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PC3 > Vol.3-Ch.3 "Neurology" > Flashcards

Vol.3-Ch.3 "Neurology" Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two main section of the peripheral nervous system?

A 
The Autonomic (automatic or non voluntary)
 and the Somatic (voluntary)
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2
Q

What are the two sections of the Autonomic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic (fight or flight) and Parasympathetic (feed or breed)

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3
Q

What are the 3 sections of the nervous cell (neuron) body?

A
  • Cell body (contains nucleas)
  • Dendrites (transmit electrical impulses to the cell body)
  • Axons (transmit electrical impulses away from the cell body)
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4
Q

How does the nervous system create electrical impulses?

A

Similarly to the heart

The neuron is positively charged on the outside and negative on the inside at a resting (polarized) state. When electrically stimulated the sodium outside rushes inside, pushing the potassium to the outside of the cell to make up for the imbalance of charge created (it depolarizes). This depolarization is transmitted down the neuron at a high right of speed.

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5
Q

What is the area where neurons come close to each other to send neurotransmitters across ____?

A

Synapses are where neurons come close to each other to send neurotransmitters (either acetylcholine or norepinephrine) across a synaptic cleft to the receiving neurons post synaptic membrane.

**(The giving neuron is using it’s synaptic terminals to get close to the receiving neuron)

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6
Q

What are the 3 layers of the meninges that cover the entire central nervous system to protect it?

A
  • Duramatter (durable outer most layer)
  • Arachnoid membrane (middle web like layer)
  • Pia Mater

***The subarachnoid space is between the arachnoid and pia mater

***The subdural space is between the dura and the arachnoid

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7
Q

What are the 6 regions of the brain?

Which create the forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain, and brain stem?

A

Forebrain:

              - Cerebrum
              - Diencephalon

Brainstem:

               - Mesencephalon (also the called midbrain)
               - Pons
               - Medulla Oblongata

Hindbrain:

               - Cerebellum
               - Brain Stem (all those under that category)
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8
Q

What controls the important areas of:

  • personality
  • motor
  • speech
  • sensory
  • vision
  • balance/coordination/fine motor
  • reticular activating system
A
  • personality = frontal lobe of cerebrum
  • motor (broad movements) = frontal lobe of cerebrum
  • speech = temporal lobe of cerebrum
  • sensory = parietal lobes of cerebrum
  • vision = occipital cortex of cerebrum
  • balance/coordination/fine motor = cerebellum
  • reticular activating system = lateral portion of the medulla, pons, and especially midbrain (the RAS sends impulses to and receives impulses from the Cerebral Cortex. It is responsible for maintaining consciousness and the ability to respond to stimuli)
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9
Q

How does the brain get it’s blood?

A

Through two systems that join at the Circle of Willis before entering structures of the brain,

  • carotid system
  • vertebrobasilar
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10
Q

Where does the spinal cord begin and end? How long is it in the average adult?

A

It begins at the medulla and goes through the foramen magnum and down the spinal canal to end around the 1st lumbar vertebra

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11
Q

How many pairs of nerve fibers exit the spinal cord?

A

31 pairs

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12
Q

Efferent VS Afferent VS Dermatomes?

A

Efferent (motor) fibers carry impulses FROM the CNS TO the body

Afferent (sensory) fibers carry impulses TO the CNS FROM the body

Dermatomes are areas of the skin that correspond to a nerve route and supply sensation to it

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13
Q

What are the 4 categories of peripheral nerves?

A
  • Somatic Sensory
  • Somatic Motor
  • Visceral (autonomic) sensory
  • Visceral (autonomic) motor
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14
Q

What are the 2 neurotransmitters for the CNS (what gets released by neurons over synaptic clefts) and to which system do they belong?

A

Neurons either transmit Acetylcholine for the Parasympathetic and Somatic (voluntary) nervous system

or

Norepinephrine for the sympathetic nervous system

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15
Q

The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system are the two components that make up the _____ nervous system.

Normally they are at balance but during time of stress the _____ takes over and during times of rest the _____ takes over

A

The Sympathetic and Parasympathetic nervous system are the two components that make up the Autonomic nervous system. (remember the Somatic NS is the opposite of autonomic but on the same level)

Normally they are at balance but during time of stress the Sympathetic nervous system takes over (using epinephrine & norepinephrine) and during times of rest the parasympathetic takes over (using acetylcholine)

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16
Q

What happens when the Sympathetic nervous system is activated? (5)

What neurotransmitters mediate these actions?

