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Capt. 2016 > Last Capt. test questions > Flashcards

Last Capt. test questions Flashcards

1
Q

A reasonable guideline for pts initially for extrication sector is:

A

one company for 5 victims

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2
Q

Drawbacks to “drowning” a tire fire are:

A

An increase in the toxic air emissions as the fire is cooled causing the combustion process to slow down. The drown it strategy is best employed with forethought and careful pre-planning.

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3
Q

The hot zone is defined as:

A

any area that requires the use of an SCBA.

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4
Q

If asbestos is determined in any layer of material, in concentrations greater than __%, the structure/house may not be used for any type of training activities, including burns, forcible entry, etc.

A

1%

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5
Q

If ladder crews cannot get on the roof to ventilate because of fire conditions/roof profile, Command should consider this a:

A

marginal situation.

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6
Q

Tactical objectives for HIGH PILED OUTSIDE COMBUSTIBLE STORAGE FIRES are:

A
  1. Firefighter Safety
  2. Exposure Protection
  3. Environmental Protection (including public health)
  4. Fire Control
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7
Q

The two components of mayday readiness are:

A

Prevention and Response.

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8
Q

Tactical support activities are those functions that assist active fire control and rescue operations. They generally include:

A

forcible entry, ventilation and the provision of access.

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9
Q

Key tactical positions should be identified and engines placed in those locations with a ______ water supply.

A

strong

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10
Q

Level 1 staging is automatically in effect when:

A

Level I Staging is automatically in effect for all incidents with three or more companies responding.

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11
Q

the inability to provide an adequate airway or ventilation, lack of a palpable pulse, in the non-traumatic patient. This defines what type of medical problem?

A

Uncontrollable medical problems

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12
Q

The Phoenix Police Air Unit has the ability to put ___ Bambi Buckets in service; they each can hold ___ gallons of water and helicopters with full buckets are prohibited from what?

A

-two
-67-96 gallons
-Helicopters with full buckets are prohibited from flying over occupied structures or traffic.
Roadways must be closed or structures evacuated if no other flight path can be used.

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13
Q

Water on carpeting in itself is damaging. It is made worse by soot and broken glass being ground in when stepping on the carpet. ____ ______ should be used to avoid staining and grinding in soot.

A

Hall runners

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14
Q

When should the first progress report be given? What should be included in it?

A

The first progress
report should be given after initial action has been implemented and should include the correct address and an improved description of the building and fire conditions if the arrival report was incomplete.

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15
Q

Performing skills like forcible entry and ventilation should be done with ____ ______ in mind.

A

loss control

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16
Q

Two (2) or more adjacent first due areas will be uncovered for more than 30 minutes; what will occur at the dispatch center?

A

The need for move-up companies will be evaluated whenever:
• A working fire is declared.
• Three (3) or more units are committed to an incident in an outlying area.
• Greater Alarms are dispatched.
• Simultaneous working incidents occur in one area of the City.
• Coverage in an area is compromised.
• Two (2) or more adjacent first due areas will be uncovered for more than 30 minutes.

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17
Q

Proper disposal of the hazardous material(s) in a clandestine laboratory is the responsibility of:

A

the law enforcement agency that is making the seizure.

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18
Q

What items are addressed in a follow up report?

A
  1. Any immediate safety concerns
  2. Accountability started (announce the initial accountability location)
  3. Disposition of resources (hold/add/return)
  4. IRIC - in place and identify
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19
Q

If a nuclear weapon involves fire, evacuate the area of _____ feet, in all directions, immediately. All down wind areas must be checked for contamination.

A

2,000

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20
Q

Medical supply sector should be established on:

A

3rd Alarm Medical or greater incidents

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21
Q

In many cases, before committing to a haz mat scene you should do what?

A

EVALUATION BY HAZARDOUS MATERIALS

TEAM MEMBERS BEFORE COMMITTING IS THE SAFEST APPROACH.

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22
Q

Triage tags should be used any time there are _____ or more IMMEDIATE patients or more than _______ patients.

A

Triage tags should be used any time there are three (3) or more IMMEDIATE patients or more than ten (10) patients.

EMS RESPONSIBILITIES M.P. 203.01

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23
Q

If a First Alarm Brush is being used and Command wants to provide relief for crews, Command should call for a Second Alarm _________.

A

Rehab

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24
Q

In wildland, there is no smoking within what range of any aircraft?

