Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How many separate volumes does the FOM’s consist of?

A

Three:

VOL 1: Policy and procedural information that is not aircraft specific
VOL 2: Operating policies and procedures for the specific aircraft type
VOL 3: Aircraft and aircraft systems information for the specific aircraft type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Are E-Bullets a part of FOM VOL 1? (Does the information within E-Bullets reside inside the VOL 1 manual?)

A

No.

E-Bullets within the flight operations manuals provide supporting information. E-Bullets, represented by and (E in a blackened circle) link to the extra documents outside of the FOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference between a “Bulletin” and a “Pilot Alert”

A

Bulletins: incorporate changes that are temporary in nature. They may be issued to inform crews of short-term procedures or to describe transitional procedures during the implementation period. While effective, bulletins supersede any related information in the manual.

Pilot Alerts: are not issued as part of the FOMs. These documents are disseminated electronically and contain information to emphasize or clarify Frontier policies and procedures. They will not be used to modify the policies or procedures contained in the FOMs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If pilot in command exercises command emergency authority when must the PIC submit a detailed report of the emergency?

A

Wishing 48 hours, if requested by ATC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the alcohol limits for flight crew?

A
  1. Within 10 hours after consuming an alcoholic beverage
  2. While under the influence of alcohol
  3. While having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in a blood or breath specimen
  4. While using any drug that affects a person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety
  5. Prior to and during any reserve period
  6. Company assigned deadhead travel
  7. Ground school and training events
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When must the pilots don and use the O2 masks?

A

Cabin pressure altitude above 10,000ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Employees with knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which they performed a safety sensitive or security related function at or near the time of the accident may not use alcohol for ___________ hours after the accident unless he or she has been given a post accident test for drugs and alcohol, or if Frontier Airlines has determined that their performance could not have contributed to the accident?

A

10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Is landing at night without runway lights permitted?

A

No. Runway lights must be available and operational for all night operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is operation of the aircraft (movement under its own power) permitted on any surface if braking action is NIL?

A

No.

Note: if a surface is reported as NIL rather than CLSD, Frontier Airlines prohibits the operation (movement under its own power) of its aircraft over any portion of a ramp, taxiway, or runway that is considered to be braking action NIL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When do braking action advisories go into effect?

A

When tower controllers receive runway braking action reports which include the terms poor or nil.

OR

Whenever weather conditions are conducive to deteriorating or rapidly changing runway braking conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Are intoxicated persons allowed to board the aircraft?

A

No. A person who appears to be intoxicated shall be denied boarding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Does Frontier Airlines carry hazmat for commercial transportation?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Is the flight crew permitted to stow baggage for passengers in the flight deck?

A

At the captains discretion, he/she may accept and secure baggage on the flight deck from any individual who is eligible to access a jump seat as an ACM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How are dangerous good that requiring flight crew notification communicated to the flight crew?

A

Either on appropriate forms or via the weight and balance worksheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When are radio reports always required?

A
  1. Deviation from an ATC clearance or instruction for an emergence or in response to a TCAS resolution advisory (RA)
  2. When vacating any previously assigned altitude or flight level for a newly assigned altitude or flight level
  3. When unable to climb/descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute
  4. When an approach has been missed.
  5. Change in the average true airspeed when it varies by 5 percent or 10 knots (whichever is greater) from that filed on the flight plan
  6. The time and altitude or flight level upon reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared
  7. When leaving any assigned holding fix or point
  8. Pilots encountering weather conditions which have not been forecast, or hazardous conditions which have been forecast, are expected to report such conditions to ATC
  9. Any information relating to the safety of flight or whenever encountering a meteorological condition or an irregularity in a ground or navigation facility, in flight, which is essential to the safety of other flights.
  10. Any malfunction, in controlled airspace, of navigational, approach, or communication equipment including VOR, ADF, GPS, anomalies, complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability or impairment of air/ground communication capability. Reports should include the call sign and flight number, equipment affected, degree to which the capability to operate under IFR in the ATC system is impaired, and the nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When are position reports required while not in radar contact?

A
  1. When passing a compulsory reporting point and the aircraft is not in radar contact
  2. Whenever requested by ATC
  3. Final approach fix inbound
    Report to ATC when leaving the final approach fix inbound on final approach (non precision approach) or when leaving the outer marker or fix used in lieu of the outer marker inbound on final approach (precision approach)
  4. ETA error
    A corrected estimate shall be reported to ATC at any time it becomes apparent that a previously submitted stigmata is in error by more than +/- 3 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What shall a position report consist of?

A
  1. Aircraft call sign and flight number
  2. Aircraft’s position with regard to the reporting point
  3. UTC time over the reporting point
  4. Flight level or altitude
  5. Name and ETA over the next reporting point
  6. Name of next succeeding reporting point
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What would you do if you lost weather radar enroute?

