Vol6A excluding EDTO & Fuel policy Flashcards
How much ‘carry-on’ baggage is allowed with Nauru Airlines and is this included in passenger standard weights?
7kg
Yes for all passengers over the age of 12 (2.3.3 Passenger Weights)
Are passengers permitted to occupy a pilot operating seat or Cabin Crew seat?
No.
(2.3.13 Carriage of Passengers in Crew Seats)
Are weapons and/or ammunition allowed on Nauru services?
Yes, however firearms and ammunition MUST NOT be carried in the passenger cabin or flight deck. Firearms may be carried in the cargo compartments but ONLY if prior acceptance procedures are followed.
(2.3.11 Carriage of Firearms and Ammunition)
Is ammunition permissible on Nauru Airlines? Where must it be carried?
Yes, if in accordance with IATA regulations. Small quantities of sporting ammunition intended for personal use by passengers may be carried as CHECKED baggage to ensure it is not accessible during flight.
- It is to be securely boxed in quantities not exceeding 5 kg Gross weight per passenger 2. It must not have explosive or incendiary projectiles 3. Allowances for more than one passenger must not be combined with similar allowances for other passengers. Ammunition of any quantity or type is not permitted as ‘carry on’ baggage.
Are kitchen knives, Army or souvenir knives and swords considered potential weapons?
Yes, and must not be carried in the aircraft cabin.
(2.3.11 Carriage of Firearms and Ammunition)
Who needs to approve medical transportation flights on Nauru Airline services?
The CEO in consultation with the HOFGO and Safety Department.
(2.3.14.1 Medical Transport Operations)
What communication requirements are to be ensured by the flight crew prior to conducting a medical transportation on Nauru Airlines?
1.) All aircraft intercom systems must be serviceable. 2.) The aircraft’s SAT Phone system must be serviceable.
(2.3.14.2 Policy and Procedures for Carriage)
Are seat packs allowed on emergency exit rows?
No
(2.4.4.2 Limitations)
Is it permissible to place containers next to the emergency exits on a freighter flight?
Yes, however, the signage must be taped to obscure viewing.
(2.4.5 Freighter Flights)
What is the Maximum POB for AEI converted aircraft?
EDTO: Four Non EDTO: Six
(2.4.5 Freighter Flights)
What category does Nauru Airlines operate their B737s?
Cat C, however, is permissible to increase the category above C in accordance with the relevant procedures.
(3.1.1.2 Performance Category/Operating Minima)
Are Nauru Airlines allowed to operate RPT services under VFR?
No.
(3.1.1 Flight Authorisation and Category)
What is the minimum amount of cabin attendants required on revenue RPT services?
Three, however up to six may be rostered.
(3.1.9 Crew Complement)
Are crew allowed to set their desired seat position after the aircraft commences taxi?
No,
NOTE: seat position is to be checked before the aircraft commences to taxi. (3.1.10.2 Pilot’s Seat Position)
Is it permissible to leave the flight deck door unlocked after the engine has started with no passengers on board?
NO
Note: flight deck door shall be kept locked at all times from engine start to engine shutdown (3.1.11 Flight Deck Access)
What is the approved procedure to access the flight deck? What are the requirements when gaining access to the flight deck?
Entry to the flight deck will only be granted via contact through the interphone with the agreed access code word. When the flight deck door has to be opened during flight, it must be ensured there are no passengers in the forward galley area or standing waiting for the restroom.
(3.1.11 Flight Deck Access)
What is the minimum amount of crew members required in the flight deck on the cruise sector? What is the policy?
Two crew members of which one MUST be a pilot. If one pilot is absent from the flight deck, a substitute crew member must be in the flight deck with the door locked until the pilot returns.
(3.1.11 Flight Deck Access)
When is the only permissible time the Capt or F/O may disable Cockpit Voice Recorder or the Flight Data Recorder in flight?
Never. Disabling the Cockpit Voice Recorder or Flight Data Recorder shall ONLY be conducted by maintenance personnel in order to preserve the data when required.
(3.1.13 Flight Deck Recorder)
Who is responsible for recording clearances? What actions are required after?
Both: SID’s: Captain on the flight plan and FO on TOLD card. STAR: PF on the flight plan and PM on the TOLD card.
