VOL6A (Excluding fuel and EDTO policy) Flashcards

1
Q

How much carry on baggage is allowed with Nauru Airlines and is this included in passenger standard weights?

A

7kg, Yes for all passengers over the age of 12

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2
Q

Are passengers permitted to occupy a pilot operating seat or Cabin Crew seat?

A

No.

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3
Q

Are weapons or ammunition allowed on Nauru services?

A

Yes, however firearms and ammunition must not be carried in the passenger cabin or flight deck. (Firearms may be carried in the cargo compartments)

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4
Q

Is ammunition permissble on Nauru Airlines?

A

Small quantities of sporting ammunition intended for personal use by passengers may be carried as checked baggage and must ensure it is not accessible during flight.

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5
Q

Who needs to approve medical transportation flights on Nauru Airline services?

A

The CEO in consultation with the HOFGO and Safety Department.

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6
Q

What communication requirements are to be ensured by the flight crew prior to conducting a medical transportation on Nauru Airlines?

A

1.) All aircraft intercom systems must be serviceable.
2.) The aircrafts SAT Phone system must be serviceable.

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7
Q

Are seat packs allowed on emergency exit rows ?

A

No

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8
Q

Is it permissible to place containers next to the emergency exits on a freighter flight?

A

Yes, however, the signage must be taped to obscure viewing.

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9
Q

What category does Nauru Airlines operate their B737s?

A

Cat C, however, is permissible to increase the category above C in accordance with the relevant procedures. (Vol6a 5.1.1.2)

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10
Q

Are Nauru Airlines allowed to operate RPT services under VFR?

A

No. (Vol 6A 5.1.1.1)

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11
Q

What is the minimum amount of cabin attendants required on revenue RPT services?

A

Three, however up to six may be rostered. (Unless company aircraft only has four Cabin Crew stations, in which case the max cabin attendants will be four)

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12
Q

Are crew allowed to set their desired seat position after the aircraft commences taxi?

A

No, the pilot seat position is to be checked before the aircraft commences to taxi. (Seat positions shall be adjusted in such a manner as to provide both pilots complete and full control of the aircraft.)

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13
Q

Is it permissible to leave the flight deck door unlocked after the engine has started with no passengers on board?

A

NO (Vol6A 5.1.5)

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14
Q

What is the approved procedure to access the flight deck? What are the requirements when gaining access to the flight deck?

A

Entry to the flight deck will only be granted via contact through the interphone with the agreed access code word. When the flight deck door has to be opened during flight, it must be ensured there are no passengers in the forward galley area or standing waiting for the restroom. (Vol 6A 5.1.5)

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15
Q

What is the minimum amount of crew members required in the flight deck on the cruise sector? What is the policy?

A

Two crew members of which one MUST be a pilot. If one pilot is absent from the flight deck, a substitute crew member must be in the flight deck with the door locked until the pilot returns. Cabin Crew must not occupy a control seat. When one pilot is absent from the flight deck the remaining pilot is to wear the seat belt and shoulder harness until he returns.

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16
Q

When is the only permissible time the Capt or F/O may disable Cockpit Voice Recorder or the Flight Data Recorder in flight?

A

POST flight by pulling the appropriate circuit breaker in order to preserve the data if an accident or serious incident had occurred.

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17
Q

Who is responsible for recording clearances ? What action is required after?

A

Both. The PM in writing. The PF using the FMC or MCP.

After both pilots have recorded the clearance, the PF is to repeat the clearance in its entirety to the PM for confirmation before proceeding.
(VOL6A 5.1.13)

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18
Q

Is it permissible to fly the en route and approach phases of the flight at night or in IMC without the FD and/or A/P?

A

No, the Flight Director and the Autopilot must be coupled for all en route and approach phases of the flight at night and in Instrument meteorological condition (IMC) conditions. (5.1.15.1)

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19
Q

PRIOR to V1: How is an engine failure confirmed?

A

Two or more engine instruments.

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20
Q

What is Nauru Airlines IFR take off minimums?

A

Atleast the Minima specified in the applicable Jeppesen chart or 550m RVR whichever is the higher

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21
Q

When is an aircraft considered to be dispatched?