A

The flight may continue to its planned destination provided thunderstorms or hazardous weather conditions can be avoided visually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What certificates and identification is each pilot required to have in his/her possession while on flight duty?

A

It is the responsibility of each pilot to have in their possession, while on flight duty, a current and appropriate FAA airman and medical certificate as well as current company identification, an FCC permit, and a current passport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the requirements to fly into “special airports”

A

Frontier may not use a flight crew in operations to or from an airport that requires special airport qualification unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months:

  1. The pilot in command or second in command has made an entry to that airport, including a takeoff and landing, while serving as a flight crew member or,
  2. The pilot in command has qualified by using pictorial means for that airport

Note: The currency requirements above do not apply if the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA or MOCA or the initial approach altitude prescribed for the instrument approach procedure to be used for that airport, and the visibility at that airport is at least 3 statue miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When is the first offices flying restricted (FO high mins)?

A

Less than 100 hours: if a first officer has less than 100 hours (includes OE) flight time as a second in command in operations under 14 CFR 121 at Frontier Airlines in the type airplane being flown, and the captain is not a check airman, the captain must make all takeoffs and landings in the following situations:

  1. The RVR for the runway to be used is at or below 4000ft (RVR is controlling over visibility)
  2. The prevailing visibility in the latest weather report is at or below 3/4 of a mile
  3. The runway to be used has water, snow, slush, or similar conditions that may adversely affect airplane performance
  4. The braking action on the runway to be used is less than “good”
  5. The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots
  6. Wind shear is reported in the vicinity of the airport, low level wind shear advisories or alerts are in effect, or another aircraft has reported wind shear for a particular runway
  7. The airport is a special airport
  8. Any other conditions where the captain deems it prudent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the first officer’s minimums for takeoff?

A

At all times it is recommended that captains perform the takeoff when the reported visibility is equal to or less than 1/2 mile or RVR 1800 (when RVR is reported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When is a captain considered on “high minimums”?

A

If the captain has less than 100 hours as the pilot in command (does not include OE) in a particular type aircraft under 14 CFR 121 at Frontier Airlines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the captains high minimum restrictions?

A

If the captain has less than 100 hours as the pilot in command (does not include OE) in a particular type aircraft under 14 CFR 121 at Frontier Airlines, the following must be applied to each instrument approach being flown:

  1. Increase DA or MDA by 100 feet, and
  2. Increase visibility by 1/2 statue mile or RVR equivalent
25
Q

What are the dispatch weather requirements for a “high minimums” captain?

A

Destination:
Dispatch of a flight to a planned destination airport is based solely on visibility requirements. This equates to the minimum visibility required for the instrument approach expected to be used plus 1/2 stature mile (unless dispatched under exemption 5549)

Alternate:
The MDA or DA and visibility minimums need not be increased (by 100ft and 1/2sm) above those applicable to the airport when determining alternate airport minimums (i.e. adding 400ft and 1sm or 200ft and 1/2sm). This includes takeoff, enroute, first and second alternate airports. However, when conducting an instrument approach at an alternate airport, the MDA or DA and visibility requirements must be increased by adding 100ft and 1/2sm (or RVR equivalent)

26
Q

What approaches are high mins captains not permitted to conduct?

A

High minimums captains are not authorized to conduct CAT III operations

27
Q

What is exemption 5549?

A

Exemption 5549 provides relief from 121.652 (a) and (c), permitting a high minimums captain who is subject to higher landing weather minimum requirements to be dispatched and to operate to the normal (lower) category I and category II minimums in accordance with table 10.40.3.

It is Frontier’s policy that high minimums captains use FAA exemption 5549 whenever the requirements of the exemption can be met.

RVR < 1200. Approach not authorized
1200<RVR<1800. Crews may execute CAT II approach using procedure B
RVR >
1800. Crews may execute using procedure A or B

28
Q

What is procedure A and what is procedure B in regards to exemption 5549?

A

Procedure A: Execute approach using CAT I procedures to published CAT I DA. Autopilot coupler must be used to DA or missed approach. The following requirements must be met:
1. Aircraft must be capable of coupled approach
2. Captain or first officer must have at least 75 hours of PIC or SIC in the aircraft
3. If RVR/VIS is less than 3/4 mile or 4000 RVR, max crosswind 15kts and braking action must be good or better

Procedure B: Execute approach using CAT II procedure to published CAT II DH. Aircraft must be autolanded. The following requirements must be met:
1. PIC has at least 300 hours as PIC or SIC in turbojet airplanes
2. Airport and aircraft must be capable of CAT II auto land
3. Captain or FO must have at least 75 hours of PIC or SIC in the aircraft
4. CAT II/III procedures utilized to auto land or missed approach

29
Q

Does Frontier use exemption 3585 to dispatch high minimums captains?