Level changes en route are to be recorded on the flight plan, together with the time of receipt (UTC). After both pilots have recorded the clearance, the PF is to repeat the clearance in its entirety to the PM for confirmation before proceeding.
Is it permissible to fly at night or in IMC without the Flight Director and Auto Pilot unserviceable?
No, the Flight Director and the Autopilot must be coupled for all en route and approach phases of the flight at night and in Instrument meteorological condition (IMC) conditions.
Note: Only applies to Enroute and approach phase. DDG 22-01 & 34-12 (3.1.28 Flight Management Computer (FMC) and Automatic Flight Policy and Procedures)
BEFORE V1: How is an engine failure confirmed?
Two or more engine instruments.
(3.3.6 Engine Failure or Fire Procedures)
What is Nauru Airlines IFR take off minimums? Who makes the assessment?
At least the Minima specified in the applicable Jeppesen chart or 550m RVR whichever is the higher. The captain.
(3.1.76 IFR Take-Off MINIMA)
When is an aircraft considered to be dispatched?
The moment at which the aircraft begins to taxi under its own power.
(DDG 2.2 dispatch policy)
When should crew refer to the DDG for defects and when should the crew refer the AFM for system defects?
On the ground, crew should first consult DDG, once dispatched, refer to AFM.
Eg QRH. (DDG 2.4 Management of defects)
What is the acceleration altitude when doing a missed approach?
1000ft above the MDA/DA unless specified otherwise in Missed App procedure.
(3.1.114 Missed Approach Acceleration Altitude)
When must the F/O instruct the cabin crew to disarm the doors and crosscheck?
During taxi-in when making final turn to the aerobridge/parking bay.
(3.1.116 Door Disarming Procedure)
What is the response call if the PM calls: “FLAPS UP, NO LIGHTS”?
PITCH MODE: VNAV/LVL CHNG
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What is the response call if the PM calls “FAF HEIGHT CHECKED”?
___ (TDZE) set
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What standard weight does Nauru Airlines use for an adult male and female?
Male = 89kg, Female=74kg.
(2.3.3 Passenger Weights)
Is it permissible to reduce the performance category of the B737, if approach weights will allow a slower speed? What is the allocated performance category?
No, Cat C. Flight crew may elect to increase the performance category with the relevant procedures.
(3.1.1.2 Flight Authorisation and Category & 3.1.109.1 Circling Approaches)
How are FMC entries made in flight?
FMC entries should be cross checked by both pilots with no discontinuities PRIOR to execution and must be checked again after execution.
(3.1.29 FMC Entries)
Above what altitude may the PF make FMC entries? What is recommended?
FL100: All FMC entries are to be made by the PM whilst the aircraft is in flight below 10000 feet.
(3.1.29 FMC Entries)
When do the ‘No contact’ periods start and end?
The No Contact periods are: Take-Off – from the start of the Take-off roll until Landing Gear Up Landing – from Landing Gear Down until the end of the Landing Roll.
(3.1.30 Sterile Flight Deck and No Contact policy)
When does the STERILE FLIGHT DECK procedure commence and cease? What does the PM do to indicate this?
DEP: Engine start to passing 5000ft. ARR: Passing 5000ft until commencing taxi.
Note: PM MUST double chime passing 5000ft. (3.1.30 Sterile Flight Deck and No Contact policy)
What is the required policy on Altitude setting after an airways clearance is received?
The assigned altitude included in an airways clearance must be set on the MCP or, if limiting, any altitude restriction assigned by ATC.
(3.1.25 Altitude Setting)
When departing an aerodrome OCA, what altitude must be set on the MCP?
The highest IFR cruising level beneath the lower limit of that airspace should be set in the MCP.
(3.1.26 Departure Outside Controlled Airspace)
When should company calls and PA’s be performed?
During low workload areas of flight. With the autopilot engaged.
(3.1.27 Flight Deck Workload)
When should flight plan details and paperwork such as trip record be carried out? Is there a requirement?
Above FL100 or on the ground after shutdown. The autopilot MUST be engaged.
(3.1.27 Flight Deck Workload)
When is the PM required to provide advisory callouts?
When the aircraft is flown outside exceedance parameters.
(3.1.32.1 Exceedance Callouts)
Who must call out the change on the FMA display?
