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Vol 3 URE Flashcards

1
Q 
The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in a 
cable is called a
a. marker.
b. bundle.
c. casing.
d. binder.
A

d. binder.

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2
Q

In telecommunications cables, the “tip” or “primary” color group order is

a. blue, orange, green, brown, and slate.
b. blue, green, yellow, red, and orange.
c. white, red, black, yellow, and violet.
d. white, blue, green, yellow, and violet.

A

c. white, red, black, yellow, and violet.

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3
Q

What colors make up the “ring” or “secondary” color code for telecommunications cables?

a. Blue, orange, green, brown, and slate.
b. Blue, green, yellow, red, and orange.
c. White, red, black, yellow, and violet.
d. White, blue, green, yellow, and violet.

A

a. Blue, orange, green, brown, and slate.

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4
Q

What standard do most newly installed network cables follow?

a. N586B.
b. N568C.
c. T586C.
d. T568B.

A

d. T568B.

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5
Q

Two types of network cables are

a. straight through and crossover.
b. straight through and flip/flop.
c. high and low baud.
d. “n” and “g.”

A

a. straight through and crossover.

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6
Q

How do you determine which type of fiber optic cable lubricant to use during installation?

a. Always use a high detergent based lubricant.
b. Refer to the manufacturers product data.
c. Cable lubricants should not be used.
d. Use a lubricant that dries quickly.

A

b. Refer to the manufacturers product data.

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7
Q

What device is used to secure the pulling line to the strength members of the cable?

a. Pulling grip.
b. Raceway.
c. Conduit.
d. Swivel.

A

a. Pulling grip.

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8
Q

When installing fiber optic cable on a horizontal run, the cable must be secured every

a. 18 inches.
b. 24 inches.
c. 36 inches.
d. 48 inches.

A

c. 36 inches.

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9
Q

How is unauthorized access to the configuration screens of a channel bank prevented?

a. Key card.
b. Biometric access.
c. Password protection.
d. No additional security is needed because they are only used in secure environments.

A

c. Password protection.

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10
Q

Why is it important for a channel bank to have a modular design?

a. It allows connection of single based devices.
b. It allows expansion with minimal cost.
c. It makes routine maintenance easier.
d. Leased lines are less expensive.

A

b. It allows expansion with minimal cost.

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11
Q

Any repair of electronic equipment should begin with

a. failure analysis.
b. troubleshooting.
c. symptom recognition.
d. listing probable faulty functions.

A

c. symptom recognition.

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12
Q 
Which troubleshooting method traces the system path, in order, step-by-step, until the 
problem is found?
a. Linear.
b. Half-split.
c. Sequential.
d. Divide and conquer.
A

c. Sequential.

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13
Q

Which troubleshooting method divides the circuit in half with each step?

a. Linear.
b. Half-split.
c. Sequential.
d. Divide and conquer.

A

b. Half-split.

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14
Q

What test can determine if a cable is operating correctly?

a. Capacitance.
b. Inductance.
c. Continuity.
d. Voltage.

A

c. Continuity.

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15
Q

What additional step is required when troubleshooting a multi-wire cable that is not
required when troubleshooting a single-wire cable?
a. Ensure no continuity of the ground wire.
b. Ensure continuity between the center conductor and the connector.
c. Ensure no continuity between the wire under test and any additional wire.
d. Ensure continuity between the wire under test and all additional wires in the cable.

A

c. Ensure no continuity between the wire under test and any additional wire.

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16
Q

A reading of zero during a continuity test indicates

a. there is a break in the cable.
b. there is a short between two wires in the cable.
c. the signal does not make it to the end of the cable.
d. the signal travels down the entire length of the cable uninterrupted.

A

d. the signal travels down the entire length of the cable uninterrupted.

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17
Q

What are the three main functions of grounding?

a. Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.
b. Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emissions security.
c. Equipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction.
d. Corrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection.

A

a. Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.

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18
Q

Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

a. Earth electrode.
b. Fault protection.
c. Signal reference.
d. Lightning protection.

A

d. Lightning protection.

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19
Q

What facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

a. Earth electrode.
b. Signal reference.
c. Fault protection.
d. Lightning protection.

