rehab

372
Q

“Bump bags” are hose packs that consist of?

A

These hose packs consist of 1 ½” “trunk” line with a gated “y” and one or two 1” forestry hose lines with nozzle.

373
Q

When there are no working incidents the who is responsible for initiating the ICS?

A

Alarm Room Battalion Chief and Supervisor share the
responsibility of initiating the ICS.

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

374
Q

Successful options for fighting a tire fire have been employed individually and in many cases, in
combination with one another. Reduced to the lowest common denominator, these options are:

A
  • Burn it
  • Bury it
  • Drown it
375
Q

If we respond to a unsafe trench or excavation, personnel are not allowed where?

A

It shall be the policy of the Phoenix Fire Department

that NO personnel shall be allowed into an unsafe trench or excavation.

376
Q

What is the critical factor in a primary search?

A

Time is the critical factor in the primary search process

377
Q

What is one of the most commonly used insulation types?

A

cellulose

378
Q

How many people could be affected for a “large-Scale evacuation”?

A

A large or concentrated release of a hazardous substance may cause a large scale evacuation. Thousands of citizens could be evacuated.

379
Q

The value of exposures in FG Factors is under what factor?

A

Arrangement

Fireground Factors M.P. 202.02

380
Q

During major incidents, one company per____ patients should be the initial objective (one rescuer per patient).

A

four (4)

381
Q

Elapsed time notifications are generated every ___ minutes until the situation is placed _____ _______.

A

5

under control

382
Q

Implementation of the passport system will occur:

A

at any incident that requires the use of an SCBA.

383
Q

This level of evacuation affects off-site homes and businesses and normally affects fewer than 100 people. People may remain out of the area for two to four hours or more

A

INTERMEDIATE LEVEL EVACUATION

384
Q

All personnel on-scene shall be:

A
  • Positioned in Staging.
  • Assigned to a task or operating within a sector.

• Having completed an assignment and no other assignment is available within that sector, crews
should be assigned to a Resource, Staging, or Rehabilitation Sector until such time as they can
be reassigned to an operating sector or released to in-service status.

385
Q

The ________________ is responsible for the accountability of crews assigned to Rehab Sector.

A

Rehab Sector Officer

386
Q

How do staging sector officers stay visible and accessible?

A

This will be accomplished by leaving the red lights operating on the staging officers apparatus and by wearing a sector vest.

387
Q

Should a situation occur where a later arriving Company or Command officer cannot locate or communicate with Command (after several radio attempts), they will:

A

assume and announce their assumption of Command and initiate whatever actions are necessary to confirm the safety of the missing crew

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

388
Q

If two (2) large scale incidents are working simultaneously, each incident may use ___% of Automatic Aid resources.

A

(35%)

389
Q

Only _____ Rescues will be allowed out-of-service at one time for scheduled activities such as P.M.,
training, physicals, etc.

A

two

390
Q

Start cones at 65 feet for what road speed?

A

25 mph

391
Q

Any type of incident in which Fire Department members may be exposed to harm as a result of a violent or threatening act. Defines what?

A

A violent incident

392
Q

The Fast-attack-mobile Command mode should not last more than a how long?

A

a few minutes

COMMAND PROCEDURES
M.P. 201.01

Capt. 2016 (4 decks)

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