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New Cdc Study > Volume 1 Unit 2 > Flashcards

Volume 1 Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The frequency range of the AN/GRT−22 transmitter, in megahertz (MHz), is

a. 114.000 to 149.975.
b. 116.000 to 149.975.
c. 116.000 to 225.000.
d. 225.000 to 399.975.

A

225.000 to 399.975

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2
Q 
In what AN/GRT−21/22 transmitter transmit mode should you connect the antenna to 
K1J3?
a. 10-watt (W).
b. 50-W.
c. High power.
d. Single sideband.
A

10-W

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3
Q 
What AN/GRT−21/22 transmitter component eliminates unwanted harmonics generated in 
the A10 driver?
a. Power detector, DC1.
b. Low pass filter, FL1.
c. Tunable filter, FL2.
d. Multiplier, A9.
A

Tunable Filter

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4
Q

If the AN/GRT−21/22 transmitter power supply temperature is too high, the thermal
detector in the A7 module
a. develops voltage that enables the A2 module to create the +20 volts (V) alternating current
(AC).
b. sends a signal to the power detector, DC1, to enable keying.
c. creates the keyed +20 V direct current (DC).
d. develops the keyer inhibit voltage.

A

Develops key inhibit voltage

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5
Q

What type of multiplier does the AN/GRT−21 transmitter have?

a. Quadrupler.
b. Doubler.
c. Tripler.
d. None.

A

Doubler

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6
Q

The radio frequency (RF) power output of the CM–350 transmitter is

a. 120 volts (V) alternating current (AC).
b. 12 to 35 watts (W).
c. 2 to 35 W.
d. 2 to 12 W.

A

12 - 35W

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7
Q

Which receiver component determines the overall selectivity?

a. Intermediate frequency (IF) filter.
b. Radio frequency (RF) amplifier.
c. Image frequency filter.
d. IF amplifier.

A

Intermediate Frequency Filter

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8
Q

Diode detectors give

a. high-fidelity detection for signals of insufficient amplitude.
b. low-fidelity detection for signals of insufficient amplitude.
c. high-fidelity detection for signals of sufficient amplitude.
d. low-fidelity detection for signals of sufficient amplitude.

A

high-fidelity detection for signals of sufficient amplitude.

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9
Q

Both CM–300 series receivers can operate on

a. 24 volts (V) alternating current (AC) or 120 V direct current (DC).
b. 120 or 240 V AC or 24 V DC.
c. 120 V AC or 24 V DC.
d. 120 or 240 V AC.

A

120 V AC or 24 V DC

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10
Q

What is the transmit duty cycle for the AN/GRC–171 transceiver?

a. 1 minute transmit, 9 minutes receive.
b. 3 minutes transmit, 7 minutes receive.
c. 7 minutes transmit, 3 minutes receive.
d. 9 minutes transmit, 1 minute receive.

A

9 minutes transmit, 1 minute receive

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11
Q

What needs to happen in the CM–350 transceiver configuration antenna transfer relay
(ATR) switch in order to transmit?
a. The transmitter keys, then the ATR routes the transmit signal to the antenna.
b. The ATR routes the transmit signal to the antenna, then the transmitter keys.
c. The transmitter keys, then the ATR routes the receive signal to the antenna.
d. The ATR routes the receive signal to the antenna, then the transmitter keys

A

The ATR routes the transmit signal to the antenna, then the transmitter keys.

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12
Q 
What type of antenna receives well in all directions but also allows interference from all 
directions?
a. Bidirectional.
b. Unidirectional.
c. Omnidirectional.
d. Vertically polarized.
A

Omnidirectional

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13
Q

A theoretically perfect radiator (antenna) that radiates equally well in all directions is

a. horizontally polarized.
b. omnidirectional.
c. bidirectional.
d. isotropic.

A

isotropic

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14
Q

How many channels does the CU–547/GR antenna coupler support?

a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 8.

A

4

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15
Q

When using the Fluke 8025A multimeter, what is the input direct current (DC) voltage
range that can be measured when the function selector is in the DC volts (V) position?
a. 0 to +320.
b. 0 to +1000.
c. –320 to +320.
d. –1000 to +1000.

A

–1000 to +1000

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16
Q

When using the Fluke 8025A multimeter for diode checks, what does it mean when you get
an “OL” indication when you place the leads across the diode and also when the leads are
reversed?
a. Diode is considered operational.
b. You need to use a different probe.
c. Diode is considered non-operational.
d. Diode needs to be checked while connected to a circuit.

A

Diode is considered non-operational

17
Q

What oscilloscope control adjusts how fast the trace is drawn across the screen?

a. Ground (GND) input coupling switch.
b. Volts per division (VOLTS/DIV).
c. Time per volts (TIM/VOLTS).
d. Time per division (TIM/DIV).

A

Time per division (TIM/DIV)

18
Q

Which is not a reason why oscilloscope probes are used?

a. They are shielded to block noise and extraneous signals.
b. They are an isolation device for the oscilloscope input.
c. Connects the oscilloscope to the device under test.
d. They ensure circuit loading.

A

They ensure circuit loading

19
Q

Before measuring a signal with the oscilloscope and the source voltage is totally unknown,
it is wise to start with a divider probe rated at
a. 1:1.
b. 10:1.
c. 100:1.
d. 150:1.