A

c. Fault protection.

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20
Q

Establishing a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces is called

a. bonding.
b. shielding.
c. annealing.
d. grounding.

A

a. bonding.

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21
Q

Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not
exceed a resistance of how many milliohms (mΩ)?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 5.
d. 10.

A

a. 1.

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22
Q

What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

a. None.
b. Brazing.
c. Welding.
d. Mechanical.

A

d. Mechanical.

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23
Q

The two basic functions of shielding are to
a. equalize all electronic systems to the same potential and minimize compromising emanations.
b. prevent interference between multiple emanating systems and minimize compromising
emanations.
c. equalize all electronic systems to the same potential and block all emanations from exiting a
secure facility.
d. prevent interference between multiple emanating systems and block all emanations from
exiting a secure facility.

A

b. prevent interference between multiple emanating systems and minimize compromising
emanations.

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24
Q

The designation RED is applied to equipment processing what type information?

a. Clear-text classified.
b. Encrypted classified.
c. Clear-text unclassified.
d. Unencrypted unclassified.

A

a. Clear-text classified.

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25
Q

What is believed to draw lightning to air terminals?

a. Down conductors.
b. Transients.
c. Streamers.
d. Shielding.

A

c. Streamers.

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26
Q

What assures that all metal masses are of the same electrical potential?

a. Bonding.
b. Shielding.
c. Transients.
d. Grounding.

A

a. Bonding.

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27
Q

At how many points should the external grounding system be bonded?

a. Eight.
b. Four.
c. Two.
d. One.

A

d. One.

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28
Q

A stored electrical charge at rest is referred to as

a. static electricity.
b. magnetic flux.
c. capacitance.
d. inductance.

A

a. static electricity.

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29
Q

Extremely sensitive electronic devices can be damaged by as little as how many volts?

a. 5.
b. 15.
c. 25.
d. 35.

A

c. 25.

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30
Q

Always assume all unmarked electronic assemblies, subassemblies, and components are
likely
a. protected against electrostatic discharge.
b. sensitive to electrostatic discharge.
c. immune to electrostatic discharge.
d. safe to handle unprotected.

A

b. sensitive to electrostatic discharge.

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31
Q

Items sensitive to electrostatic discharge (ESD) must only be handled

a. at certified ESD workstations using a wrist strap.
b. at certified ESD workstations, a wrist strap is not required.
c. with a wrist strap.
d. in a faraday cage.

A

a. at certified ESD workstations using a wrist strap.

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32
Q 
What item is the most important when handling items sensitive to electrostatic discharge 
(ESD)?
a. Proper ESD marking.
b. ESD workstation.
c. Wrist strap.
d. ESD mat.
A

c. Wrist strap.

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33
Q

The average kinetic energy of the molecules in the air is called

a. visibility.
b. dew point.
c. temperature.
d. relative humidity.

A

c. temperature.

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34
Q

What indicates the temperature to which a given parcel of air must be cooled, with constant
water vapor content and pressure, to reach saturation?
a. Visibility.
b. Dew point.
c. Temperature.
d. Relative humidity.

A

b. Dew point.

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35
Q

Which is not a distinctive parameter or observation standard for “wind”?

a. Speed.
b. Direction.
c. Wind shift.
d. Peak wind shift.

A

d. Peak wind shift.

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36
Q

What characteristic is the measure of the opacity of the atmosphere and measure of the
distance at which an object or light can be clearly discerned?
a. Visibility.
b. Dew point.
c. Temperature.
d. Relative humidity.

A

a. Visibility.

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37
Q

Which barometric pressure parameter indicates the altitude above mean sea level of an
aircraft on the ground at the location for which the value was determined?
a. Station pressure.
b. Sea-level setting.
c. Altimeter setting.
d. Sea-level pressure.

A

c. Altimeter setting.

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38
Q

Which factor is not used in calculating dew point?

a. Wet-bulb temperature.
b. Dry-bulb temperature.
c. Wet-bulb depression.
d. Dry-bulb depression.

A

d. Dry-bulb depression.

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39
Q 
How many feet above the ground are most automated weather station visibility sensors 
mounted? 
a. 5.
b. 7.
c. 10.
d. 15.
A

c. 10.