A

Frontier does not use exemption 3585 to dispatch high minimum captains

30
Q

Each crewmember must be provided with a minimum of __________ consecutive hours of rest (free of all company assigned duty) within the past 168 consecutive hour period (this equates to a rolling week)?

A

30 hours

31
Q

If the captain or first officer lost his/her EFB, may that crewmember borrow a fellow crewmembers EFB to conduct a flight?

A

Yes. The EFB program does not restrict the practice of borrowing an EFB from a fellow crewmember

32
Q

Explain how you would handle an EFB failure before departure, during taxi, or between legs of a trip.

A

Reference the EFB Failure flow chart located in FOM VOL 1, Section 10.70 page 12

33
Q

Who has operational control to refuse a passenger?

A

The CRO. The captain retains final authority to refuse transportation, but the recommendation of the CRO must be carefully considered.

34
Q

Where can you find what manuals and equipment are required to be on board for each flight?

A

Table 20.10.1 - Required manuals and equipment on board
Reference FOM VOL 1, section 20.10 page 2

35
Q

Who has the authority to delay a flight?

A

Both the captain and dispatcher

36
Q

Who has the authority to cancel a flight?

A

Only the systems operations control (SOC) has the authority to cancel a flight

37
Q

When is an alternate required?

A

1, 2, 3 rule for domestic and flag ops
Takeoff alternate
Marginal weather
RNAV only airports
Severe icing
Drift down alternates
Supplemental ops/Offline charters
Flag operations greater than 6 hours
Exemption 3585

38
Q

In regards to alternates, what is the 1, 2, 3 rule for domestic and flag operations?

A

Aircraft dispatched under IFR will have at least one alternate airport for each destination airport in the dispatch release when:
- 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA:
- The ceiling is below 2000’ AFE (the greater of 2000’ AFE or 1500’ above lowest published IAP minimum (FLAG OPS))
- The visibility is less than 3 SM (the greater of 3 SM, or 2 SM more than lowest applicable visibility minimus (FLAG OPS))

39
Q

In regards to alternates, when is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When weather conditions at the departure airport are below category 1 landing minimums for that airport, a takeoff alternate airport is required. When a takeoff alternate is required, a maximum time of 1 hour (normal cruise speed, single engine, still air) and a maximum of 330 NM may be used.

40
Q

In regards to alternates, what is the marginal weather rule?

A

Weather is considered “marginal” if the ceiling is within 100 feet, or the visibility is within 1/2 mile of the minimums for that airport. When the weather conditions forecast for the destination airport, based on CAT 1 minimums, and the first alternate airport, based on derived alternate minimums, are marginal, then at least one additional alternate must be designated.

41
Q

In regards to alternates, what is the requirements for RNAV Only Airports

A

Flights dispatched to an airport based solely on the availability of an RNAV (GPS or RNP) approach must always have a destination alternate with a suitable non - RNAV (GPS or RNP) approach available.

42
Q

In regards to alternates, what is the severe icing requirement?

A

If severe icing conditions are forecast at the destination within one hour of the scheduled arrival time, a suitable alternate must be listed on the release.

43
Q

In regards to alternates, what is a drift down alternate?

A
44
Q

In regards to alternates, when do you need an alternate for supplemental ops/offline charters?

A

Always

45
Q

In regards to alternates, when is an alternate required for flag operations that are greater than 6 hours?

A

Always

46
Q

What is exemption 3585?

A

Under Exemption 3585, a flight may be dispatched under IFR to a destination or an alternate airport when the weather forecasts for either or both airport(s) indicate (by the use of conditional words such as “BECMG, PROB, or TEMPO” in the remarks section) that the weather could be below minimums at the time of arrival, provided the main body of the weather report and forecast from that airport indicate the weather (visibility for destination and ceiling and visibility for the alternate) will be at or above minimums for that airport when the flight arrives.

47
Q

In regards to Exemption 3585 there are a few conditions and limitations:

A
  • Two alternates must be listed in the dispatch release, and the remarks section must show that the flight is being dispatched under Exemption 3585.
  • The conditional remarks on the weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, must indicate that the worst case weather conditions are forecast to be:
    - For the destination airport, at least one - half the minimum visibility required for the instrument approach procedure expected to be used.
    - For the first alternate, not less than one - half the required alternate minimum ceiling and visibility for that airport; and
    - For the second alternate, at or above alternate minimums for that airport.
  • The flight must be dispatched with at least sufficient fuel to:
    - Fly to the destination; then
    - Fly to and land at the most distant alternate, taking expected ATC routing into account; then
    - Fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption
  • Exemption 3585 is only authorized to be used on domestic flights. This exemption is not available for Flag and Supplemental operations.
48
Q

How do you derive alternate minimums?