A
  • increased heart rate
  • increased blood pressure
  • dilated pupils
  • rise in blood sugar
  • bronchodilation

Epinephrine and norepinephrine mediate these effects oppositely

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17
Q

What happens when the Parasympathetic nervous system is activated? (4)

What neurotransmitters mediate these actions?

A
  • decrease in heart rate
  • increase in digestive activity
  • pupillary constriction
  • reduced blood glucose

Acetylcholine mediates these effects

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18
Q

What are the 12 cranial nerves?

A 
CN-I = Olfactory (smell)
CN-II = Optic
CN-III = Oculomotor
CN-IV = Trochlear (keep eyes moving together)
CN-V = Trigeminal (facial senses and chewing)
CN-VI = Abducens (downward eye movement)
CN-VII = Facial
CN-VIII = Acoustic (Vestibulocochlear) 
CN-IX = Glossopharyngeal (swallowing, baroreceptors)
CN-X = Vagus (PNS, heart, respiration)
CN-XI = Spinal Accessory (neck,swallowing,vocal chords)
CN-XII = Hypoglossal (voluntary control of tongue)

“Ooo, Ooo, Ooo, To Touch And Feel Very Good Velvet, Such Heaven”

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19
Q

The ability to respond to stimuli depends on an intact _____.

Cognition and the ability to respond to stimuli received from the environment depends on an intact _____.

A

The ability to respond to stimuli depends on an intact Reticular Activating System (RAS).

Cognition and the ability to respond to stimuli received from the environment depends on an intact Cerebral Cortex.

The two work together to receive, process, and respond to environmental stimuli

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20
Q

What are the main 2 categories of mechanisms that are able to cause an altered mental status?

A
  • Structural Lesions (tumors, degenerative diseases, Intracranial hemorrhages, parasites, or trauma)
  • Toxic Metabolic States (anoxia or lack of O2, diabetic ketoacidosis, hepatic failure, hypercapnia, hypoglycemia, renal failure, etc)
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21
Q

What is Peripheral Neuropathy?

Mononeuropathy VS Polyneuropathy

A

The malfunction or damage of the peripheral nerves.

Mononeuropathy = involves a single nerve and is usually caused by localized conditions like trauma, compression, or infection

Polyneuropathy = involves multiple nerve and is usually caused by the demyelination or degeneration of peripheral nerves leading to sensory, motor, or both deficits.

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22
Q

What is the normal PaCO2 in the blood?
When testing for this, the ETCO2 should be within what range?

What happens to vasculature if the mmHg of CO2 in the blood goes up or down? How can that effect ICP?

A

Normal PaCO2 is 40mmHg so the ETCO2 should range from 35-40mmHg.

If the mmHg of CO2 goes above 40 it can cause vasodilation or if it goes below 35 it can cause vasoconstriction.

Therefore, if CO2 goes up (as it does with poor ventilation) it will cause vasodilation and a subsequent rise in ICP

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23
Q

What are Cheyne-Stokes Respirations?

A

A period of apnea lasting 10-60 seconds followed by gradually increasing depth and frequency of respiration before another period of apnea

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24
Q

What are Kussmaul’s Respirations?

A

Rapid, deep respirations caused by severe metabolic and CNS problems

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25
Q

What is Central Neurogenic Hyperventilation?

A

Hyperventilation caused by a lesion in the CNS, often rapid, deep, noisy respirations

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26
Q

What are Ataxic (Biot’s) Respirations?

A

Poor respirations caused by CNS damage, causing ineffective thoracic muscular coordination

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27
Q

What are Apneustic Respirations?

A

Prolonged inspiration unrelieved by expiration attempts

seen in pts with damage to the upper part of the pons

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28
Q

What are the 6 steps for sensorimotor evaluation?