A

50’

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25
Q

Place ingress and egress ladders into the trench. There should be at least __ ladders placed into the trench no more than __ feet apart.

A

2, 50’

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26
Q

A typical structure engine. Crew of 4 personnel, minimum 400 gallon tank and 1000 gpm pump; what type of engine is this in wildland?

A

Type 1 engine

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27
Q

What is the radio code for rape?

A

261

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28
Q

Based on pre arrival information, deployment(dispatch center) can upgrade a response up to what level?

A

Deployment will dispatch the appropriate assignment and upgrade the response as necessary based on information received up to a Working First Alarm until command is established upon the arrival of the first unit.

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29
Q

During high levels of activity what may dispatch do to advise units?

A

ADVISE UNITS TO CHECK MCT’s FOR DISPATCH.

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30
Q

Thermal Imaging Camera (TIC), while operating in an Offensive Strategy, may enhance:

A

enhance the visibility in a visibly diminished atmosphere,thus increasing fire fighter safety and survival, as well as improving the survival potential of our customers.

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31
Q

What in car batteries makes them an explosion hazard?

A

hydrogen vapors

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32
Q

Unit requirements(ENG. LAD. BC ETC..) are also expressed as primary or secondary.
A unit can fulfill ___ primary requirement.
A unit can fulfill _____ secondary requirement.

A

one

more than one

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33
Q

Exceptions to laying a supply line are?

A
  • Obvious critical rescue requiring a full crew
  • Unsure of actual fire location in multi-unit building complex
  • Hydrant within fifty feet of the fire
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34
Q

A “disaster” is defined as any incidents involving more than:

A

100 patients.

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35
Q

During evacuation where immediate and rapid evacuation makes door-to-door notification impossible, use _____ five-second blasts of the siren while on the “____” setting

A

three (3), YELP

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36
Q

A fire investigation is conducted after ____ _____ and salvage activities are completed, but
before _______ actions, which could hinder the investigation.

A

fire control

overhaul

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37
Q

Additional alarms should be struck sequentially which includes going from a 2 and 1 assignment to a______to a ______, etc.

A

1st alarm, 2nd alarm

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38
Q

a “less experienced” fire fighter is defined as:

A

A. Probationary fire fighter.

B. Any member with less than two years total experience assigned to fire fighting duties.

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39
Q

“On Deck” is defined as;

A

a forward staging position located just outside the immediate hazard zone, safely distanced from the entrance of a tactical position/Sector.

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40
Q

Rehab sector will have how many points of entry/egress?

A

The Rehab Sector area boundaries will be defined and will have only one entry point.

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41
Q

Any WORKING FIRST ALARM BRUSH assignment or greater will be deemed a:

A

wildland fire and

receive appropriate additional resources.

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42
Q

What is the minimum time to spend in REHAB sector?

A

20 min

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43
Q

During major incidents where a “Logistics” Section is implemented, the Staging Sector will be working under the direction of the:

A

Logistics Officer.

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44
Q

Deployment will sound the ALL CALL tone and make a general announcement over Dispatch Channel 1 of the
following incidents:

A
  • Working First Alarm fires
  • Greater Alarms
  • At the discretion of the on-duty Deployment BC and/or Supervisor
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45
Q

Any area that requires an SCBA, charged hoseline, special protective clothing, or in which Fire fighting Personnel are at risk of becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure is considered what zone?

A

Hot Zone

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46
Q

If overall coverage in the City of Phoenix falls below ___ engine companies and ___ ladder companies,
Deployment will immediately notify the South Shift Commander who has the responsibility to authorize the
recall of off duty personnel to staff reserve companies if necessary.

A

12

three (3)

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47
Q

An important element of loss control is to extinguish the fire. Fighting the fire from the ________ _________ will effect loss control.

A

unburned portion

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48
Q

The first priority in defensive operations is _______ ______; the second is ______ ________.

A

personnel safety

exposure protection

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49
Q

The goal of overhaul is to:

A
  • reduce the incidence of secondary fires
  • control loss
  • stabilize the incident scene
  • providing for firefighter safety

Additional objectives include:
• Preserving evidence
• Securing the fire scene

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50
Q

Typically staging is assigned to what channel?

A

Channel 2

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51
Q

In wildland a “group” defines what type of work assignment?