The pilot making the MCP selection must call out the FMA change.
(3.1.32.2 Standard FMA Callouts)
What should the PF say when a PM makes a callout and there is no specified response callout?
CHECKED (Except for V1 and VR calls)
(3.1.32.3 Response to Callouts)
What are the hand over/take over calls?
When the PF wishes to hand over control, he will call “YOU HAVE CONTROL” and retain control until the PM responds and say “I HAVE CONTROL”.
(3.1.33 Hand Over and Take Over Procedure)
What are the four steps in the SAFE escalation procedure?
S- State the exceedance. A- Announce a solution. F- Fix the exceedance by calling “CAPTAIN YOU MUST LISTEN” E- Emergency statement and take control.
(3.1.34 Safe Escalation Framework)
What mandatory report does the captain need from the cabin prior to taking off?
CABIN SECURE
(3.1.35 Flight Deck and Cabin Communication)
How long must crew wait prior to resetting a circuit breaker and how many resets are permissible?
One reset is permissible after a 2 minute cooling period.
(3.1.36 Resetting Circuit Breakers)
Can FUEL PUMP CB’s be reset by crew?
No, Fuel pump circuit breakers are NOT reset under any circumstances without first ensuring an appropriate maintenance investigation has been completed.
(3.1.36 Resetting Circuit Breakers & DDG ATA 28 Fuel)
What is the company policy with fire detected warnings?
They MUST be treated as genuine with the appropriate procedure executed.
(3.1.38 Fire Detector Warnings)
What is the minimum crew oxygen pressure required to dispatch when already outside of Australia?
The minimum dispatch pressures are set out in Volume 3 – Flight Planning and Performance Manual – Flight Planning is MANDATORY requirement.
(3.1.39 Crew Oxygen)
What is the minimum crew oxygen pressure required to dispatch out of Australia?
1250 psi, prior to each sector regardless of crew change.
(3.1.39 Crew Oxygen)
When must the oxygen communication system be tested?
Prior to each flight sector regardless of a crew change.
(3.1.39 Crew Oxygen & CASR Part 91 section 10.02 of the MOS)
If one pilot leaves the cockpit in cruise, what two emergencies must the PF at this time be prepared for?
Emergency descent and engine failure or fire in the cruise.
What is the company policy on TCAS warnings?
All TCAS warnings MUST be treated as genuine with the QRH manoeuvres executed.
During a TCAS RA, the PM must announce “TCAS RA” to ATC and “CLEAR OF CONFLICT, RETURNING TO ____” once clear of conflict. (3.1.40 Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System & Jeppesen Pacific 7.3 Emergency communication)
When can EGPWS warning be ignored?
In DAY VMC, only when no obstacle or terrain hazard can visually be verified.
(3.1.41 Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System)
Are all EGPWS or TCAS warnings an IRM?
Yes
(Jeppesen Pacific 3.2.1 RRM - REPORTING – ALL AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS)
When MUST inboard landing lights be turned on and off during departure?
ON when entering a runway, and OFF when passing FL100. The captain may elect to turn all landing lights on and off any time for enhanced safety purposes.
Note: Extended operation of inboard landing lights may cause lamp failure due to excessive heat particularly when high.
Are all EGPWS or TCAS warnings an IRM?
Yes.
When MUST inboard landing lights be turned ON and OFF during departure?
ON when entering a runway, and OFF when passing FL100.
The captain may elect to turn all landing lights on and off any time for enhanced safety purposes. Extended operation of inboard landing lights may cause lamp failure due to excessive heat particularly when high ambient temperatures exist.
When MUST inboard landing lights be turned ON and OFF during arrival and approach?
Passing FL150 on descent. All landing lights are to be turned off once the runway has been vacated.
When should the RUNWAY TURN OFF lights be turned ON and OFF during departure?
ON when entering a runway, and OFF when passing FL100.
When should the STROBE lights be turned ON and OFF during departure?
ON when entering a runway, and OFF when vacating runway. Strobes remain ON for the entire flight.
When must the taxi light be turned ON?
The taxi light should be selected ON during all taxi operations day and night.
When must the logo lights be used?
Night operations only.
ON when entering a runway, and OFF when passing FL100. During descent selected ON passing FL150.
What is NA max crosswind policy for the B737 CL & NG?