A

100:0

20
Q

Which test equipment item would you use to check transmission lines and antenna systems
for proper operation?
a. Earth ground tester.
b. Radio frequency (RF) generator.
c. AN/TPM−32 Video Signal Processor test set.
d. Portable Instrument Landing System Receiver (PIR).

A

RF Generator

21
Q

Which is not a waveform produced by a function generator?

a. Sine wave.
b. Square wave.
c. Sawtooth wave.
d. Compound wave.

A

Compound wave

22
Q 
What feature of the 436A power meter is ideal for monitoring fast changes while adjusting 
peak transmitter output?
a. Autorange.
b. Digital display.
c. Auxiliary meter.
d. Relative power meter
A

Auxiliary meter

23
Q

For greatest wattmeter accuracy, select the power element(s) having

a. the highest possible power range that will cover the measured signal.
b. the lowest possible power range that will not result in over-ranging.
c. a power range ratio of at least 100:1.
d. N-type connectors.

A

the lowest possible power range that will not result in over-ranging

24
Q

When bench-checking a transmitter, what test equipment should you use to absorb any
transmitted radio frequency (RF) signals?
a. Ameritec Model (AM)‒48 transmission test set.
b. Time domain reflectometer (TDR).
c. Dummy load.
d. Wattmeter.

A

Dummy load

25
Q

What test equipment enables technicians to communicate with telephone switching
equipment through the use of pulse, dual tone multi-frequency (DTMF), and multi-frequency
(MF) dialing?
a. Breakout box.
b. Ameritec Model (AM)‒48 transmission test set.
c. Time domain reflectometer (TDR).
d. Tone generator with inductive amplifier.

A

Ameritec Model (AM)‒48 transmission test set

26
Q 
When testing a fiber optic (FO) cable, what is the energy that travels back toward the 
optical source called?
a. Backscatter.
b. Fiber cladding.
c. Impedance changes.
d. Core refractive index.
A

Backscatter

27
Q 
When measuring high noise figures with a noise figure meter, at what decibel (dB) level 
does the result become very inaccurate?
a. 1.
b. 3.
c. 5.
d. 10.
A

10

28
Q

What test equipment is essentially an upgraded, portable spectrum analyzer?

a. Vector network analyzer.
b. Peak power analyzer.
c. Noise figure meter.
d. Field Fox.

A

Field Fox

29
Q

On the vector voltmeter, the phase indicated on the meter represents the relative phase
between what two signals?
a. A channel with respect to the B channel.
b. B channel with respect to the A channel.
c. B channel is lagging by 90 degrees and is 180 electrical degrees longer than the A side.
d. A channel is lagging by 90 degrees and is 180 electrical degrees longer than the B side.

A

B channel with respect to the A channel

30
Q

What Precision Approach Radar (PAR) test set allows you to test radar power, frequency,
pulse repetition frequency (PRF), range tracking capabilities, receiver bandwidth, and minimum
discernible signal?
a. CP−1045/T.
b. AN/TPM−32.
c. AN/TPX‒42A.
d. AN/UPM–145.

A

AN/UPM–145

31
Q 
How many different pieces of test equipment does a communication service monitor (CSM) 
have combined in one package?
a. 10.
b. 12.
c. 16.
d. 20.
A

16

32
Q

What test equipment allows individual access to all signal conductors in a 25-wire
Recommended Standard (RS)–232 connector?
a. Cable key.
b. Breakout box.
c. Communication service monitor (CSM).
d. International Telecommunication Union (ITU) interface.

A

Breakout box

33
Q

Which is not an acceptable action to take if a communications facility ground testing reveals
more than 10 ohms (Ω) resistance?
a. Pouring an electrolytic salt solution into the soil.
b. Watering the soil around the facility.
c. Installing parallel ground rods.
d. Installing deeper ground rods.

A

Watering the soil around the facility

34
Q

When selecting a site for the Instrument Landing System (ILS), what is the localizer
maximum height tolerance, in feet, for surface roughness in area “A”?
a. ±0.5.
b. ±1.0.
c. ±1.5.
d. ±5.

A

0.5

35
Q

When siting weather equipment, when are midfield sensor groups necessary?

a. Runway is longer than 8,000 feet (ft.) or the location must meet Category II criteria.
b. Runway is longer than 5,000 ft. or the location must meet Category I criteria.
c. Runway is longer than 5,000 ft. but less than 8,000 feet.
d. Runway location must meet Category I criteria.

A

Runway is longer than 8,000 feet (ft.) or the location must meet Category II criteria.

36
Q

A non-rechargeable, primary battery is often referred to as a(n)

a. electrolyte cell.
b. paste cell.
c. wet cell.
d. dry cell.

A

dry cell

37
Q

Which is not a type of rechargeable, secondary cell battery?

a. Lithium.
b. Lead-acid.
c. Carbon Zinc.
d. Nickel Cadmium (NiCad).

A

Carbon Zinc

38
Q

Which is not an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) topology?

a. Passive standby.
b. Line interactive.
c. Double conversion.
d. Passive conversion.

A

Passive conversion

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