A

A functional work assignment

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52
Q

What is the tactic used at a pole fire?

A

Use a fog spray at the base of the pole.

RESPONSE TO POWER LINES/ENERGIZED ELECTRICAL EQUIPMENT
M.P. 205.20

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53
Q

All critiques should be limited to how long?

A

1 - 1 1/2 hours in duration if possible

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54
Q

Command must consider the seven sides (or sectors) of the fire; Fires cannot be considered under control until all seven sides are addressed. Failure to address all
seven sides will frequently results in fire extension. What are the seven sides?

A

front, rear, both sides, top, bottom, and

interior.

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55
Q

Victims buried by a trench collapse or under water for ___ minutes or more, would be unlikely to survive therefore an extremely cautious and a well-planned, safe, recovery operation is required.

A

10

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56
Q

Implementation of the passport system will occur at:

A

any incident that requires the use of an SCBA.

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57
Q

The most significant thing we can do to reduce damage at a fire is to:

A

put the fire out.

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58
Q

Critical patients will always be transported to:

A

the closest appropriate emergency department.

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59
Q

Anytime 10 or more people are evacuated, who should be notified?

A

Duty Deputy advises the City Manager

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60
Q

The Occupant Services Sector should consider additional help for mental health needs. Assistance and adviceon availability of mental health services can be obtained through:

A
  • Critical Incident Debriefing Team
  • Employee Assistance Program Contractor
  • American Red Cross
  • victim’s personal medical insurance
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61
Q

Triage tags should be used any time there are:

A

three (3) or more IMMEDIATE patients or more than ten (10) patients.

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62
Q

Initiating an offensive interior attack, while setting up defensive positions on the exterior is:

A

a marginal situation.

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63
Q

Water rescue plans start from low risk to high and are:

A 
Talk
Reach
Throw
Row
Go
Helo
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64
Q

Who are the main players on the incident advisory team?

Who can fill the role of support advisor?

A

-On the Incident Advisory Team these roles are
filled by the Incident Commander (IC), Support Advisor, and Incident Advisor respectively.

-BSO, ISO, FIT or next arriving command officer

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65
Q

You ventilate a building principally for two reasons:

A
  • To prevent mushrooming

* To gain (and maintain) entry

66
Q

A confined space is defined as:

A
  • A space large enough for personnel to physically enter.
  • A space not designed for continuous employee occupancy.
  • An area with limited entry and egress.
67
Q

The RIC team assigned at training fires will consist of:

A

This sector will be manned by experienced firefighting personnel (not recruit firefighters) and each Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) shall consist of a minimum of three firefighters. A company officer shall be in charge of each RIC unit.

68
Q

Accountability can be terminated:

A

following a report of “fire under control.”

69
Q

Similar to a “sector”. A geographic work assignment would be called a:

A

Division

70
Q

Under the “Umbrella of Service” there are three on-going considerations; they are?

A

They are fire fighter safety, customer service, and Loss Control.

71
Q

Where should the decon area be located?

A

The Decontamination Area should be established within the Hot Zone perimeter adjacent to the Entrance/Exit (Lobby Control).

72
Q

Should anything become unsafe during the

approach of any helicopter during landing operations instruct the pilot to:

A

GO AROUND three times.

73
Q

min hoseline size at carfire?

A

1 1/2”

74
Q

whether the helo is running or not, a “tail guard” shall be stationed _________ feet from the tail rotor to keep the area secured

A

50 to 100

75
Q

t starts elapsed time notifications?

A

Change the status to a Working Fire, which starts elapsed time notifications.

76
Q

During training fires, who shall be on scene to supervise the overall operation.

A

An on-duty battalion chief or other chief officer designated by the Training Academy staff shall be on scene to supervise the overall operation.

77
Q

During major incidents, each crew in treatment sector should have no more than how many pts.?

A

During major incidents, one company per four (4) patients should be the initial objective (one rescuer per patient).

78
Q

For multi unit medical responses, the first arriving ALS unit will:

A

proceed directly to the scene.

79
Q

the average car tire holds how much oil?

A

2.5 gallons

80
Q

An evaluation of the number of patients involved and the complexity of extrication requirements is an immediate priority. A reasonable guideline is an initial commitment of one company per ______ victims.

A

five (5)

81
Q

What are the three levels of evacuation?