A

The moment at which the aircraft begins to taxi under its own power. (DDG 2.2 dispatch policy)

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22
Q

When should crew refer to the DDG for defects and when should the crew refer the AFM for system defects?

A

On the ground, crew should first consult DDG, once dispatched, refer to AFM. Eg QRH. (DDG 2.4 Management of defects)

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23
Q

What is the acceleration altitude when doing a missed approach?

A

1000ft above the MDA/DA unless specified otherwise in Missed App procedure.

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24
Q

When must the F/O instruct the cabin crew to disarm the doors and crosscheck?

A

During taxi-in when making final turn to the aerobridge/parking bay.

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25
Q

What is the response call if the PM calls “FLAPS UP, NO LIGHTS”

A

PITCH MODE (VNAV/LVL CHNG)

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26
Q

What is the response call if the PM calls “FAF HEIGHT CHECKED”

A

___ (TDZE) set

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27
Q

What standard weight does Nauru Airlines use for an adult male and female?

A

Male = 84kg, Female=70kg.

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28
Q

Is it permissible to reduce the performance category of the B737, if approach weights will allow a slower speed? What is the allocated performance category?

A

No, Cat C. Flight crew may elect to increase the performance category with the relevant procedures.

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29
Q

How are FMC entries made?

A

FMC entries should be cross checked by both pilot with no discontinuities prior to execution and must be checked again after execution.

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30
Q

Above what altitude may the PF make FMC entries? What is recommended?

A

FL100, it is recommended that the PM make all FMC entries.

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31
Q

When does the STERILE FLIGHT DECK procedure commence and cease? What does the PM do to indicate this?

A

DEP: Engine start to passing 5000ft.
ARR: Passing 5000ft until commencing taxi.

PM MUST double chime.

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32
Q

What is the required policy on Altitude setting after an airways clearence is received?

A

The assigned altitude included in an airways clearance MUST be set on the MCP. The most restrictive ATC altitude is to be set first.

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33
Q

When departing an aerodrome OCA, what altitude must be set on the MCP?

A

The highest IFR cruising LVL beneath the lower limit of the surrounding airspace.

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34
Q

When should company calls and PA’s be performed?

A

During low workload areas of flight. With the autopilot engaged.

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35
Q

When should flight plan details and paperwork such as trip record be carried out?

A

Above FL100, 5 minutes after levelling off in the cruise sector.

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36
Q

When is the PM required to provide advisory callouts?

A

When the aircraft is flown outside exceedance parameters for a sustained period.

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37
Q

Who must call out the change on the FMA display?

A

The pilot making the MCP selection must call out the FMA change. Automatic mode changes are called out by the PF with autopilot engaged and PM during manual flight.

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38
Q

What should the PF say when a PM makes a callout and there is no specified response callout?

A

CHECKED (Except for V1 and VR calls)

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39
Q

What are the hand over/take over calls?

A

When the PF wishes to hand over control, he will call “YOU HAVE CONTROL” and retain control until the PM responds and say “I HAVE CONTROL”. After the PM makes this call, the PF will relinquish control.

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40
Q

What are the four steps in the SAFE escalation procedure?

A

S- State the exceedance.
A- Announce a solution.

F- Fix the exceedance by calling “CAPTAIN YOU MUST LISTEN”
E- Emergency statement and take control.

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41
Q

What mandatory report does the captain need from the cabin prior to taking off?

A

CABIN SECURE

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42
Q

What is the company policy on resetting circuit breakers? Which CB’s require special attention?

A

CB trips MUST be investigated fully before resetting a CB. If the service is essential for safety of continued flight, one reset is permissible after a 2 minute cooling period. FUEL PUMP CB’s can NOT be reset until a maintenance investigation has been completed.

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43
Q

If the aircraft gear down indications are faulty, is a fly past the control tower a permissible ?

A

NO

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44
Q

What is the company policy with fire detected warnings?

A

They MUST be treated as genuine with the appropriate procedure executed.

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45
Q

What is the minimum crew oxygen pressure required to dispatch? When must the oxygen communication system be tested?

A

1250 psi, prior to each sector regardless of crew change.

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46
Q

If one pilot leaves the cockpit in cruise, what two emergencies must the PF at this time be prepared for?

