Vol 2 URE Flashcards
Which colors are the localizer equipment shelter generally painted?
a. International orange and white.
b. Olive drab and black.
c. Brown and tan.
d. Red and white.
a. International orange and white.
How many assemblies support each localizer antenna?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
2
The maximum wind speed, in miles per hour (mph) the localizer equipment station is designed to withstand is a. 50. b. 70. c. 90. d. 110
b. 70
How many megahertz (MHz) is the frequency range of radio transmitters in the localizer equipment station? a. 108 to 112. b. 324 to 336. c. 962 to 1,213. d. 2,250 to 2,259.
a. 108-112
What are the modulation frequencies, measured in hertz (Hz), in the localizer course transmitter? a. 90, 150, and 2,250. b. 90, 150, and 1,020. c. 150 and 2,259. d. 90 and 2,259.
b. 90, 150, and 1020
What number of watts is the nominal carrier plus sideband (CSB) output power of the clearance transmitter in the localizer? a. 10. b. 15. c. 20. d. 25.
b. 15
What general function is the first basic operation of the localizer station?
a. Updating status.
b. Radiating the pattern.
c. Controlling the transmitter.
d. Monitoring the radiated pattern.
b. Radiating the pattern.
At which frequency is the clearance (CLR) carrier transmitted in the localizer?
a. Station assigned frequency (SAF) –4.00 kilohertz (kHz).
b. SAF +4.00 kHz.
c. SAF –4.75 kHz.
d. SAF +4.75 kHz
c. SAF –4.75 kHz.
How many log-periodic dipole (LPD) antennas are there in the localizer antenna array?
a. 7.
b. 10.
c. 14.
d. 16.
c. 14
The radiation pattern of the course carrier is
a. wider than clearance pattern.
b. parallel to the clearance pattern.
c. the same as the clearance pattern.
d. narrower than the clearance pattern.
d. narrower than the clearance pattern.
How many monitors must detect a fault to cause an equipment transfer in the localizer?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.
b. two
What controls the localizer clearance (CLR) transmitters?
a. Control unit.
b. Changeover unit.
c. Clearance monitors.
d. Course transmitters.
d. course transmitters
Where is the detected signal from the localizer antenna distribution unit sent?
a. Changeover unit.
b. Far-field monitor.
c. Control unit and transmitters.
d. Course and clearance monitors.
d. Course and clearance monitors.
Which unit is not tied into the control unit of the localizer?
a. Distribution.
b. Changeover.
c. Power supply.
d. Battery backup.
a. Distribution.
The nominal localizer course transmitter carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and sideband only
(SBO) power in watts (W) and milliwatts (mW) respectively are
a. 15; 360.
b. 10; 300.
c. 5; 190.
d. 3; 190.
a. 15; 360.
The diode switching network is responsible for
a. amplifying the switched radio frequency (RF) by high level collector modulation.
b. counting the number of clock pulses and supplying information to data selectors.
c. shaping signals into clean sine waves.
d. routing and switching.
d. routing and switching.
The localizer antenna array has a gain of how many decibels (dB)?
a. 3.
b. 7.
c. 10.
d. 28.
c. 10
Which antennas are the localizer clearance (CLR) signals applied to simultaneously?
a. Entire array.
b. Middle.
c. Outer.
d. Inner.
d. Inner.
The most likely thing that will happen if an antenna cable is broken or shorted is it will cause a. a transmitter changeover. b. an abnormal indication. c. a station shutdown. d. a cable fault alarm.
c. a station shutdown.
Which parameter is not checked by the localizer course (CRS) monitors?
a. Frequency separation.
b. Radio frequency (RF) level.
c. Identification (ID) percent modulation.
d. Width difference in depth of modulation (DDM).
a. Frequency separation.
What is the only difference between the localizer clearance (CLR) monitor and course
(CRS) monitor?
a. Frequency of the radio frequency (RF) signals.
b. Measurement of the CLR frequency.
c. Digital readout assembly.
d. Timing pulse generated.
a. Frequency of the radio frequency (RF) signals.