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40
Q

What instrumentally derived value is calculated using different elements of visibility,
ambient light level, and runway light intensity?
a. Prevailing visibility.
b. Runway visual range.
c. Runway heading lighting intensity.
d. Prevailing visual lighting intensity.

A

b. Runway visual range.

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41
Q

Station pressure is determined by adjusting the corrected barometric pressure to compensate
for the difference between the height of the barometer and the
a. designated station elevation.
b. 12-hour mean temperature.
c. sea-level pressure.
d. altimeter setting.

A

a. designated station elevation.

42
Q

How many feet is the measurement range for most ceilometers?

a. 30 and 25,000.
b. 40 and 30,000.
c. 45 and 35,000.
d. 50 and 35,000.

A

a. 30 and 25,000.

43
Q 
What high-powered, dual polarization Doppler radar is used to detect, process, distribute, 
and display radar weather data?
a. WSR–22 Next Generation Radar.
b. WSR–88D Portable Doppler radar.
c. WSR–88D Next Generation Radar.
d. AN/TMS–22 Portable Doppler radar.
A

c. WSR–88D Next Generation Radar.

44
Q

What WSR–88D subsystem generates and radiates radio frequency (RF) pulses, then
acquires and processes reflected RF signals to obtain weather radar base data?
a. Radar data acquisition group.
b. Radar product generator group.
c. Wideband communications group.
d. Master system control function workstation.

A

a. Radar data acquisition group.

45
Q

What WSR–88D subsystem processes base data using stored algorithms to develop a set of
derived meteorological products?
a. Radar data acquisition (RDA) group.
b. Radar product generator (RPG) group.
c. Wideband communications group.
d. Master system control function workstation.

A

b. Radar product generator (RPG) group.

46
Q

What WSR–88D subsystem is used for system testing, troubleshooting, and local product
selection, generation, and distribution control?
a. Principal user systems.
b. Radar data acquisition (RDA) group.
c. Wideband communications (WBC) group.
d. Master system control function (MSCF) workstation.

A

d. Master system control function (MSCF) workstation.

47
Q

What WSR–88D subsystem ingests and displays radar products from the radar product
generator group according to agency specific needs?
a. Principal user systems.
b. Radar data acquisition (RDA) group.
c. Wideband communications (WBC) group.
d. Master system control function (MSCF) workstation.

A

a. Principal user systems.

48
Q

The frequency range of the AN/TMS–2 Portable Doppler Radar, in megahertz (MHz), is

a. 9,320 to 9,345.
b. 9,320 to 9,370.
c. 9,325 to 9,345.
d. 9,345 to 9,370.

A

b. 9,320 to 9,370.

49
Q

Which is not a limitation of the AN/TMS–2 Portable Doppler Radar?

a. Attenuation.
b. Line of sight.
c. Anomalous propagation (AP).
d. Limited network capability.

A

d. Limited network capability.

50
Q

Range attenuation is due to the radar beam

a. narrowing as it gets farther from the antenna.
b. spreading as it gets farther from the antenna.
c. spreading as it gets closer to the antenna.
d. narrowing as it gets closer the antenna.

A

b. spreading as it gets farther from the antenna.

51
Q 
What AN/TMS–2 Portable Doppler Radar unit acts as a voltage regulator and 
uninterruptable power supply?
a. Radar processor.
b. Processor drives.
c. Power conditioning unit.
d. Processor power control unit.
A

c. Power conditioning unit.

52
Q

The lower two drives of the AN/TMS–2 Portable Doppler Radar processor drives are used
to
a. store the system/boot drive.
b. store the actual data collected when the radar performs a scan.
c. house the Linux operating system and Iris radar processing software.
d. hold the radar control processing software and all calibration and configuration files.

A

b. store the actual data collected when the radar performs a scan.

53
Q

How many personnel are needed to raise the 30-foot AN/TMS–2 mast system?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

A

c. 3.

54
Q

Which is not a measured parameter of the AN/FMQ–19 Automated Meteorological Station?

a. Visibility.
b. Ice accretion.
c. Lightning detection.
d. Runway visual range (RVR).

A

d. Runway visual range (RVR).