A

Emergency descent and engine failure or fire in the cruise.

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47
Q

What is the company policy on TCAS warnings?

A

All TCAS warnings MUST be treated as genuine with the QRH manoeuvres executed. During a TCAS RA, the PM must announce “TCAS RA” to ATC and “CLEAR OF CONFLICT, RETURNING NORMAL NAV” once clear of conflict.

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48
Q

When can EGPWS warning be ignored?

A

In DAY VMC, only when no obstacle or terrain hazard can visually be verified.

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49
Q

Are all EGPWS or TCAS warning a IRM?

A

Yes

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50
Q

When MUST inboard landing lights be turned on and off during departure?

A

Take off:

ON when cleared for take off (commencing take off roll OCTA) and OFF when passing FL100. The captain may elect to turn all landing lights on and off any time for enhanced safety purposes.

Approach:

On, passing FL150 once PM calls “FL150”.

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51
Q

When MUST inboard landing lights be turned on and off during arrival and approach?

A

ON when passing FL150 and OFF when vacating or backtracking the runway.

The captain may elect to turn all landing lights on and off any time for enhanced safety purposes.

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52
Q

What is the maximum time limit the landing lights may on whilst on the ground?

A

5 minutes

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53
Q

When should Runway Turnoff lights be turned on and off?

A

ON, before entering an active runway and OFF after vacating the runway.

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54
Q

When should strobe lights be turned on and off?

A

ON when entering an ACTIVE runway and OFF when vacating an active runway. Strobes remain ON for the entire flight.

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55
Q

When should taxi lights be used?

A

When the captain ask for it and always on when visibility is low.

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56
Q

When are logo lights used?

A

At all times during night operation. Logo lights are switched off during departure after passing FL100 and turned back ON during arrival the FL150.

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57
Q

What is NA max crosswind policy for the B737 CL & NG

A

Narrow RWY: 30kts (Dry) & 20kts (Wet)

45M> 35kts (Dry) & 25kts (Wet)

Standing water/slush/snow/ice : 15 kts

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58
Q

Can a flight be dispatched less than min fuel to fly to its DEST but with minimum fuel to arrive at an intermediate destination with the intention of refuelling, and then continue past the intermediate stop towards the DEST airport?

A

Yes, if the crew is certain that the aircraft will arrive at the DEST airport with fuel remaining to satisfy regulatory and company reserve requirements. In this scenario the aircraft must never land with less than 35 minutes FINAL RESERVE FUEL. (30 MIN FINAL RES & 5 MIN CONTINGENCY RESERVE)

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59
Q

What is the required ATC call if crew realise they will land at their destination or alternate with less than the planned final fuel reserve?

A

MAYDAY x 3 , FUEL

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60
Q

When calculating the LDR on a dry runway, what factor should be used to determine if the LDA will be adequate? Is this factored into OPT calculations?

A

67% Increase in LDR. Yes, but only for departure calculations. Enroute landing calculations require a 15% addition to LDR.

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61
Q

When calculating the LDR on a wet runway, what factor should be used to determine if the LDA will be adequate? Is this factored into OPT calculations?

A

92% increase in LDR. Yes, however 15% should be added to LDR when using ENROUTE landing function.

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62
Q

When using the OPT, Landing En-route function, what factor must the LDR be increased by to satisfy regulatory requirements ? Is this factored into the OPT calculations? Is there a different requirement for non normal operations?

A

15% increase in LDR. No this must be manually added on. Non normal operations does not require any additional factoring.

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63
Q

If there is a difference between the flight plan track and FMC track, which one should be set on the MCP course window?

A

FMC track

64
Q

What is the maximum permissible difference between the F/O or CAPT altimeter and the nominated elevation?

A

With the correct QNH set, both altimeters must indicate an altitude within 60ft of the airport elevation. (One alt may indicate within 75ft to depart, but both must read to within 60ft of the elevation at the destination airport.)

65
Q

When should the take off briefing be completed?

A

After the airways clearance has been received.

66
Q

What pertinent items are to be included in a normal departure briefing?

