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Level 5 CDC > Volume 2 > Flashcards

Volume 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?

A

Drug and Alcohol

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2
Q

Information that may affect a patient’s morale, character, medical progress, or mental health is considered

A

Sensitive

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3
Q

If a physician determines that a direct disclosure of medical information to the patient could have an adverse effect on the physical or mental health or safety and welfare of the individual,

A

Only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations.

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4
Q

Which kind of information cannot be released without a patient’s informed consent?

A

General extent of the injury or disease.

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5
Q

What establishes your identity to Composite Health Care System (CHCS) and authenticates your use of the system?

A

Access and verify codes

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6
Q

Which is not an input used for accessing help in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?

A

OLUM

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7
Q

To avoid confusion and duplication, what action should be taken prior to registering a new patient in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?

A

Accomplish a “Patient Lookup”

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8
Q

The validity of registration data entered into the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) is critical because

A

it is used by every CHCS user within the MTF

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9
Q

A perpetual link exists between the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) and the Defense Enrollment Eligibility System (DEERS) to accomplish what task?

A

Verify the patient’s eligibility for care

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10
Q

What information can be obtained using the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) Patient Record Inquiry option?

A

History of the record’s movement

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11
Q

What information does the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) record when using the Check-In Record option?

A

Date and Time of record being returned.

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12
Q

Which Composite Health Care System (CHCS) component is composed of timeslots that have been assigned appropriate appointment types, durations and a maximum number of patient slots?

A

Schedule

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13
Q

In Composite Health Care System (CHCS) what does the Schedule Hold Duration parameter (located in the clinic profile) accomplish?

A

Defines how much time will elapse before the system automatically releases frozen slots

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14
Q

If a divorced sponsor remarries, the new spouse’s family member prefix (FMP) will be

A

31

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15
Q

Which number is blocked on the right hand side of the AF Form 2100A series health record for a sponsor whose social security number is 987–65–4321?

A

1

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16
Q

What procedure would be used to identify the outpatient record of an individual assigned to the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)?

A

Block the last character of the social security number along the right hand side of the record with red tape or marker.

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17
Q

What procedure would be used to identify the outpatient record of an individual assigned to a mobility position?

A

Block the last character of the social security number along the right hand side of the record with a green marker or tape.

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18
Q

When are new outpatient record jackets prepared for patients with existing outpatient records?

A

When the folder no longer protects the contents

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19
Q

Where would miscellaneous forms (forms that are not specifically designated to be filed elsewhere) be placed within an AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient?

A

Section 3

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20
Q

Where is the withdrawal of material from an outpatient medical record to an inpatient record recorded?

A

On SF 600, Health Record-Chronological Record of Medical Care.

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21
Q

Outpatient records are the property of the

A

Department of Defense

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22
Q

If a record must be transferred from one clinic to another, whose responsibility is it to change the location of the record on the AF Form 250, Health Record Charge Out Request?

A

Outpatient records personnel

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23
Q

How often are active duty records inventoried?

A

At least once a year

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24
Q

What reference provides step-by-step instructions for completing records retirement?

A

MRTR2 guide

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25
Q

What type of team are active duty members and their beneficiaries assigned to after the mass medical in-processing briefing?

A

Primary Care Optimization team

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26
Q

When you in-process a medical record and then generate a computer charge-out, to whom do you deliver the records?

A

Primary Care Manager

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27
Q

If for some reason the sponsor’s medical record is not present at the time of out-processing, give the individual a

A

Letter of Non-Availability

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28
Q

When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD Form 2138, Request for Transfer of Outpatient Record, for the dependent?

A

The dependent

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29
Q

When an active duty member is being discharged but does not have any type of orders, what document must they provide before you can release their records to the discharge review board?

A

Memorandum from their squadron

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30
Q

For which of the following would you not create an inpatient record?

A

Stillbirths

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31
Q

Who prepares AF forms 788 series folders for filing inpatient documentation?