A
  1. Determine AVPU
  2. Evaluate spine for pain and or tenderness
  3. Observe for bruises on the spine
  4. Observe for deformity of the spine
  5. Note any incontinence (suggest period of unconsciousness)
  6. Check circulation, motor, and sensory function of extremities (compare and contract bilaterally)
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29
Q

What are the 5 steps in checking motor system function

A
  1. Muscle tone (rigid or atrophied)
  2. Strength
  3. Flexion/Extension
  4. Coordination
  5. Balance
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30
Q

Adult Glasgow Coma Scale

A

EYE OPENING: (4)

  1. Spontaneous
  2. To Voice
  3. To Pain
  4. None

BEST VERBAL RESPONSE:(5)

  1. Oriented
  2. Confused
  3. Inappropriate Words
  4. Incomprehensible Words
  5. None

BEST MOTOR RESPONSE: (6)

  1. Obeys Commands
  2. Localizes Pain
  3. Withdrawals to Pain
  4. Flexion to Pain (Decorticate posturing)
  5. Extension to Pain (Decerebrate posturing)
  6. None
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31
Q

What do different GSC score ranges indicate?

A

13-15 = possible head injury
9-12 = moderate head injury
8 or less = severe head injury

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32
Q

What is the classic sign combination of increased ICP?

What is the name for the combo?

A

Cushing’s Triad:

  • Increased BP
  • Decreased Pulse
  • Irregular Respiration (overall decrease)

(Opposite of shock findings)

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33
Q

If Pt is unconscious and diabetic how would you give them glucose if they were hypoglycemic?

A

It must be done via Dextrose 50 (D50W) but try to only give enough to arouse the patient

34
Q

What is a common problem with alcoholics who have presented with signs of a neuro emergency?

What are 2 syndromes that this problem can evolve into if not corrected?

How can you correct it?

A

Chronic alcoholism interferes with the intake, absorption, and use of Thiamine. (required to convert pyruvic acid into acetyl coenzyme-A, important for metabolism)

A deficit in thiamine can lead to:

Wernicke’s Syndrome: an acute but reversible encephalopathy (brain disease) characterized by ataxia, eye muscle weakness, and mental derangement.

Korsakoff’s Psychosis: a memory disorder that may not be reversible once present.

You can give 100mg of Thiamine via IV, IM, or PO if ordered by medical direction

35
Q

For a patient with increased ICP, what two treatments can you start to help?

A
  • assist ventilations 10-12 times per minute with the goal of achieving 35-40 ETCO2
  • Admin Mannitol which causes diuresis, eliminating fluid from the intravascular space through the kidneys
    (Mannitol’s oncotic effect is also thought to cause a shift of fluids from the brain to circulation reducing brain edema)
36
Q

What type of drug can be very helpful in OCCLUSIVE type strokes?

A

Tissue Plasminogen Activators (tPA) and other fibrinolytic activators.

Pts who receive these must receive definitive care within 4.5 hour of ONSET (not tPA admin)

37
Q

Strokes can be divided into what main two categories?

A
  • Occlusive

- Hemorrhage

38
Q

How can infarction (tissue death) from ischemia (lack of blood flow) cause further harm to surrounding tissue even if that tissue is receiving some blood flow?

A

Infarction can cause the dead tissue to swell which puts pressure on the surrounding tissue (which is probably barely getting blood flow) and begin to cut off its blood supply as well.

As more and more tissue dies and swells, the ICP may increase enough to cause herniation of the brain through the foramen magnum

39
Q

Embolic VS Thrombotic Strokes
(both are occlusive)

What is the most common cause of embolic strokes?

A

Embolic Strokes: are caused by a solid, liquid, or gas that occludes an artery in the brain.

This is most often caused by a clot (thromboemboli) that usually arises from a diseased blood vessel in the neck (carotid) or from abnormally contracting chambers in the heart (atrial fibrillation often results in atrial dilation, a precursor to the formation of clots)

Thrombotic Strokes: or a Cerebral Thrombus is a blood clot that forms and grows in a cerebral artery that eventually shuts off flow.

This is often secondary to atherosclerosis; as the artery walls narrow from plaque build up, platelets can stick to the roughened surface and build to form a clot.

40
Q

Embolic strokes have an _____ onset where as thrombotic strokes have an _____ onset.

A

Embolic strokes have a rapid or acute onset where as thrombotic strokes have a gradual onset.

(this is because thrombotic strokes involve the building of the clot in the brain where as embolic is an already formed clot form elsewhere that suddenly lodges in a cerebral artery)

41
Q

Hemorrhagic strokes are usually _____ in onset and often occur in _____ or _____.

What is the typical causes of the strokes in those locations?