55
Q 
What is the lightning detection range, in nautical miles, of the AN/FMQ–19 Automated 
Meteorological Station?
a. 30.
b. 45.
c. 50.
d. 100.
A

a. 30.

56
Q 
What allows the AN/FMQ–19 Automated Meteorological Station to be viewed, disabled, 
and maintained through a website?
a. Joint Environment Toolkit (JET).
b. Central processing station (CPS).
c. Field data collection unit (FDCU).
d. Graph displays.
A

c. Field data collection unit (FDCU).

57
Q

How is AN/FMQ–19 Automated Meteorological Station relative humidity data received
into the system?
a. By receiving data from the sensor collection appliance (SCA).
b. By calculating the difference between the ambient air measurement and the dew point.
c. A capacitive probe receiving fresh ambient air through a blower located within the enclosure.
d. A resistive probe receiving fresh ambient air through an air intake located outside the
enclosure.

A

c. A capacitive probe receiving fresh ambient air through a blower located within the enclosure.

58
Q 
The AN/FMQ–19 Automated Meteorological Station freezing rain sensor measures up to 
how many inches of accumulation?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. It does not measure accumulation.
A

d. It does not measure accumulation.

59
Q

The AN/FMQ–19 Automated Meteorological Station contains how many barometers?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

A

c. 3.

60
Q

In the AN/FMQ–19 Automated Meteorological Station precipitation gauge, what reduces
snow falling into the bucket?
a. Environmentally controlled transducer.
b. Thermostatically controlled heaters.
c. The tipping bucket.
d. Gravity.

A

b. Thermostatically controlled heaters.

61
Q 
What is the only sensor mounted on the AN/FMQ–19 Automated Meteorological Station 
10-meter tower?
a. Wind monitor.
b. Visibility sensor.
c. Lightning detector.
d. Precipitation gauge.
A

a. Wind monitor.

62
Q

At what runway length, in feet, would an airfield need the AN/FMQ–19 Automated
Meteorological Station midfield sensor group?
a. Up to 5,000.
b. Over 5,000.
c. Over 8,000.
d. Civilian runways under 8,000 feet.

A

c. Over 8,000.

63
Q

The AN/FMQ–22 Automated Meteorological Station 30-foot pole mast raises and lowers

a. by a removable winch system.
b. by a telescoping-pole winch system.
c. manually by technicians physically moving the hinged pole.
d. manually by technicians physically moving the telescoping pole.

A

a. by a removable winch system.

64
Q 
What type of AN/FMQ–22 Automated Meteorological Station data displays the entire
current day’s raw data log?
a. Data log.
b. Stored data.
c. Graph displays.
d. Raw data drive.
A

a. Data log.

65
Q

In the Joint Environment Toolkit (JET) architecture, before raw sensor data is sent to the
sensor collection appliance (SCA), a converter changes the serial data to
a. formatted sensor data.
b. processed sensor data.
c. Tera Term information.
d. Internet protocol format.

A

d. Internet protocol format.

66
Q 
What type of lightning strike detection is not measured by the AN/FMQ–23 Automated 
Meteorological Station?
a. Cloud-to-air.
b. Air-to-ground.
c. Cloud-to-cloud.
d. Cloud-to-ground.
A

b. Air-to-ground.

67
Q

In the AN/FMQ–23 Automated Meteorological Station, where do the outputs of the
meteorological sensors connect to?
a. Runway heading and light intensity monitor (RHLIM).
b. Joint Environment Toolkit (JET).
c. Field data collection unit (FDCU).
d. Data collection platform (DCP).

A

d. Data collection platform (DCP).

68
Q

What AN/FMQ–23 Automated Meteorological Station unit is used to automatically
determine which virtual station meteorological reports are generated from?
a. Runway heading and light intensity monitor (RHLIM).
b. Joint Environment Toolkit (JET).
c. Field data collection unit (FDCU).
d. Data collection platform (DCP).

A

a. Runway heading and light intensity monitor (RHLIM).

69
Q

What component(s) of the AN/FMQ–23 Automated Meteorological Station tower mast
provide an installation point for obstruction lights?
a. Cross arm.
b. Obstruction lights are not mounted on the tower.
c. Mountable antenna brackets on each side of the tower.
d. Obstruction lights are mounted to the data collection platform (DCP).