A

Inpatient records section technician

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32
Q

A concise clinical summary is dictated and typed on Standard Form (SF) 502, Medical Record-Narrative Summary, for

A

Inpatients received by transfer for further treatment

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33
Q

Final progress notes on Standard Form (SF) 509 may be substituted for narrative summaries for all of the following patients except

A

Patients treated at tactical MTFs

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34
Q

When documenting care in inpatient records, symbols and abbreviations

A

cannot be used when recording the final diagnoses on the AF Form 560

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35
Q

Inpatient records on a family member of a retired Air Force Chief are the property of the

A

Department of Defense

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36
Q

An inpatient record of an Air Force Staff Sergeant admitted on 28 Dec 98 and dispositioned on 4 Jan 99 (no other inpatient episodes) at a facility with an inpatient records library is

A

eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2004

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37
Q

Who performs a risk assessment when the patient verification process results in questionable eligibility?

A

Competent medical authority

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38
Q

Before a patient without proper identification or verification of Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) eligibility is provided care in a military treatment facility (MTF), they must first sign a statement agreeing to provide proof of eligibility within

A

30 days

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39
Q

Who will establish local procedures for management of the quarters program?

A

MTF

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40
Q

After a military treatment facility (MTF) establishes local procedures for management of the Quarters Program, what must be done next?

A

Produce a local quarters authorization form

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41
Q

During completion of a Secretary of the Air Force (SAF)designee letter, the request must contain the effective date, period covered and

A

determination as to whether the Air Force is providing aeromedical evacuation

42
Q

When can patients request for a renewal of their Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) designee status?

A

Continued care is still necessary

43
Q

When an abused family member applies for Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) designee status after the sponsor was discharged from the service, the approval authority is the

A

MTF Commander

44
Q

Generally, applications for designee status are submitted through the

A

command surgeon general’s office to HQ USAF/SGMA

45
Q

In most military treatment facilities (MTF) the majority of requests for Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) designee status come from

A

former Air Force females discharged under honorable conditions who were pregnant at the time of discharge

46
Q

Under the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) Designee Program, pregnant former active duty females are limited to prenatal and delivery, as well as follow up care not to exceed

A

6 weeks

47
Q

Which is not part of the mission of the special needs identification and assignment coordination (SNIAC) process?

A

Locates providers and establishes the consults for care

48
Q

What process provides coordination to determine if family member needs can be met at a projected location prior to the sponsor receiving permanent change of station (PCS) orders?

A

Family member relocation clearance

49
Q

For sponsors on unaccompanied assignments, a family member clearance screening is accomplished by the

A

military training facility in closest proximity to the family.

50
Q

Which is not a requirement for selection to the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)?

A

Individuals must be a citizen of the United States by birth

51
Q

A Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) position is considered critical when duties

A

would permit the launch of nuclear weapons

52
Q

Positions to which individuals are assigned duties on a permanent or full-time basis in direct support of the President of the United States are called

A

category one

53
Q

When an individual is suspended from Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) duties, the military treatment facility (MTF) will

A

take no action

54
Q

Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for physical disability retirement?

A

Air Force

55
Q

Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for disability compensation and hospital benefits?

A

Department of Veterans’ Affairs

56
Q

The three types of line of duty (LOD) determinations are informal, formal and

A

Administrative

57
Q

The purpose of what type of line of duty (LOD) and misconduct investigation is to protect the interests of the member being investigated and to ensure government benefits are awarded justly and according to law?

A

Formal

58
Q

The interim line of duty (LOD) for Reserve members is valid for no more than

A

90 days

59
Q

If the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) determines an administrative line of duty (LOD) is more appropriate after an AF Form 348 has been completed, the SJA will return the AF Form 348 through the Military Personnel Flight (MPF)/DFMPEP to the

A

LOD-MFP

60
Q

The only individual who has the authority to deny a request for reinvestigation of line of duty (LOD) findings is the

A

approval authority

61
Q

Who has the authority to retire or separate members who can no longer perform the duties of their grade because of medical impairment?

A

Secretary of the United States Air Force

62
Q

Who designates the military training facility (MTF) to conduct a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) on a general officer?

A

HQ AFPC/DPAMM

63
Q

When should a first term airman, diagnosed with a seizure disorder, be referred to a Medical Evolution Board (MEB)?

A

Within 90 days of the onset of the illness

64
Q

What special processing should be accomplished when processing an imminent death case for a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB)?

A

None; imminent death processing was rescinded

65
Q

Under normal conditions, how many board members are required for a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB)?

A

Three

66
Q

How often must a member be examined after being placed on the temporary duty retired list (TDRL) by the Physical Evaluation Board (PEB)?