A

Hemorrhagic strokes are usually rapid in onset with a severe headache and occur within the brain (intracerebral) or in the subarachnoid space.

Hemorrhaging Within the brain is often caused by hypertensive patients that rupture small vessels deep within the brain

Subarachnoid hemorrhages often occur because of congenital blood vessel abnormalities (Aneurisms aka weakened vessels or Arteriovenous Malformations aka collections of abnormal blood vessels) or head trauma.

42
Q

What is stertorous breathing?

If there is hemorrhaging in the brain causing pupil sizes to be different which pupil will indicate what side of the brain the bleed is on?

A

Stertorous breathing = laborious breathing accompanied by snoring

The pupil that is more dilated is the side that the brain bleed is on

43
Q

Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Scale (LAPSS) considerations (5) and physical test?

A
  • age greater than 45?
  • history of seizures of epilepsy?
  • duration of symptoms less than 24 hours?
  • Pt bedridden or wheelchair bound?
  • Blood glucose between 60-400 mg/dl?

A. Have pt look up, smile, & show teeth
B. Compare grip strength of upper extremities
C. Assess arm strength for drift or weakness

44
Q

Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?

A

Check for:

  • Facial Droop
  • Arm Drift
  • Abnormal Speech
45
Q

What is a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)?

When must they resolve by to be considered a TIA?

A

It is a temporary interference with the blood supply to the brain producing symptoms of neurologic deficit.

Symptoms usually resolve within minutes to a few hours but usually resolve within 24 hours.

Even after the symptoms have passed 1/3 of pts usually have a stroke right after so these Pts are still considered at very High Risk for an impending stroke.

46
Q

What is the most common cause of a TIA and how fast or slow is the onset usually?

A

Usually caused by carotid artery disease and has a rapid onset

47
Q

What is the most common cause of seizures and what is a specific cause seen in children?

A

Most commonly seizures are Idiopathic Seizures or seizure that are caused from an unknown origin.

Kids can develop seizures when they have a sudden spike in body temperature

48
Q

What are the two main categories of seizures?

A

Generalized: Begin as electrical discharge in a small area of the brain but spread to involve the entire cerebral cortex

Partial: remain confined to a limited portion of the brain, causing localized malfunction

49
Q

What are the three types of generalized seizures? Describe them

A
  1. Tonic-Clonic Seizures: (Grand Mal) is a generalized motor seizure with tonic periods and clonic periods. During these a pts intercostal muscles and diaphragm are paralyzed and cyanosis will occur. Once respirations restart, the pt may have copious amount of oral secretions or frothiness.
  2. Absence Seizures: (Petit Mal) is about 10-30 seconds of unconsciousness, eye or muscle fluttering, and occasional loss of muscle tone. Loss of consciousness may be so brief it goes unnoticed. Usually does not occur in pts after the age of 20
  3. Pseudoseizures: (Hysterical seizures) stems from psychological disorders and presents with sharp and bizarre movements that can be interrupted with a terse command. There is no postictal period
50
Q

What are the 7 possible phases a Tonic-Clonic (Grand Mal) seizure pt may go through?

A
  1. Aura: a subjective sensation preceding seizure activity. Can occur hours or minutes before an episode.
  2. Loss of Consciousness
  3. Tonic Phase: continuous muscle tension or contraction of the patients muscles
  4. Hypertonic Phase: Extreme muscular rigidity including hyperextension of the back
  5. Clonic Phase: Muscle spasms marked by rhythmic movements. Pts jaw usually remains clenched.
  6. Post-Seizure: Pt remains in coma (unconscious)
  7. Postictal: After the pt awakens they may be confused or fatigued. May have headache and some neurological deficits. There will usually be incontinence suggesting a period of unconsciousness.
51
Q

What are the 2 types of Partial Seizures?

A
  1. Simple Partial Seizure: (AKA Focal motor, Focal Sensory, Jacksonian Seizures) are chaotic movements or dysfunction of one area of the body. Involve NO LOSS OF CONSCIOUSNESS. This will normally evolve into generalized tonic-clonic seizures
  2. Complex Partial Seizure: (AKA Temporal lobe or psychomotor seizures) Characterized by distinctive auras. There is NO LOSS OF CONSCIOUSNESS. Can include anything from unusual taste, smell, sounds, to objects being interpreted as large and up close or small and far away when they are not
52
Q

What is an easy ways to tell if a seizure is or was generalized or partial if it was not witness?