A
  1. Site- Small # of people and
82
Q

The maximum number of Sectors that an IC can effectively manage is:

A

usually five sectors and should never exceed seven sectors.

83
Q

How do we package pts. of a radiological incident?

A

Before transporting, all contaminated patients must be wrapped in blankets or sheets to completely cover them in order to limit the spread of contamination. Only the face should be left exposed.

84
Q

All crews entering building must bring a minimum of __ spare SCBA bottle and when using stairs to ascend, crews must collectively check their air
supply every __ floors, managed by the captain.

A

1 spare scba bottle

5 floors

85
Q

Command should establish a Roof Sector during offensive fire operations to:

A

evaluate roof conditions and to complete roof ventilation.

86
Q

NFPA Standard 1403, is in relation to what activities?

A

TRAINING FIRES; The purpose of this procedure is to establish standard guidelines for conducting structural training fires while complying with NFPA Standard 1403.

87
Q

The flammable limits of natural gas are?

A

4%-15% in air

88
Q

Master streams are generally the most effective tactic to be employed in defensive operations. For tactical
purposes, a standard master stream flow of at least ___ GPM should be the guideline.

A

750

89
Q

Fireground perimeter at a high rise incident is?

A

200’

90
Q

Listed below are general recommendations for the start of traffic cones/flares: at 40 mph start cones at:

A

105 feet

91
Q

Level 1 staged apparatus at a trench rescue should park how far away from the trench?

A

at least 150’ away

92
Q

The only way to guarantee a successful outcome of a Mayday situation is:

A

to PREVENT IT!

93
Q

The preferred agent for flammable liquid fire fighting is:

A

AFFF/Class B Foam

94
Q

Who assumes command of an incident?

A

The first fire department member or unit to arrive at the scene of a multiple unit response shall assume
command of the incident*.

95
Q

A “mass casualty incident” is defined as any incident involving:

A

25 to 100 patients.

96
Q

For radio communications, the following designations will be recognized as standard: Firefighter on any unit?

A

E1, FF Smith

97
Q

A “multi-patient incident” is defined as any incident with fewer than:

A

twenty (25) patients.

98
Q

A radio code 906 indicates?

A

Fire unit/s/ need immediate police department assistance.

99
Q

When animals pose danger to humans, who should be notified?

A

Animal Control will respond. (Also request that PD

respond.) Their telephone number can be accessed on the CAD via “MDTINFO ANIMALS.”

100
Q

Activation of the low-air warning (vibe alert/whistle) is an immediate action item for the individual and the crew involved. Immediate action is described as:

A

notifying command of low-air alarm activation and immediately exiting the IDLH atmosphere intact as a crew and notifying command that you are out with a PAR after exiting.

101
Q

A “trench rescue” excavation will be defined as:

A

a depression, hole, trench, or earth wall, man made or natural, of four feet or greater.

102
Q

What is one ems tactical benchmark usually completed by transportation sector?

A

“ALL IMMIDIATES TRANSPORTED”

103
Q

The quickest method to reduce damage to a structure during fire operations is to?

A

An important element of loss control is to extinguish the fire. Fighting the fire from the unburned portion will effect loss control.

LOSS CONTROL M.P. 202.12

104
Q

The objective of the attack hose line choice is to:

A

-provide enough GPM flow to overcome the volume of
fire being produced
-adequate flow to effectively cool and protect exposures.

105
Q

Lobby sector shall limit entry to authorized personnel with appropriate PPE, when civilian access is needed they shall:

A

be accompanied by a firefighter with a portable

radio.

106
Q

When should command assign a command officer to sector responsibilities?

A

Command will assign a Command Officer to assume Sector responsibilities as soon as possible.

107
Q

For radio communications, the following designations will be recognized as standard: Battalion Field Incident Technician

A

Battalion FIT

108
Q

A Greater Alarm request requires both a _______ _____ ____ and the ______ ____ .

A

Greater Alarm Type

Response Level

109
Q

__________ is the time it takes for a company to reach their assignment area after receiving an order.

A

“In Transit” and varies due to:

  • Distance between staging and the incident
  • Size of the incident perimeter
  • Amount of equipment the company needs to assemble
110
Q

What are the three levels of evacuation?

A
  1. Site- small number of citizens and generally less than an hour or two
  2. Intermediate- normally affects fewer than 100 people and people may remain out of the area for two to four hours or more
  3. Large scale- Thousands of citizens could be evacuated and evacuees may be out of their homes and businesses for many hours if not days.
111
Q

What will provide added hand protection during tire fires?