A

a. Cross arm.

70
Q

The runway heading and light intensity monitor (RHLIM) sends data directly to the central
processing station (CPS) for use in
a. calibrating runway edge and center light brightness.
b. calculating taxiway approach lighting brightness.
c. Airport Weather Advisory (AWA) outage reports.
d. runway visual range (RVR) readings.

A

d. runway visual range (RVR) readings.

71
Q

What Enhanced Terminal Voice Switch (ETVS) tower console position monitors radio and
intercom transmissions and corrects any controller mistakes?
a. Local.
b. Ground.
c. Coordinator.
d. Watch supervisor.

A

d. Watch supervisor.

72
Q

What Enhanced Terminal Voice Switch (ETVS) tower console position is usually manned
by a pilot, rather than an air traffic controller?
a. Supervisor of flying (SOF).
b. Watch Supervisor.
c. Coordinator.
d. Flight data.

A

a. Supervisor of flying (SOF).

73
Q

Instead of pushing mechanical buttons on the Enhanced Terminal Voice Switch (ETVS),
operators use a
a. touch entry display (TED).
b. disk operating system (DOS).
c. timing multiplexer unit (TMU).
d. supervisor configuration terminal (SCT).

A

a. touch entry display (TED).

74
Q

Which is not a capability of the Enhanced Terminal Voice Switch (ETVS) supervisor
configuration terminal (SCT)?
a. Position reconfiguration.
b. Change system passwords.
c. Checks system faults every 45 seconds.
d. Provides ability to modify global and local maps.

A

c. Checks system faults every 45 seconds.

75
Q

Which is a true statement about the Enhanced Terminal Voice Switch (ETVS) radio
distribution panel?
a. It records all radio traffic.
b. It is not a line replaceable unit.
c. It interfaces all ETVS communications.
d. It connects to the voice data bus (VDB) by fiber optic cabling.

A

b. It is not a line replaceable unit.

76
Q

What is the maximum number of telephone cards that a single Enhanced Terminal Voice
Switch (ETVS) telephone card cage can hold?
a. 14.
b. 16.
c. 18.
d. 20.

A

b. 16.

77
Q

What Enhanced Terminal Voice Switch (ETVS) components provide central equipment
interface for radio, operator, and telephone voice communications?
a. Indirect access (IA) controls.
b. Direct access (DA) controls.
c. Processor cards.
d. Fiber cables.

A

c. Processor cards.

78
Q

What links the Enhanced Terminal Voice Switch (ETVS) positions to the central
equipment?
a. Fiber cables.
b. Direct access (DA) controls.
c. Indirect access (IA) controls.
d. Integrated services digital network (ISDN).

A

d. Integrated services digital network (ISDN).

79
Q

The supervisor configuration terminal (SCT) and Gateway SCT reside on a(n)

a. integrated services digital network (ISDN).
b. selective signaling data bus.
c. local area network (LAN).
d. voice data bus (VDB).

A

c. local area network (LAN).

80
Q 
What is the maximum number of channels that a digital audio legal recorder one (DALR1) 
can record?
a. 48.
b. 96.
c. 144.
d. 288.
A

a. 48.

81
Q 
What component is the main physical user interface for the digital audio legal recorder 
(DALR) system?
a. Liquid crystal display (LCD) drawer.
b. Analog line interface (ALI).
c. Recorder/logger.
d. Inform server.
A

a. Liquid crystal display (LCD) drawer.

82
Q

How many minutes does the digital audio legal recorder (DALR) uninterruptible power
supply (UPS) provide power in the event of site power loss?
a. 10.
b. 15.
c. 20.
d. 30.

A

d. 30.

83
Q

Larger digital audio legal recorder two (DALR2) systems have a channel-hour capacity of

a. 9,000.
b. 15,000.
c. 45,000.
d. 65,000.

A

c. 45,000.

84
Q

In the digital audio legal recorder (DALR) global positioning system (GPS) receiver, how
many satellites should be acquired for an accurate time stamp?
a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 6.
d. 12.

A

b. 3.