45M> 34 kts (Dry) & 25kts (Wet)
Narrow RWY: 30kts (Dry) & 20kts (Wet)
Standing water/slush/snow/ice: 15 kts.
When calculating the LDR on a dry runway, what factor should be used to determine if the LDA will be adequate?
67% Increase in LDR. Yes, but only for departure calculations. Enroute landing calculations require a 15% addition to LDR.
When calculating the LDR on a wet runway, what factor should be used to determine if the LDA will be adequate?
92% increase in LDR. Yes, however 15% should be added to LDR when using ENROUTE landing function.
When using the OPT, Landing En-route function, what factor must the LDR be increased by to satisfy regulatory requirements?
15% increase in LDR. No this must be manually added on. Non normal operations does not require any additional factoring.
If there is a difference between the flight plan track and FMC track, which one should be set on the MCP course window?
FMC track.
What is the maximum permissible difference between the F/O or CAPT altimeter and the nominated elevation?
With the correct QNH, individual altimeters should indicate the nominated elevation to within ±60 ft of the airport elevation. Maximum difference between the Captain’s and First Officer’s altimeter and field elevation is 75 ft.
When should the take off briefing be completed?
After the airways clearance has been received.
What pertinent items are to be included in a normal departure briefing?
- Intended RWY
- Flaps
- Aircondition
- Roll mode to be used
- Direction of turn after take off
- Initial altitude.
What is the non-normal briefing for before V1?
BELOW 80 kts, during the take off roll if we have any abnormalities* BELOW 80 kts we will reject the take off.
ABOVE 80 kts BELOW V1, we will ONLY reject for: fire or fire warning, engine failure, predictive wind-shear warning, if the airplane is unsafe or unable to fly.
What must the non-normal briefing for after V1 include?
- Special procedure
- Acceleration altitude
- MSA.
When are the non normal procedure prior to V1 required to be briefed?
On the first sector only.
What is the window for Calculated off-blocks time (COBT). What must be done outside this window?
5 minutes before, 15 min after. OCC must be consulted.
What must be done if any doubt exists during taxi on the ground in respect to clearance?
Stop the aircraft and seek immediate clarification.
What is the minimum en-route weather avoidance policy?
All thunderstorms should be avoided by a minimum of 10 nm at or below FL200 and a minimum of 20 nm above FL200.
What is the minimum distance away where a thunderstorm is approaching a field, the crew may attempt an approach and landing?
Approach and landing are not to be conducted at an aerodrome where a thunderstorm is approaching the field at a distance of less than 5 nm.
In case of weather radar failure en route, what restrictions apply?
A flight is only permitted to continue to an aerodrome if weather forecasts indicate no likelihood of thunderstorms, lightning, turbulence or icing.
When should reduced thrust be used for take off and what is the preferred method?
Company policy is to use reduced thrust for all take-offs when conditions permit. The Assumed Temperature method is the preferred method.
When is using reduced thrust prohibited?
- If the runway is contaminated
- Suspected wind-shear exists.
- Anti ice fluids are required for departure.
- Any condition that is deemed to enhance the safety of the flight by the captain.
- Prohibited by an MEL or CDL.
Who can be PF during an RTO manoeuvre?
The captain always conducts the RTO.
What steps can be taken to improve take off performance and in what order should this be executed?
- ATM method (Use actual temperature)
- No bleeds take off
- Optimum flaps
- Improved climb.
When must the PF conduct a pre-departure review and what should it include?
Once the cabin informs the crew ‘CABIN SECURE’, the crew can commence the before takeoff checklist. After completing the checklist: 1. Any changes to initial normal take off briefing 2. Flaps 3. Bleeds 4. Direction of turn 5. Altitude.
What is the lowest altitude crew may commence a turn after take off?
500 ft unless required for special engine failure procedures.
What is Nauru Airlines standard noise abatement procedure?
- Maintain Vref +10-20kts to 800ft AGL
- Thrust reduction at 1000ft AGL
- First flap retraction commenced at 1000 ft
- Maintain Vzf until passing 3000ft
- Accelerate to enroute climb speed.
What is Nauru Airlines standard acceleration altitude? How is this set up?
1000ft. Set on both pilots reference altitude markers.
What items are included in the company callback?