A

At least once every 18 months

67
Q

Which Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) finding is the appointing authority not allowed to reverse?

A

Competency or sanity

68
Q

Which is an appropriate Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) recommendation?

A

Return to duty

69
Q

Who will be reimbursed from military treatment facility (MTF) operating funds on a monthly basis?

A

Managed care support contractor (MCSC)

70
Q

Before you can ensure military treatment facility (MTF) capabilities are fully and accurately defined, what should you review?

A

Service availability listing (SAL)

71
Q

Who has the ultimate responsibility to ensure the AF Form 560 is accurate?

A

Health care provider

72
Q

For which patient would an Air Force commander at the nearest medical treatment facility (MTF) accept administrative responsibility?

A

Active duty Staff Sergeant admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status

73
Q

The number used to identify an inpatient’s case from beginning to end is called

A

a register number

74
Q

When is the only occasion a register number may be omitted?

A

Never

75
Q

Who completes the remaining blocks of the AF Form 560 once the health care provider has completed his or her entries?

A

Admissions technician

76
Q

Which entry is not acceptable for block 21 (Current Organization) of AF Form 560?

A

AD E6 OSI Agent

77
Q

Which Composite Health Care System (CHCS) subsystem supports admissions functions?

A

Patient Administration (PAD)

78
Q

The Admissions and Dispositions Report is a daily report of

A

admissions, dispositions, change of status, newborns, and interward transfers

79
Q

Which is not included in the admission package that accompanies a patient to the inpatient unit?

A

Patient suspense file

80
Q

What action must be accomplished when active duty personnel are admitted to a nonmilitary treatment facility?

A

Complete section 1 of the AF Form 560

81
Q

Infants are admitted as a direct admission (not a liveborn) when they are

A

transferred from a civilian facility

82
Q

An inventory of patient valuables is conducted

A

monthly

83
Q

Active duty members hospitalized in nonmilitary (civilian) hospitals and then moved to a military treatment facility (MTF) are considered

A

a change of status, in

84
Q

When a health care provider makes the decision to report a patient in a casualty status, he or she makes the appropriate entry on

A

AF Form 3066, Doctor’s Orders

85
Q

What form is used to document dates and times of casualty status notifications made to outside organizations and individuals?

A

AF Form 570, Notification of Patient’s Medical Status

86
Q

When must the military treatment facility (MTF) release a deceased patient’s remains to mortuary personnel?

A

Within 24 hours after death

87
Q

How must corrections to medical documentation be accomplished?

A

Line through the incorrect data with one straight line

88
Q

Corrections to entries made in health records should be done by the

A

practitioner who originally entered the incorrect data

89
Q

A provider’s verbal or telephone orders may be taken by

A

a registered nurse only

90
Q

Once a pass has been approved for an inpatient, give the original AF Form 569, Absence Record, Section I to the patient and file the copy in the

A

inpatient record

91
Q

Of the following, who may authorize a patient disposition?

A

Dentist

92
Q

In concert with acquiring long-range aeromedical evacuation (AE) aircraft, full use of helicopters and rapid airlift, what else was instrumental with the reduction of mortality rates?

A

Trained AE crews

93
Q

What usually accommodates from 50 to 250 patients and receives, shelters, processes and provides care to patients who enter in or leave the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?

A

Aeromedical Staging Facility (ASF)

94
Q

What is the largest turbo prop driven cargo aircraft in the Air Force inventory?

A

C-130 Hercules

95
Q

What Air Force asset is the primary aircraft used for aeromedical evacuation (AE) in tactical situations within the combat zone?

A

C-130 Hercules

96
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating patient movement once the mission arrives at the CONUS reception aerial port?

A

Global Patient Movement Requirements Center (GPMRC)

97
Q

Patients requiring rest during a long aeromedical evacuation (AE) flight because of recent surgery should be classified as

A

litter

98
Q

What classification is given to medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?

A

6A

99
Q

What does the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) code written to the left of the red cross on the DD Form 600, Patient’s Baggage Tag represent?

A

The facility where an AE patient will remain overnight (RON) awaiting AE movement to the final destination.

100
Q

To ensure continuous care while patients are in transit, what supply (amount) of medication (in days) must be provided?

A

3-day for intra theater flight; 5-day for inter theater flight

Level 5 CDC (5 decks)

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