A

Surgical gloves under the leather gloves will give added protection from contact with the contaminated water, oil, and mud.

112
Q

Hazard zone perimeter at a trench incident?

A

50’

113
Q

Who are the main players in the command team?

A

The primary players in the Command Team are the:
IC (Capt., BC)

Support Officer (BSO, ISO, FIT next arriving command officer)

Senior Advisor (Shift commander)

COMMAND PROCEDURES M.P. 201.01

114
Q

Major tire fire should be handled as what type of incidents?

A

haz-mat

115
Q

What stream should be avoided in the fighting of basement fires?

A

crews should not use fog streams when operating in basement fires. Steam production will be extensive, straight streams should be used.

116
Q

Slower speeds while laying a supply line provide several advantages:

A
  • Reduces the risk of striking pedestrians or vehicles or firefighters
  • Provides time for the Company Officer to size-up and evaluate critical fire ground factors.
  • Provides time for the Engineer to appropriately spot the apparatus.
117
Q

Listed below are general recommendations for the start of traffic cones/flares: at 25 mph start cones at:

A

65 feet

118
Q

Command should use what as a guide when requesting additional units?

A

Command instinctively feels the need to summon additional resource–(don’t disregard fireground hunches).

WHEN TO SUMMON ADDITIONAL RESOURCES M.P. 201.06A

119
Q

The preferred method for transfer of command is?

A

Face-to-face is the preferred method to transfer Command

120
Q

When staging on a violent incident, you should stage in quarters within 1 mile of the incident; if not within one mile, where do you stage?

A

If the scene is further than one mile, companies should
stage in a location that allows them to reach the scene within a reasonable amount of time.

Operations at Violent Incidents M.P. 206.01

121
Q

Who has the full authority to stop activities at a training fire?

A

The Safety Officer shall have full authority to intervene and control or stop any aspect of the operations when in his/her judgment; a potential or real risk to personnel exists.

122
Q

an interior attack on an aircraft fire requires what sizes hoseline?

A

Deploy an attack line to the aircraft’s interior, without inhibiting passenger egress. Fire intensity will
require the use of 1-3/4” or 2” hand-lines, utilizing fog patterns.

123
Q

Any “Special Use” of helicopters during rescue operations will require a ______ ______ sector to be
established by Command.

A

Technical Rescue Sector

124
Q

OSHA defines an incipient stage fire as:

A

-a “fire which is in the initial or beginning stage and which can be controlled or extinguished by portable fire
extinguishers
-Class II standpipe or small hose systems without the need for protective clothing or breathing
apparatus.”

125
Q

Providing evacuation zone security and id transportation needs falls to who during evacuation?

A

Police

126
Q

During structural collapse incidents, first responders should be assigned to:

A

remove victims and the “walking wounded” from the surface of the collapse area.

127
Q

A haz-mat incident has two initial zones; what are they?

A

LIMITED ACCESS ZONE and the EVACUATION ZONE.

128
Q

What are our primary considerations when performing salvage operations?

A

Replacement price and value should be primary considerations when performing salvage
operations.

129
Q

ALL PERSONNEL ENTERING THE HOT ZONE SHALL:
1.
2.
3

A

.• WEAR FULL TURNOUTS
• HAVE CREW INTACT
• BE ASSIGNED TO A SECTOR

130
Q

Increased heat absorption/expansion, shorter reach and most effective in confined spaces and protecting exposures; This definition indicates what hose stream type?

A

Peripheral:

131
Q

In wildland all state and federal resources must be on the ground how long before sunset?

A

30 minutes prior to sunset

132
Q

When Lobby Sector is established all personnel entering the building or area must report to _______ _______ before reporting to any other sector or assignment.

A

Lobby Sector

133
Q

the _______ ________has the responsibility to decide whether or not to expand the organization to include branches

A

Senior Advisor

134
Q

At smaller incidents (up to 10 patients), trige should be handled by:

A

the first arriving company officer and his/her crew.

135
Q

Listed below are general recommendations for the start of traffic cones/flares: at 60 mph start cones at:

A

160 feet

136
Q

Ladders should extend how far above the roof line?

A

2’ - 3’

137
Q

green salvage covers will ID what level of triaged pts.?