- OFF blocks time
- Departure time
- Arrival time
- Delay code
- Delay time.
What items does the cruise cross check include?
- The aircraft is cruising at the correct cruising altitude by checking MCP.
- The correct altimeter setting is set.
- The FMA pitch indicates VNAV PATH.
What is NA policy for minimum permissible cruise speed?
Min manoeuvre speed PLUS 10 kts.
What is the maximum safe bank angle above FL300?
15º in modes other than LNAV.
When is it permissible to descend below the MSA or LSAT?
- When conducting a DGA
- When being vectored to a MVA by ATC.
- After passing the IAF on a IAP.
- Within 30nm when cleared for a visual approach.
- Climbing after take off.
Is it permissible to commence an approach if the RVR is reported below the minimum visibility for landing?
No.
When conducting a IAP, descending below what altitude is prohibited if ATC report the RVR to have reduced below minimum for landing?
1000ft AFE. The approach may continue to the MDA/DA.
What is the correct procedure for changing aids?
In the departure and approach phases both pilots must identify the primary departure and approach aids aurally. Changes are to be announced clearly to the other pilot.
Prior to commencing an ILS approach, what should the Radio Altimeter decision height reference indicator be set to?
DH (Height).
Prior to commencing an RNAV approach, what should the Radio Altimeter decision height reference indicator be set to?
MDH (Height).
Prior to commencing an NDB/VOR approach, what should the Radio Altimeter decision height reference indicator be set to?
MDH (Height).
Prior to commencing a VISUAL approach, what should the Radio Altimeter decision height reference indicator be set to?
(-) 20 ft.
How long is a reported QNH valid for?
15 minutes.
What margin above stalling speed does Vref give?
30% (1.3 x Vs).
During an instrument approach, who is responsible for maintaining a visual lookout?
PM, however either pilot may call “VISUAL” when visual contact is made with the runway environment.
If either pilot calls visual, what is the response call and what procedures are to be used for the remainder?
VISUAL, visual procedures.
If a runway aligned 2D approach plate has an MDA of 500ft, what is the actual MDA that must be used?
550ft, set on both pilot’s reference Altitude markers and is treated as a DA.
If pilots add 50ft to change an MDA to a DA, are pilots allowed to descend below this MDA + 50ft?
Yes, however descending below the MDA on the approach plate is prohibited.
If a runway aligned 2D approach plate has an MDA of 1030ft for circling, what is the actual MDA that must be used?
1030 ft (1100 ft on MCP) set on both pilot’s reference Altitude markers and is treated as a MDA.
What is the minimum altitude for a Circling Approach in Nauru Airline’s?
500’ AAL.
What weather conditions may allow pilots to plan for a visual approach?
If the weather conditions are greater than the following: 1. No more than FEW clouds below the LSALT+500ft. 2. At least 10km of vis. 3. No weather in the area.
What weather conditions may allow pilots to plan for a visual approach?
If the weather conditions are greater than the following:
1. No more than FEW clouds below the LSALT+500ft.
2. At least 10km of visibility.
3. No weather in the area.
An IAP must still be briefed and prepared for. (3.1.107.4 Visual Approaches)
What is the minimum distance from threshold for final approach when conducting a visual approach?
Straight-in visual approaches shall join the final approach course at a point no less than 5nm from the runway threshold.
All visual approaches should be flown at a 3° approach angle and the visual aiming point for landing is the touchdown zone aiming point. (3.1.107.4 Visual Approaches)
How should the Auto-throttle be disengaged during an ILS or V/S pitch mode approach?
Deselecting speed.
(3.1.108 Autopilot and Autothrottle Usage)
How should the Auto-throttle be disengaged during a VNAV pitch mode approach?
Disengaging the A/T.
(3.1.108 Autopilot and Autothrottle Usage)
What is the stabilised approach criteria?
- RoD <1000ft/pm unless briefed to be in excess.
- IAS: Vref +10 kts/-5 kts.
- Minimal changes to track, profile and path required to land.
- Correct configuration.
- Checklist done.
(3.1.109 Stabilised Final Approach)
What is the recommended approach profile of a 3D app?
- 3000’ AGL or intercepting the final descent path: Flaps 5 and reducing to Flap 5 manoeuvring speed.