A
  1. Intended RWY
  2. Flaps
  3. Aircondition
  4. Roll mode to be used
  5. Direction of turn after take off
  6. Initial altitude
67
Q

What is the non-normal briefing for before V1?

A

Emergency briefing:
<80 kts
- During the take off roll, any abnormalities, unsafe conditions or caution lights below 80 kts, we will be ‘REJECTING’

> 80 kts >V1
- Above 80 kts & below V1 we will ONLY reject for an engine failure, a fire warning or if the aircraft is unsafe to fly (In freighter include MAIN CARGO DOOR warning light) and I’ll expect you call ‘REJECTING’

I’ll respond by verifying the thrust levers are closed and the A/T is disengaged. Check your applying manual breaking and the speed brakes are UP and also monitor the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light and reverser operation.

68
Q

What must the non-normal briefing for after V1 include?

A
  1. Special procedure
  2. Acceleration altitude
  3. MSA
69
Q

When are the non normal procedure prior to V1 required to be briefed?

A

On the first sector only

70
Q

What is the window for Calculated off-blocks time (COBT). What must be done outside this window?

A

5 minutes before, 15 min after. OCC must be consulted. If the departure is subject to a COBT, then the window becomes -5 to +15 minutes. (perth = -5 +10) See also CTOT for NZ ops.

71
Q

What must be done if any doubt exists during taxi on the ground in respect to clearance?

A

Stop the aircraft and seek immediate clarification.

72
Q

What is the minimum en-route weather avoidance policy?

A

Must be avoided by a minimum of 10NM

73
Q

What is the minimum distance away where a thunderstorm is approaching a field, the crew may attempt an approach and landing?

A

5NM

74
Q

When should reduced thrust be used for take off and what is the preferred method?

A

All take offs when conditions permit. Assumed temperature.

75
Q

When is using reduced thrust prohibited?

A
  1. If the runway is contaminated
  2. Suspected wind-shear exists.
  3. Anti ice fluids are required for departure.
  4. Any condition that is deemed to enhance the safety of the flight by the captain.
  5. Prohibited by an MEL or CDL.
76
Q

Who can be PF during an RTO manoeuvre?

A

The captain always conducts the RTO.

77
Q

What tactics can be used to improve take off performance and in what order should this be executed?

A
  1. No bleeds take off
  2. ATM method (Use actual temperature)
  3. Optimum flaps
  4. Improved climb (RWY>2000m)
78
Q

When must the PF conduct a pre-departure review and what should it include? What will trigger the preceding step?

A

Once the cabin informs the crew ‘CABIN SECURE’, the crew can commence the before takeoff checklist. After completing the checklist:

  1. Any changes to initial normal take off briefing
  2. Flaps
  3. Bleeds
  4. Direction of turn
  5. Altitude
79
Q

What is NA IFR take off minima?

A

550m RVR or as indicated in Jeppesen charts, whichever is higher.

80
Q

What is the PF required to do if a take clearance includes a heading or altitude?

A

The PF will repeat the essential of the cleared instructions to the PM after read back is complete.

81
Q

What is the lowest altitude crew may commence a turn after take off?

A

500 ft unless required for special engine failure procedures.

82
Q

What is Nauru Airlines standard noise abatement procedure?

A
  1. Maintain Vref +10-20kts to 800ft AGL
  2. Thrust reduction at 800ft AGL
  3. First flap retraction commenced at 800 ft
  4. Maintain Vzf until passing 3000ft
  5. Accelerate to enroute climb speed.
83
Q

What is Nauru Airlines standard acceleration altitude? How is this set up?

A

1000ft. Set on both pilots reference altitude markers

84
Q

What items are included in the company callback?

A
  1. OFF blocks time
  2. Departure time
  3. Arrival time
  4. Delay code
  5. Delay time
85
Q

What items does the cruise cross check include?

A
  1. The aircraft is cruising at the correct cruising altitude by checking MCP, CDU and pressurisation FLT window.
  2. The correct altimeter setting is set.
  3. The FMA pitch indicates VNAV PATH.
  4. The auto throttle has engaged CRZ mode.
  5. The transponder is selected to BELOW
  6. The weather radar tilt is giving accurate indications.
86
Q

What is NA policy for minimum permissible cruise speed?