A

Generalized involve loss of consciousness where as partial does not.

So if there is a postictal period or incontinence present that is a good sign it was generalized.

53
Q

Why can Syncope sometimes be confused with a seizure? How can it be told apart?

What is the most common cause of Syncope?

A

Syncope can sometimes cause a brief initial period of seizure-like activity (usually less than 1 minute) but it will NOT be followed by a postictal period

The most common cause of Syncope is Vasovagal syncope associated with fatigue, emotional stress, or cardiac disease.

54
Q

What are some key points in the management of a seizure pt?

A
  • manage the airway as they usually have a lot of mouth secretions
  • protect their body temp as they will usually be hypo or hyper thermic
  • if seizure is prolonged or longer than 5 minutes consider giving an anticonvulsant
55
Q

What is Status Epilepticus?
What is the most common cause?
What is the most valuable intervention?
What drug can be given and how much to help?

A

Status Epilepticus is a series of 2 or more generalized motor seizures without an intervening return of consciousness.

Most common cause is failure ot take a prescribed anticonvulsant med

The most valuable intervention is protect the airway and provide 100% O2 via bag valve mask b/c the pt is not able to breath since the diaphragm and intercostal muscles are paralyzed

You can give 5-10mg of Diazepam via IV push for adults. This is a sedative and an anticonvulsant

56
Q

What is syncope and what are the 4 general categories of causes?

A

Syncope is a sudden, temporary loss of consciousness caused by the sudden, temporary loss of consciousness caused by insufficient blood flow to the brain, WITH RECOVERY ALMOST IMMEDIATELY ON BECOMING SUPINE (if syncope lasts longer than a few moments it IS NOT SYNCOPE)

1: Cardiovascular
2. Hypovolemia
3. Non-cardiovascular
4. Idiopathic (unknown)

57
Q

What are the 3 most common types of headaches?

A
  • Vascular: Has two subdivisions of Migraines (intense throbbing, photosensitivity, nausea, vomiting, and sweats for hours to days) and usually unilateral; and Cluster headaches which are unilateral headaches that occur repetitively for 4-15 minutes with nasal congestions, drooping eyelids and watery eyes.
    (Men get clusters more often, females get migraines more often)
  • Tension: (most common) a dull achy pain that feels like a forceful pressure is being applied to the neck and or head. Often starts as a mild headache in the morning and then progresses
  • Organic: Occur from tumors, infections, or other diseases of the brain, eyes, or other body systems.
58
Q

When a headache is present what symptoms should be looked for that might indicate Meningitis?

A

Continuous throbbing headache (mostly over the occiput), with fever, confusion, and nuchal rigidity (stiffness of the neck)

59
Q

What are 2 big warning signs with headaches that may indicate further care and investigation are needed?

A

if the headache is “the worst headache of my life” or if the headache is acute with a change in pattern

60
Q

What are the two most common cranial nerve disorders?

A

BELL’S PALSY:
(7th cranial nerve ; Facial nerve)

The 7th cranial nerve (Facial) innervates some facial muscles, salivary & tear glands, and allows the front portion of the tongue to taste. Bell’s Palsy is the dysfunction of that nerve, starting off with a pain behind the ear and developing in to a loss of muscle control in one side of the face; sensation remains unaffected. It can also cause abnormal tear and saliva production causing dry eye and dry mouth. This usually resolves completely without any residual deficits but sometimes antiviral drugs can help

Trigeminal Neuralgia: (Tic Doloureux)
(5th cranial nerve ; Trigeminal)

The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensation of the face as well as the motor function biting and chewing. IT HAS 3 BRANCHES: the ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular nerves. Trigeminal Neuralgia is a painful disorder causing electrical-shock-type spasms and pain in the distribution of the nerve often around the eyes, cheek, and lower part of face on one side. Can be agitated by brushing teeth, chewing, touch or loud noises and is usually chronic. Antiseizure drugs and in severe cases surgery are recommended for treatment

61
Q

What is a neoplasms and what are the 2 types?

A

They are the new growth of a tumor and even small slow growing ones can be dangerous in the head and spine because of the small rigid confines they are in.