- 2500’ AGL: Select gear down, Flap 15 and reduce to Flaps 15 manoeuvring speed.
- 1500’ AGL: Select landing flap and reduce to VAPP.
(3.1.110 Recommended Approach Profiles)
What is the recommended approach profile of a 2D app?
- IAF: Flaps 5 and reducing to Flap 5 Manoeuvring Speed.
- For runway aligned approaches.
- FAF: Gear down, select landing flap and reduce to VAPP.
- For circling approaches.
- FAF: Gear down and Flap 15. Remain in this configuration until turning base.
(3.1.110 Recommended Approach Profiles)
When is it likely that crew will miss the G/S or FAF height check?
When the check is around 2500ft AGL.
When should auto brake be used and how is its use calculated?
Using OPT.
1. Adverse weather conditions, or
2. Crosswind greater than 10kts, or
3. Wet runway operations, or
4. Narrow runway operations, or
5. Landing runway length is less than 2000m.
(3.1.111 Autobrake Usage and Setting for Landing)
When is reverse thrust to be used?
On all landings unless the airport restricts the use of reverse thrust or a roll through is offered by ATC, then minimum idle reverse thrust shall be used.
A full stop landing must be completed after reverse thrust has been selected after touchdown. (3.1.112 Reverse Thrust Usage During Landing)
Who is responsible for stowing the reverse thrust levers after landing and by when must the reverse thrust be stowed?
The PF is responsible for stowing the reversers to the FULL DOWN position, and must control the aircraft until this is done. The PF shall commence thrust lever stowage prior to the 60 kt call made by the PM.
Commencing the stowage does not mean it must be stowed by 60 knots. FCTM indicates the levers should be positioned to reverse idle by taxi speed which is 30 kts on normal taxiways or 50 kts for high speed taxiways. Then to full down once the engines are at idle (+/- 25% N1) (3.1.112 Reverse Thrust Usage During Landing)
When is reverse thrust most effective and when should it be activated?
At high speeds. Reverse thrust should be engaged as soon as the main wheel touchdown but NO EARLIER.
(3.1.112 Reverse Thrust Usage During Landing)
Who is responsible for making the decision to go around?
Captain.
(3.1.113 Missed Approach)
When should a missed approach be executed?
- Minimum visibility not met at MDA/DA or lost after descending below MDA/DA.
- Passing 1000’ AFE, RVR is reported by ATC as continually less than the specified minimum for the approach.
- The aircraft is not stabilised below 1000 feet in IMC or 500 feet in VMC.
(3.1.113 Missed Approach)
What is the PF call after passing acceleration altitude?
BUG UP.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts & 3.3.6.3 Engine Failure/Fire Procedure Calls)
What is the response call to ‘BUG UP’ from the PF?
speed’ SET eg. 210/220/230 kts SET.
(3.3.6.3 Engine Failure/Fire Procedure Calls)
What is the call the PF should make when approaching transition altitude during a climb?
TRANSITION, SET STANDARD.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What is the PM’s call when the localiser or course-bar leaves full scale deflection?
LOCALISER ALIVE.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What is the PM’s call when the glide slope leaves full scale deflection?
GLIDESLOPE ALIVE.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What is the PM’s role when approaching minimums?
Call ‘100 FT’ when 100ft above the minimums, at which point the PM looks outside to call acquire visual reference. If NOT VISUAL, the PM will say nothing and call ‘MINIMUM, VISUAL or NIL SIGHTING’.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What is the PF’s role when approaching minimums?
Maintain a scan of instruments until the PM calls, ‘MINIMUMS, VISUAL or NIL SIGHTING’ at which point the PF either calls: ‘LANDING or GOING AROUND’.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What call must the PM make at the FAF?
‘GLIDESLOPE HEIGHT CHECKED’ (ILS) or ‘FAF HEIGHT CHECKED’ (RNAV).
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What is the PM call for one reverser not operating normally?
‘NO REVERSER NO__’.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What is the PM call for reverser operating normally?
‘REVERSERS NORMAL’.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What is the PM call for speed brake not in the up detent?
‘SPEEDBRAKE NOT UP’.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What is the PM’s call if the rate of descent exceeds 1000fpm below 1000ft?
‘SINKRATE’.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
When must the ‘AIRSPEED’ exceedance call be made by the PM?