A

Min manoeuvre speed PLUS 10 kts. (Vref flap 40 PLUS 100kts will give an accurate min speed)

87
Q

What is the maximum safe bank angle above FL300?

A

15º in modes other than LNAV

88
Q

When is it permissible to descend below the MSA or LSAT?

A
  1. When conducting a DGA (Don’t)
  2. When being vectored to a MVA by ATC. (Vector)
  3. After passing the IAF on a IAP (In)
  4. Within 30nm when cleared for a visual approach (Very)
  5. Climbing after take off. (Close)
89
Q

Is it permissible to program a STAR or IAP into the FMC before receiving a clearance?

A

No. After the STAR clearance is received, the PF should enter it into the FMC and then brief the PM on the procedure. During the briefing the PM must confirm the waypoints, tracks and distances as well as restrictions are programmed correctly before executing.

90
Q

Is it permissible to commence an approach if the RVR is reported below the minimum visibility for landing?

A

No.

91
Q

When conducting a IAP, descending below what altitude is prohibited if ATC report the RVR to have reduced below minimum for landing? What must happen if you are already below this altitude when ATC reports a reduction in RVR?

A

1000ft AFE. The approach may continue to the MDA/DA.

92
Q

What is the correct procedure for changing aids? How and when should aids be identified?

A

The pilot changing aid frequency must inform the other pilot of the change. Aids must be identified independently prior to conduct an IAP, STAR or SID if the procedure utilises the aid.

93
Q

What items are pilots required to crosscheck after the approach briefing, and before an approach?

A
  1. QNH setting
  2. ASI bugs
  3. EHSI/ND
  4. RMI VOR/ADF selectors
94
Q

Prior to commencing an ILS approach, what should the Radio Altimeter decision height reference indicator be set to?

A

DH (Height)

95
Q

Prior to commencing an RNAV approach, what should the Radio Altimeter decision height reference indicator be set to?

A

MDH (Height)

96
Q

Prior to commencing an NDB/VOR approach, what should the Radio Altimeter decision height reference indicator be set to?

A

MDH (Height)

97
Q

Prior to commencing an VISUAL approach, what should the Radio Altimeter decision height reference indicator be set to?

A

-20 ft

98
Q

What altitude indication should be used as reference for conducting a missed approach?

A

Baro altimeter.

99
Q

How long is a reported QNH valid for?

A

15 minutes

100
Q

What margin above stalling speed does Vref give?

A

30% (1.3 x Vs)

101
Q

During an instrument approach, who is responsible for maintaining a visual lookout?

A

PM

102
Q

If either pilot calls visual, what is the response call and what procedures are to be used for the remainder ?

A

‘VISUAL’, visual procedures.

103
Q

If a runway aligned 2D approach plate has an MDA of 500ft, what is the actual MDA that must be used and how is this set up?

A

550ft, set on both pilot’s reference Altitude markers and is treated as a DA. Markers must be crosschecked.

104
Q

If pilots add 50ft to change an MDA to a DA, are pilots allowed to descend below this MDA + 50ft?

A

Yes, however descending below the MDA on the approach plate is prohibited.

105
Q

If a runway aligned 2D approach plate has an MDA of 1030ft for circling, what is the actual MDA that must be used and how is this set up?

A

1030 ft (1100 ft on MCP) set on both pilot’s reference Altitude markers and is treated as a MDA. Markers must be crosschecked.

106
Q

What weather conditions may allow pilots to plan for a visual approach? What condition is required?

A

If the weather condition are greater than the following:

  1. No more than SCT clouds below the LSALT+500ft.
  2. At least 10km of vis.
  3. No storms

An IAP must still be briefed and prepared for.

107
Q

What is the minimum distance from the TDZ, final approach may be join when conducting a visual approach?

A

5NM

108
Q

How should the Auto-throttle be disengaged during an ILS or V/S pitch mode approach?

A

Deselecting speed.

109
Q

How should the Auto-throttle be disengaged during a VNAV pitch mode approach?

A

Disengaging the A/T

110
Q

What is the stabilised approach criteria?

A
  1. RoD <1000ft/pm unless briefed to be in excess.
  2. IAS: Vref +10 kts/-5 kts
  3. Minimal changes to track, profile and path required to land.
111
Q

What is the recommended approach profile of a 3D app?

