RTP IFR theory Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

During flight preparation, what is the estimated time of use and aerodrome?

A

When planning for a destination alternate, the aerodrome must be suitable for an Estimated time of use (ETU) valid 30 min before ETA + 30 min after ETA.

Note: Isolated Aerodromes require a -30 + 60 min ETU validity.

See:
1. Part 121 CH4.05
Vol 6A

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2
Q

What is the standard window for COBT

A

Arrivals: -5, + 15 min (5 min early or 15 min late)

Note: Perth has a COBT for departure:
-5 Minutes + 10 minutes

Jepp Pac, Australia Air traffic flow management 7.3.2

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3
Q

When ATC allocates a waypoint crossing time, what time must the aircraft arrive at that waypoint?

A

On time or max 30 seconds early.

Jepp Pac, Australia Air traffic flow management 7.4.1.3.

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4
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance required when circling in a Cat C aircraft?

A

Cat C: Pilot should maintain a Min Obstacle Clearance of 400ft

Jepp Instr App/T.Off Proc 4.16.2 Vis circling Note 2

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5
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed for circling in a Cat C aircraft?

A

180kts

Jepp Instr App/T.Off Proc 2.3.1 Gen requirements, Handling Speeds.

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6
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed for a missed approach?

A

240kts

Jepp Instr App/T.Off Proc 2.3.1 Gen requirements, Handling Speeds.

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7
Q

What is the range of final approach speeds for a Cat C aircraft?

A

160-115kts

Jepp Instr App/T.Off Proc 2.3.1 Gen requirements, Handling Speeds.

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8
Q

What is the circling radius to be used for a Cat C aircraft? Pans Ops (ICAO) and TERPS (FAA)

A

ICAO: 4.11 NM (At 1000ft)
FAA: 2.7 NM

OLD FAA: 1.7 NM

See FCTM Circling approaches & JEPP 4.16

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9
Q

What are the requirements for conducting a visual approach by Day under IFR?

A
  1. Within 30nm
  2. In sight of ground or water
  3. 5k vis or airport in sight.

Jepp 1.9.3 Vis approaches

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10
Q

When may a pilot discontinue the approved instrument approach procedure and conduct a visual approach at Night under IFR?

Jepp Pacific 4.19.6 Visual approaches

A
  1. clear of cloud;
  2. in sight of ground or water;
  3. with a flight visibility not less than 5000m
  4. 500 ft above the lower limit of the CTA
  5. Within 3NM of the aerodrom if there is no published IAP.
  6. PAPI runways: Within 5NM of the airport, aligned with the centerline and established not below “on slope”
  7. PAPI+ILS: Within 7NM of the airport, aligned with the centerline and established not below “on slope” PAPI lights
  8. ILS runways: within 10 NM, established not below the ILS glide path with less than full scale deflection. (14Nm at Sydney RWY34L/16R)
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11
Q

What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain and First Officer altitude displays for RVSM operations?

A

200 ft

See FCOM Limitations L.10.2

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12
Q

Do Standby altimeters meet the accuracy requirements for RVSM airspace?

A

No

See FCOM Limitations L.10.2

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13
Q

What is the Altimeter tolerance for IFR flight?

A

ONE Altimeter MUST read the nominated elevation to within 60 ft. If the second altimeter has an error up to a maximum of 75ft error, flight under the IFR to the first point of landing, where the accuracy of the altimeter can be re-checked, is approved. Only one check is allowed.

See Jepp Altimetry 1.1.2

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14
Q

What are the maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for RVSM between F/O and CPT altimeter?

A

CL = 40ft

NG = 50ft

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15
Q

How is Runway Visual Range (RVR) determined during daytime at aerodromes without a weather service provided? (Vol6A 3.1.77)

A

Counting centre line markings visible forward from the flight deck. Centre line markings consist of a stripe and a gap with a combined overall length of between 50 and 75 metres. Assessments should be based on 50 metres spacing.

Count the amount of centreline markings and multiply by 50. This indicat

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16
Q

How is RVR determined during night time at aerodromes without a weather service provided? (Vol6A 3.1.77)

A

RVR at night may be assessed by counting the runway edge lights. The spacing of runway lights is 60 metres for instrument runways.

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17
Q

What privileges does a company-issued OPC grant the crew?

CASR 61.800

A

You are authorised to exercise the privileges of your type rating under IFR (in IMC) for that paticular operator in multi-crew operations. for the validity period (Max 8 months off recent check or 12 months off previous check)

These privileges are subject to any individual limitations on your license.

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18
Q

Can you operate as an FCM for the airline if the OPC ir failed or has expired?

A

No. An expired OPC will remove all company IFR privileges.

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19
Q

How long are OPCs valid for? (How often is an assessment required?)

A

6 months with a 2-month extension as long as two checks are completed within 12 months.

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20
Q

Who is authorised to conduct an OPC?

A

A company check pilot holding CASR 121.101 approval.

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21
Q

What’s the recency requirement to conduct company IFR operations?