A

Minor

138
Q

The two categories of (TRT) rescue are:

A

• Non-Technical - rescues with angles of inclination less than 40º. Most first responders have the equipment and training to affect this type of rescue.

• Technical - rescues with angles of inclination from 40º to 90º. These rescues typically involve ropes and /or rope systems and shall be performed by rescuers
trained to the level of Technical Rescue Technician (TRT).

139
Q

for an aircraft fire discharge what type of foam to provide egress to passengers?

A

class b foam

140
Q

In wildland what does “LCES” stand for?

A

(Lookouts, Communication, Escape Routes, and Safety Zones)

141
Q

During events involving clandestine drug labs it is imperative that:

A

nothing is moved, shut off, turned on, or touched,

at a laboratory, whether it is operational or abandoned.

142
Q

How far back is a PPV fan placed?

A

Fans should be positioned 12-15 feet back from the entry point. The objective is to create a pressure
“cone” effect around the door. This position will also allow access for crews to enter the building.

143
Q

The tactical benchmark for the end point of a Mayday is:

A

“Mayday resolved”.

144
Q

A non-pumped 500 foot 4” supply line can flow ___ GPM.

A

800

145
Q

Command must be advised ___________ of significant changes, particularly those involving the ability or
inability to complete an objective, hazardous conditions, accidents, structural collapse, etc.

A

immediately

146
Q

Typical Phoenix regional “brush truck”. Minimum crew of two, approx. 200 gallon tank and 50 gpm pump with higher pump pressure capacity than an engine and pump and- roll capability. Typically 4-wheel drive for off-road fire suppression; what type of engine is this in wildland?

A

Type 6 engine

147
Q

Any situation where a firefighter is unable to safely exit the hazard zone or an event that cannot be resolved by
that individual within 30 seconds, defines what?

A

a Mayday Situation

148
Q

Any phoenix transit buses, if needed on large medical incidents must be dispatched by:

A

radio.

149
Q

During a radiological incident, hazard zone tape should be stretched to define an area with MR/HR readings of what level are detected?

A

Hazard Zone tape shall be stretched to define an area where readings of 2MR/hr are detectable.

150
Q

In the City of Phoenix, a high-rise building is defined as:

A

6 elevator stops or greater or 75 feet in height or greater.

151
Q

What is one way to make the tree rescue area safe?

A

A. Maintain awareness of all electrical lines in the vicinity.

B. Watch for falling debris, branches, or tree skirt which can become particularly problematic during windy conditions.

C. Identify any other hazards that are present and ensure they are secured and made
safe.

152
Q

The _________ Section is the support mechanism for the organization in command procedures.

A

Logistics

153
Q

What are the approaches that can be taken to protect yourself and all crewmembers around moving traffic?

A
  1. Never trust the traffic
  2. Engage in proper protective parking
  3. Wear high visibility reflective vests
  4. Reduce motorist vision impairment
  5. Use traffic cones and flares
154
Q

The ______ ______ position within the Command Team should be filled prior to the implementation of any rescue plan proposed by Rescue Sector.

A

Technical Advisor

155
Q

Positive pressure ventilation is effective only when applied properly. Two major items are required:

A
  1. An “exit” for the pressurized air must be provided and must be located in the fire area. This is generally a window, door or other opening.
  2. Positive pressure ventilation must be injected from the unburned side of the fire.
156
Q

For lobby sector in a Special Ops Incident: Define lobby perimeter with:

A

HAZARD ZONE tape.

157
Q

Should transport of level 1 patients be permitted before decon is complete?

A

Yes; Transporting of Level I patients should not be delayed for complete decontamination. Patients should be quickly treated for life threatening injuries simultaneous with decontamination efforts.

158
Q

Radio code 261 indicates to deployment that:

A

your on-scene of a rape.

159
Q

Deployment will send a cover assignment if no reply is received within a ___ minute timeframe.

A

two (2)

160
Q

The use of ________ _______ should be initiated only when the hazard appears to be imminent or has
just occurred.

A

“Emergency Traffic”

161
Q

During overhaul; pulling ceiling, what is the preferred size for your inspection holes? Remember that to relieve excess water in the attic space and to reduce loss, drill:

A

6”x6”

drainage holes into the ceiling.

162
Q

Rescuing pets or animals during an incident should take the same priority as:

A

any loss control activity.

Capt. 2016 (4 decks)

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