85
Q

What is the range of the AN/MSN–7 Tactical Control Tower system?

a. Up to 15 miles line-of-sight to aircraft at 1,000 feet altitude.
b. Up to 30 miles line-of-sight to aircraft at 2,000 feet altitude.
c. A minimum of 15 miles line-of-sight to aircraft at 1,000 feet altitude.
d. A minimum of 30 miles line-of-sight to aircraft at 2,000 feet altitude.

A

a. Up to 15 miles line-of-sight to aircraft at 1,000 feet altitude.

86
Q

How many light guns are in the AN/MSN–7 Tactical Control Tower?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

A

b. 2.

87
Q

What AN/MSN–7 Tactical Control Tower functional group displays the current status of the
system’s other functional groups?
a. Meteorological.
b. Communications.
c. Power distribution.
d. Local operating network/monitor control panel (LON/MCP).

A

d. Local operating network/monitor control panel (LON/MCP).

88
Q 
Up to how many miles per hour (mph) can the AN/MSN–7 Tactical Control Tower be 
driven on improved roads?
a. 35.
b. 40.
c. 50.
d. 55.
A

c. 50.

89
Q

AN/MSN–7 Tactical Control Tower primary power is normally supplied by

a. utility power.
b. a generator on the support vehicle.
c. four (4) 37.5 kilovolt-amp (kVA) solar panels.
d. the direct current (DC) power distribution panel.

A

b. a generator on the support vehicle.

90
Q

The AN/MSN–7 Tactical Control Tower direct current (DC) power distribution panel sends
power to what functional group to power ventilation, lift, and lighting equipment?
a. Shelter.
b. Meteorological.
c. Power distribution.
d. Environmental control unit (ECU).

A

a. Shelter.

91
Q

What AN/MSN–7 Tactical Control Tower component provides the capability to connect
both meteorological sensors to the meteorological data processor (MDP) A/B switch?
a. Sensor control module (SCM).
b. Central control unit (CCU).
c. Pressure transducer.
d. Signal entry panel.

A

d. Signal entry panel.

92
Q

How many type-N connectors does the AN/MSN–7 Tactical Control Tower antenna entry
panel provide for connection of all antenna elements to the shelter?
a. 5.
b. 6.
c. 7.
d. 9.

A

b. 6.

93
Q 
How many ground-to-air transceivers can connect to the AN/MSN–7 Tactical Control 
Tower multicoupler?
a. 5.
b. 6.
c. 7.
d. 9.
A

c. 7.

94
Q 
What is the selectable output power level, in watts (W), for the AN/MSN–7 Tactical 
Control Tower transceivers?
a. 2 and 10.
b. 5 and 20.
c. 10 and 20.
d. 10 and 25.
A

a. 2 and 10.

95
Q 
How many channels are actually used in the AN/MSN–7 Tactical Control Tower voice 
recording system (VRS)?
a. 30.
b. 32.
c. 34.
d. 36.
A

a. 30.

96
Q

What shelter function group component of the AN/MSN–7 Tactical Control Tower allows
the operator to manually select generator or utility power?
a. Commercial/generator switch.
b. Generator to utility switch.
c. Power transfer control.
d. Power override switch.

A

d. Power override switch.

97
Q 
What is the approximate nautical mile (nm) range of the AN/TRN–48 Deployable Tactical 
Air Navigation System?
a. 100.
b. 150.
c. 200.
d. 250.
A

c. 200.

98
Q 
What is the peak power, in watts (W), of the AN/TRN–48 Deployable Tactical Air 
Navigation System?
a. 3,000.
b. 5,000.
c. 7,000.
d. 7,500.
A

b. 5,000.

99
Q 
Which is not a component of the AN/TRN–48 Deployable Tactical Air Navigation System 
azimuth pattern?
a. Nine-lobe pattern.
b. Single-lobed pattern.
c. Omnidirectional component.
d. North modulation component.
A

d. North modulation component.

100
Q

How often does the AN/TRN–48 Deployable Tactical Air Navigation System beacon
transmit the Morse code station identification (ID)?
a. At least once every 30 seconds.
b. At least once every minute.
c. Every 15 seconds.
d. Every 20 seconds.

A

a. At least once every 30 seconds.

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