When the IAS exceeds either 5 kts below Vref or 10kts above Vref.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
When must the PM call ‘LOCALISER’?
When the ILS/LOC reaches full scale deflection on the expanded scale.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
When must the PM call ‘GLIDESLOPE’?
When the G/S reaches one dot high/low.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What is the tolerance for an NDB approach, and what is the exceedance call?
5º deflection. ‘TRACK’ if using Azimuth guidance, ‘COURSE BAR’ if using a CDI.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What is the tolerance for an RNAV approach, and what is the exceedance call?
- Half scale. ‘CROSS TRACK’.
- Full scale. ‘CROSS TRACK LIMIT’.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
When should the PM call PAPI/VASI?
During a VISUAL approach ONLY if the PAPI/VASI is indicating a sustained ONE DOT HIGH/LOW indication.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
What actions are required prior to engine start when using an EFB?
- On airplane mode.
- Bluetooth is OFF.
- Secured in the approved mount.
- Wifi is OFF.
(3.4.5 Electronic Flight Bag - 3.4.5.3 Operational Responsibilities and Procedures)
What actions are required if the iPad starts overheating or catches fire?
- Remove all power from the device.
- If possible, place the iPad in a fireproof bag or place in an empty waste bin and place the bin in the lavatory.
- Fill the bin with non-alcoholic liquid.
- Monitor.
(3.4.5 Electronic Flight Bag- 3.4.6.1 Emergency Procedures)
How many GNSS’s are Nauru Aeroplanes fitted with?
Two.
(3.4.2 Performance Based Navigation (PBN - 3.4.2.1 Operational Approval)
What is the F/O’s actions when cleared to line up?
- Turn on RWY TURN OFF AND INBOARD LANDING lights.
- Turn off taxi light.
- Double chime.
- Turn on strobe lights.
- Ensure TA/RA is selected on transponder.
- Turn on Wx radar and select wx & terrain on.
(A5.2 - Take-off Procedure)
What critical items need to be checked when conducting an RNP procedure?
- DME updating is off.
- RNP is correct and ANP < RNP.
- PM is on Prog pg.4.
- PF is on legs pg, map 10.
- Correct QNH & Temperature set in forecast page.
(3.4.2.7 RNP/PBN Approach Guide & 3.5.6 RNP/PBN Approach Guide)
What is the PF’s call when declaring a go around? What is the PM’s actions?
“GO AROUND, flaps 15”.
The PM must select flap 15, monitor the flap retraction and check go around thrust is set. Then call “POSITIVE RATE” after verifying positive increase on altimeter.
(A5.8 - Go-Around and Missed Approach Procedure)
After V1, if an engine failure occurred, when can crew call ‘FAILURE’?
Once the gear’s retracted.
(3.3.6.2 Engine Failure/Fire after V1)
How is an engine, cargo hold or APU FIRE identified?
Engine FIRE is solely confirmed by an ENGINE FIRE WARNING (Light and bell). Any fire warning MUST be treated as genuine.
What is the call after an engine failure has been confirmed?
‘ENGINE Failure’.
(3.3.6.2 Engine Failure/Fire after V1)
What is the max crosswind penalty for a wet runway compared to dry?
10 kts.
(3.1.45 Crosswind Limitations)
What is the minimum amount of Cabin Crew required for revenue services?
Minimum 3.
(Note: Maximum six Cabin Crew may be rostered if needed)
When is a landing performance calculation mandatory?
- RWY is below 2600m.
- Above 1% slope.
- Airport Elevation above 1000ft.
- Above ISA + 15°.
- RWY Wet or Contaminated.
- Tail wind.
(A8.2.1.11 - Descent Preparation)
When LDA permits, what is the best combination to reduce fuel cost and brake wear?
FLAP 30 + REV IDLE + Autobrake 1.
(A8.2.1.11 - Descent Preparation)
What does NITS stand for?
Nature of the situation or emergency.
Intentions of the crew.
Time related information.
Special Instructions.
(A8.5.2 – Decision Making)
What must the captain check prior to receiving a pushback clearance?
- Confirm all doors closed and Steering bypass pin installed.
- Confirm cleared to pressurised hydraulics.
(3.1.66 Pushback Procedures)