A
  1. Flaps 5 @ flap5 speed approaching 3000ft
  2. Gear down, flap 15 @ flap15 speed, checklist to flaps complete approaching 2500ft (2000ft in VMC).
  3. Landing flaps @ Vapp, landing checklist complete passing 1500ft.
112
Q

What is the recommended approach profile of a 3D app?

A
  1. Flaps 5 @ flap5 speed approaching IAF.
  2. Gear down, with landing flaps @ App, approaching FAF. (Flap 15 for circling approaches)
113
Q

When is it likely that crew will miss the G/S or FAF height check?

A

When the the check is around 2500ft AGL.

114
Q

What is the recommended approach profile of a 3D app?

A
  1. Flaps 5 @ flap5 speed approaching 3000ft
  2. Gear down, flap 15 @ flap15 speed, checklist to flaps complete approaching 2500ft.
  3. Landing flaps @ Vapp, landing checklist complete passing 1500ft.
115
Q

When should auto brake be used how is its use calculated?

A

Using OPT.
1. During turbulent approach
2. Crosswind exceeds 10kts.
3. Contaminated runways.
4. Narrow runways
5. Landing on a runway with less than 2000m LDA.

116
Q

When is reverse thrust be used?

A

On all landings unless the airport restricts the use of reverse thrust or a roll through is offered by ATC, then minimum idle reverse thrust shall be used.

117
Q

Who is responsible for stowing the reverse thrust levers after landing and by when must the reverse thrust be stowed?

A

The PF is responsible for stowing the reversers to the FULL DOWN position, and must control of the aircraft until this is done. The PF shall commence thrust lever stowage prior to the 60 kt call made by the PM. NOTE: Commencing the stowage doest mean, it must be stowed by 60 knots. FCTM indicates the levers should be positioned to reverse idle by taxi speed which is 30 kts on normal taxiways or 50 kts for high speed taxi ways. Then to full down once the engines are at idle (+/- 25% N1)

118
Q

When is reverse thrust must effective and when should it be activated?

A

At high speeds. Reverse thrust should be engaged as soon as the main wheel touchdown but NO EARLIER.

119
Q

Who is responsible for making the decision to go around?

A

Captain

120
Q

When should a missed approach be executed?

A
  1. When reaching the DA/MDA and Missed app pt and the minimum visual condition for landing cannot be met.
  2. Lost visual reference during the visual portion of an approach.
  3. Not stable (1000ft in IMC,500ft in VMC)
  4. Safe landing cannot be made.
121
Q

What is the PF call after passing acceleration altitude?

A

BUG UP

122
Q

What is the response call to “BUG UP” from the PF

A

‘speed’ SET eg. 210/220/230 kts SET

123
Q

What is the call the PF should make when approaching transition altitude during a climb?

A

TRANSITION, SET STANDARD

124
Q

What is the PM’s call when the localiser or course-bar leaves full scale deflection?

A

LOCALISER ALIVE

125
Q

What is the PM’s call when the glide slope leaves full scale deflection?

A

GLIDESLOPE ALIVE

126
Q

What is the PM’s role when approaching minimums?

A

Call ‘100 FT’ when 100ft above the minimums, at which point the PM looks outside to call acquire visual reference. If NOT VISUAL, the PM will say nothing and call “MINIMUM, VISUAL or NIL SIGHTING”

127
Q

What is the PF’s role when approaching minimums?

A

Maintain a scan of instruments until the PM calls, “MINIMUMS, VISUAL or NIL SIGHTING” at which point the PF either calls: “LANDING or GOING AROUND”

128
Q

What call must the PM make at the FAF?

A

“GLIDESLOPE HEIGHT CHECKED” (ILS) or “FAF HEIGHT CHECKED”(RNAV)

129
Q

What is the PM call for one reverser not operating normally?

A

“NO REVERSER NO__”

130
Q

What is the PM call for reverser operating normally?

A

“REVERSERS NORMAL”

131
Q

What is the PM call for speed brake not in the up detent?

A

“SPEEDBRAKE NOT UP”

132
Q

What is the PM’s call if the rate of descent exceeds 1000fpm below 1000ft ?