A

One Nav:
- For airports with at least one operational navigational facility providing:
1. A straight - in non-precision approach procedure or
2. A category 1 precision approach or
3. A circling maneuver from an IAP
- Add 400 feet to MDA(H) or DA(H) as applicable
- ADD 1 sm or 1600m to the landing minimum
Two Nav:
- For airports with at least two operational navigational facilities, each providing a straight - in approach procedure to different suitable runways.
1. Add 200 feet to higher DA(H) or MDA(H) of the two approaches used
2. ADD 1/2 SM or 800m to the higher authorized landing minimums of the two approaches used

49
Q

What flight paperwork is required before a revenue flight may block out?

A
  1. Dispatch or flight release
  2. Flight plan
  3. Weather (latest METAR/TAF at the time the captain signs the release)
  4. NOTAMS
  5. Performance information (via AWP or the takeoff and landing report [TLR])
  6. Weight and balance manifest (via AWP or as provided by load planning)
50
Q

Is the takeoff and landing report (TLR) required paperwork?

A

When AWP is available, the TLR or data from the TLR is only required when special ACARS runway entry codes are necessary due to runway NOTAMS being in effect (shortened runway, temporary obstacle in departure path)

51
Q

When is an ARTR required?

A
  1. Supplemental ops crew change: if a crewmember changes on a supplemental flight, the captain will need to obtain an ARTR
  2. Hour past release time: If the aircraft will “block out” in excess of one hour past the dispatch release time, an ARTR must be obtained prior to push back
  3. Alternate added or changed: Once the flight is underway, selection of a different alternate requires the dispatcher to provide an ARTR to ensure the aircraft has an adequate fuel supply and the airport is operationally suitable
  4. Fuel added more than 2,000 lbs. or less than brake release. The captain may add up to 2,000 lbs over the planned fuel at his/her discretion. An amount greater than 2,000 lbs shall require an ARTR from dispatch. If the captain wishes to reduce the fuel load below the brake release fuel, he/she must contact dispatch and obtain an ARTR
  5. MEL/CDL/NEF added or removed: all MEL/CDL/NEF items must be shown on the dispatch release prior to advancing the thrust levers for takeoff. Contact dispatch to obtain an ARTR if there is a disparity between the aircraft logbook and the release,k or if an item is deferred in accordance with MEL/CDL manual procedures after block out
  6. Miles enroute deviation greater than 100NM: if the planned route is changed by ATC prior to takeoff, and the resulting stage length increases by more than 100NM, the captain must obtain an ARTR
52
Q

If a captain is reassigned/replaced after signing the release, the replacement captain will need to obtain a new copy of the release and sign the new copy, true or false?

A

True

53
Q

For the ARTR to be valid, what must the flight crew do?

A

For an ARTR to be valid, amendments must be acknowledged by the captain via ACARS, phone call, or radio to dispatch, or via a company agent.

54
Q

What should the captain note on the ARTR?

A

ARTR #, time of issuance, and dispatcher initials

55
Q

How else could the flight crew obtain the required dispatch release information if there is no means to obtain a printout of the release through normal methods?

A

Use the manual dispatch release form contained in the diversion/forms kit onboard each aircraft. The information required to fill out the form may be obtained from dispatch by any available means (telephone or ACARS). Text items and numbers shown in light blue illustrate what required information must be filled in.

56
Q

What are some examples of when CONTNGNCY may be added?

A
  1. Forecast weather conditions which may delay a flight
  2. Anticipated traffic delays
  3. Fuel for a possible missed approach
  4. Fuel considered unusable due to an MEL/CDL restriction
  5. Any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft
  6. International flights dispatched under Ops Spec B043, additional fuel of 10% of the flight time during which the aircraft’s position cannot be reliably fixed at least once an hour will be included.

The reason for any additional contingency fuel, above the standard amount, will be noted in the remarks section of the release

57
Q

What does ALTN fuel on the flight plan consist of?

A

ALTN. Fuel required for alternate airports, as shown on the flight plan includes:
1. Climb to cruise flight altitude
2. Cruise flight to the most distant alternate’s initial approach fix
3. Planned at a cost index of 0
4. Once approach and landing at the most distant alternate airport

58
Q

How much flight time does RESERVE fuel allow for?

A

Reserve fuel of 45 minuets flight time (based on last cruise altitude in the flight plan) is included for all operations

59
Q

What does BRAKE RLS fuel on the flight plan consist of?

A

BRAKE RLS fuel is:
1. The total of BURN, CONTNGNCY, ALTN, and RESERVE fuel
2. BRAKE RLS is the minimum fuel that must be onboard to push the thrust levers up for takeoff