A

Participating in a training and checking system, having passed the most recent check within the last 6/8 months.

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22
Q

Do simulator approaches count towards IFR recency?

A

Yes, if it’s in approved simulators under supervision/testing environment.

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23
Q

How many approaches must a pilot conduct in the last 90 days to be valid?

A

3

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24
Q

If lapsed, how can a pilot regain currency?

A

Complete an OPC or under supervision in an aircraft in flight.

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25
What instruments must be serviceable for an IFR flight?
1x Attitude indicator 1x Heading indicator 1x Airspeed Indicator 1x Vertical Speed Indicator 1x Turn Co-ordinator 1x Clock 2x Navaids Note: Refer to DDG - Common Display System (CDS) "fault" message, which indicates as non-dispatchable, meaning you cannot rely on your ISFD for departure. In-flight, this message will appear as "DSPLY SOURCE" and change to CDS fault in flight.
26
What redundancy is required for the attitude indicator?
Two independent attitude sources, one powered electrically.
27
Can a flight commence IFR with one altimeter U/S?
No. Two independent altimeters are required for IFR. Both must read to be within the airport elevation; however, one may read a difference to the elevation of up to 75ft. A secondary check must be done atthe first point of landing.
28
What must be included in the aircraft's MEL for IFR approval?
Minimum equipment for safe IFR operation, including navigation and communication.
29
What does "TEMPO 3000 SHRA" mean in a TAF?
Temporary conditions of 3,000 m visibility and showers of rain.
30
How do you identify a NOTAM that affects your route?
Check FIR NOTAMS.
31
What document lists lighting for aerodromes?
Jeppesen or ERSA
32
What does a SIGMET for “SEV TURB FL280-FL360” imply?
Severe turbulence between FL280 and FL360 — may require routing changes.
33
What is the company's minimum visibility policy for takeoff?
550m
34
When must an alternate be planned?
If the destination weather is below the alternate minima or no suitable approach available.
35
When is holding fuel required?
When weather forecasts include PROB30/40 or INTER/ TEMPO where the conditions deteriorate below the alternate minima at the destination.
36
What is the standard holding speed at FL180?
240 kts (230, 240, 265 : FL140/FL200)
37
In which airspace classes is a clearance required for IFR?
All controlled airspace (Classes A, C, D, E).
38
Is separation provided in Class E airspace under IFR?
Yes, from other IFR aircraft.
39
What’s required to enter Class C airspace under IFR?
A clearance and two-way radio comms.
40
Can IFR aircraft operate in Class G without a clearance?
Yes, but no separation is offered and only traffic information is given; however may be limited.
41
What is meant by 'RNAV' during a SID?
'Required navigation' is required when flying on the SID. Meaning the GPS or INS must ensure certain integrity and tolerance.
42
When may you descend below LSALT?
DVIVC (Dont vector in very close) DME VMC IAP Visual During approach Climbing after Take off
43
What is the LSALT in mountainous terrain?
Depends on the aircraft's capability, however, a general rule of thumb that will keep you safe is 1,500 ft above the highest obstacle within 5 NM on that route.
44
How is MSA determined?
Based on a 25 NM sector from the nav aid – provides 1,000 ft clearance.
45
Is LSALT required in CTA?
Yes, unless being vectored to MVA.
46
What does RNP 1 mean?
Aircraft must maintain track-keeping accuracy of ±1 NM 95% of the time. (Assessment of the aircrafts integrity)
47
Can a non-RNP-certified aircraft fly an RNAV GNSS approach?
No, unless it meets RNP APCH requirements.
48
Is baro-VNAV permitted for LNAV/VNAV approaches in Australia?
Yes, if the aircraft is approved and temperature is within the chart limits.
49
What visual reference must be maintained during a circling approach?
Runway environment in sight and within the circling area.
50
What is wind shear, and why is it dangerous?
Sudden change in wind speed/direction; can cause loss of lift and control.
51
What should you do if thunderstorm activity is on approach?
Hold or divert until the storm passes.
52
How can a pilot detect icing in a jet?
Airframe or windshield indications, change in handling, TAT indications.
53
Can an RNAV approach be flown through heavy rain?
Yes, if RAIM is available and GPS signal is not degraded.
54
Where can you find emergency frequencies for a location?
ERSA Emergency Procedures section.
55
What is the emergency VHF frequency in Australia?
121.5 MHz.
56
What information is found in Jeppesen airport directory/ ERSA FAC?
Aerodrome layout, lighting, services, circuit direction, frequencies.
57
What emergency services are listed in Jeppesen/ ERSA?
Fire, ambulance, fuel availability, and lighting for emergencies.
58
What must be included in an IFR alternate calculation?
Fuel to destination, approach, missed approach, alternate, and reserve.
59
Can a pilot use forecast TAF weather for alternate planning?
Yes, including valid TAF and weather trends.
60
What performance category affects approach minima?
Category B, C, or D, depending on aircraft Vref or approach speed.