A 17.2 percent modulation difference converted to difference in depth of modulation (DDM) is a. .017. b. .172. c. 1.72. d. 172.
.172
The modulation percentage of the sum of the 90 hertz (Hz) resultant and the 150 Hz resultant should always total a. 20. b. 40. c. 50. d. 100.
b. 40.
Where on the airfield are you located if during a ground check you are taking a
measurement from the 35-degree survey checkpoint?
a. Runway centerline.
b. Runway threshold.
c. Near field arc.
d. Far field arc.
c. Near field arc.
Why are localizer course (CRS) and clearance (CLR) transmitter’s output frequencies
separated by 9.5 kilohertz (kHz)?
a. Accommodates the bandwidth of the combined signals.
b. Prevents the signals from combining.
c. Prevents incidental signal jamming.
d. Matches aircraft receiver design.
b. Prevents the signals from combining.
Which localizer output would result in a change in the capture points?
a. 12 watt (W) course (CRS) carrier plus sideband (CSB).
b. 200 milliwatt (mW) CRS sideband only (SBO).
c. 10 W clearance (CLR) CSB.
d. 15 W CRS CSB.
b. 200 milliwatt (mW) CRS sideband only (SBO).
Which situation causes a fault condition and initiates equipment transfer in the glide slope (GS)? a. Abnormal shelter temperature. b. Abnormal primary power. c. Single monitor alarms. d. Dual monitor alarms.
d. Dual monitor alarms.
Which reference is not a monitored parameter in the null-reference glide slope (GS)?
a. Path difference in depth of modulation (DDM).
b. Path radio frequency (RF) level.
c. Ident percent of modulation.
d. Width DDM.
c. Ident percent of modulation.
The glide slope (GS) carrier frequency is modulated with what percentage of depth of modulation per tone? a. 20. b. 40. c. 70. d. 95.
b. 40.
Which hertz (Hz) signal is not an output status tone of the control unit?
a. 705.
b. 1,410.
c. 2,350.
d. 2,820.
c. 2,350.
Which signal or signals are applied to the lower antenna in the null-reference glide slope
(GS)?
a. Carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and clearance (CLR).
b. CLR and sideband only (SBO).
c. CSB only.
d. SBO only.
c. CSB only.
The diode switching network (4A9) in the glide slope (GS) differs from the 4A9 in the
localizer when considering their length of line, because the GS is
a. shorter than the localizer.
b. two times that of the localizer.
c. three times that of the localizer.
d. four times that of the localizer.
c. three times that of the localizer.
Which deflection does the airborne indicator show when the aircraft is on the glide path?
a. Nominal 5 microamps.
b. Nominal 1 microamp.
c. Minimum.
d. None.
d. None.
What is the carrier output power range, in watts, of the AN/FRN–44 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR)? a. 5 to 10. b. 10 to 25. c. 25 to 100. d. 50 to 150
c. 25 to 100.
What is the operating megahertz (MHz) frequency range of the AN/FRN–44 Very High
Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) antenna?
a. 100 to 120.
b. 108 to 118.
c. 110 to 116.
d. 112 to 114.
b. 108 to 118.
The AN/FRN–44 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR)
transmitter receives ON/OFF control signals from the
a. control indicator.
b. monitor front panel.
c. digital computer front panel.
d. remote maintenance work center.
a. control indicator.
How many antennas sample the AN/FRN–44 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and
Radio Range (VOR) radiated signal and route the signals to the monitor?
a. 10.
b. 12.
c. 14.
d. 16.
d. 16.
The AN/FRN–44 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) battery
assembly can fully recharge in how many hours?
a. 12.
b. 16.
c. 20.
d. 24.
d. 24.
During normal operation, the AN/FRN–44 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and
Radio Range (VOR) power monitor sensor provides how many reference volts direct current
(VDC) to the control indicator?
a. 5.
b. 12.
c. 20.
d. 24.
c. 20.
The AN/FRN–44 Very High Frequency Omnidirectional and Radio Range (VOR) monitor
antennas sample the output signal at degree interval
a. 11.25.
b. 20.
c. 22.5.
d. 25.
c. 22.5.