A

“SINKRATE”

133
Q

When must the “AIRSPEED” exceedance call be made by the PM?

A

When the IAS exceeds either 5 kts below Vref or 10kts above Vref.

134
Q

When must the PM call “LOCALISER” ?

A

When the ILS/LOC reaches full scale deflection on the expanded scale.

135
Q

When must the PM call “GLIDESLOPE” ?

A

When the G/S reaches one dot high/low

136
Q

What is tolerances for an NDB approach, and what is the exceedance call?

A

5º deflection. “TRACK” if using Azimuth guidance, “COURSE BAR” if using a CDI.

137
Q

What is tolerances for an RNAV approach, and what is the exceedance call?

A
  1. Half scale. “CROSS TRACK”
  2. Full scale. “CROSS TRACK LIMIT”
138
Q

When should the PM call PAPI/VASI?

A

During a VISUAL approach ONLY if the PAPI/VASI is indicating a sustained ONE DOT HIGH/LOW indication.

139
Q

What actions are required prior to engine start when using an EFB?

A
  1. Ensure ipad in on airplane mode
  2. Ensure Bluetooth is OFF
  3. Ensure wifi if OFF
140
Q

What actions are required if the iPad start overheating or catches fire?

A
  1. Remove all power from the device.
  2. If possible, place the iPad in a fire proof bag or place in an empty waste bin and place the bin in the lavatory.
  3. Fill the bin with non alcoholic liquid.
  4. Monitor.
141
Q

How many GNSS’s is Nauru Aeroplanes fitted with?

A

Two

142
Q

What is the F/O’s actions when cleared to line up?

A
  1. Turn on RWY turn off light.
  2. Turn off taxi light
  3. Double chime
  4. Turn on strobe lights
  5. Ensure TA/RA is selected on transponder
  6. Turn on Wx radar and select wx & terrain on
143
Q

What critical items need to be checked when conducting an RNP procedure?

A
  1. DME updating is off.
  2. RNP is correct and ANP < RNP.
  3. PM is on Prog pg.4
  4. PF is on legs pg, map 10
  5. Correct QNH & Temperature set in forecast page.
144
Q

What is the PF’s call when declaring a go around? What is the PM’s actions?

A

“GO AROUND, flaps 15”

The PM must select flap 15, monitor the flap retraction and check go around thrust is set. Then call “POSITIVE RATE” after verifying positive increase on altimeter.

145
Q

After V1, if an engine failure occurred, when can crew call ‘FAILURE’ ?

A

Once the gear’s retracted.

146
Q

How is an engine, cargo hold or APU FIRE identified?

A

Engine FIRE is solely confirmed by an ENGINE FIRE WARNING (Light and bell). Any fire warning MUST be treated as genuine.

147
Q

What is the call after an engine failure has been confirmed?

A

“Failure”

148
Q

When conducting an IAP in pitch mode other than VNAN (excluding VNAV), how should the A/T be disconnected?

A

By deselecting speed.

149
Q

When is auto brake usage highly encouraged?

A
  1. Crosswind > 10kts
  2. Wet runway
  3. Narrow runway
  4. Runway < 2000m
150
Q

What is the minimum visibility required to take off under IFR?

A

Minima specified on Jeppesen charts or 550m whichever is higher.

151
Q

What is the max crosswind penalty for a wet runway compared to dry?

A

10 kts

152
Q

What is the minimum amount of Cabin Crew required for revenue services?

A

Minimum 3. (Note: Maximum six Cabin Crew may be rostered if needed)

153
Q

When is a landing performance calculation mandatory?

A
  1. RWY is below 2600m.
  2. Above 1% slope
  3. Airport Elevation above 1000ft
  4. Above ISA + 15°
  5. RWY Wet or Contaminated
  6. Tail wind
154
Q

What does NITS stand for?

A

Nature of the situation or emergency
Intentions of the crew
Time related information
Special Instructions

155
Q

What does the ‘SAFE’ escalation stand for?

A

S - State the exceedance/deviation
A Announce a solution
F Fix the exceedance/deviation by use of the alert phrase “you must listen”.
E- Emergency take over statement: “I have control”