There are:

Benign tumors that grow slowly and similar to normal cells

or

Malignant tumors that grow and spread very fast different from that of normal cells

62
Q

What is brain abscess? What sign or symptom sets it apart from those of a tumor?

A

It is a collection of pus localized in an area of the brain.

It frequently comes with a fever on top of other signs and symptoms common to a brain tumor

63
Q

What is a Degenerative Neurologic Disorder?

A

A collection of diseases that selectively affect one or more functional systems of the CNS

64
Q

What is Alzheimer’s?

Degenerative Neurologic Disorder

A

It is the most common cause of dementia in the elderly!

It is the death and disappearance of the nerve cells in the cerebral cortex. It starts out as just memory loss but can progress all the way to the complete loss of the ability to think, speak, and move

65
Q

What is Pick’s Disease?

Degenerative Neurologic Disorder

A

It is similar to Alzheimer’s but is a permanent form of dementia that typically happens only in certain areas of the brain arising from abnormal substances called Pick’s bodies or Pick’s cells that get inside nerve cells and damage areas of the brain. These pick bodies contain an abnormal form of protein called Tau. It tends to occur in certain families and usually at the age of 40-60.

No Treatment

66
Q

What is Huntington’s disease? (Huntington’s Chorea)

Degenerative Neurologic Disorder

A

A disease caused by a defect in chromosome #4. Thre are two forms: adult onset (around 30-40yo) and early onset in young people (more rare). If a parent has it there is a 50% chance the child will develop it.

Signs and symptoms include behavioral changes, unusual movements, and dementia.

No Treatment

67
Q

What is Cruetzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD)?

Degenerative Neurologic Disorder

A

It is a result of a protein called Prion that causes other normal proteins to fold abnormally, affecting their function. Symptoms include dementia, ataxia, hallucinations, jerking, and general decline.

There is a new strain of this that’s spread is related to Mad Cow Disease

No Treatment

68
Q

What is Muscular Dystrophy?

Degenerative Neurologic Disorder

A

A group of genetic diseases characterized by progressive muscle weakness and degeneration of the skeletal or voluntary muscle fibers (can affect the heart in some cases). The most common form is Duchenne.

69
Q

What is Multiple Sclerosis?

Degenerative Neurologic Disorder

A

It is an autoimmune attack on the myelin sheath of nerve cells causing inflammation, demyelination, or destruction of the myelin sheath. Damage to this leaves the nerves unable to conduct electrical impulses properly.

Signs and symptoms include weakness of one or more limbs, sensory loss, paresthesia, and changes in vision

70
Q

What is Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

Degenerative Neurologic Disorder

A

An autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks the peripheral nerve fibers causing inflammation. This can quickly get worse and can include muscle weakness or paralysis. Usually starts in the legs then moves to the arms and often results in mechanical ventilation

71
Q

What are the Dystonias?

Degenerative Neurologic Disorder

A

A group of disorders characterized by muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal posturing, or freezing during an action. Early signs and symptoms include a deterioration in handwriting, foot cramps, or dragging ones foot after walking or running

72
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease?

Degenerative Neurologic Disorder

A

Marked to be linked to DEFICIT IN DOPAMINE

Has 4 main characteristics:

  • Tremor (rhythmic back and forth motion)
  • Rigidity
  • Bradykinesia (slow movement)
  • Postural Instability
73
Q

What is Central Pain Syndrome?

Degenerative Neurologic Disorder

A

It is a result of CNS injury that can develop weeks or months later and is characterized by steady pain described as aching, burning, tingling, or “pins and needles”. Often pain meds offer no relief and sedation or other methods are needed.

74
Q

What is Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis? (Lou Gehrig’s disease)
(Degenerative Neurologic Disorder)

A

It is a degeneration of specific nerve cells that control voluntary movements. Generally causes muscle weakness, loss of motor control, difficulty speaking, and cramping. The disease eventually weakens the diaphragm which leads to breathing problems and usually kill the pt in 3-5 years due to pulmonary infection

75
Q

What is Myoclonus?

A

It is actually more of a symptom that can be seen in Multiple Sclerosis, Parkinson’s, and Alzheimer’s. It is a temporary, involuntary twitching or spasm of a muscle or group of muscles

76
Q

What is Spina Bifida?

Degenerative Neurologic Disorder

A

It is the result of one or more of the vertebra not closing properly during pregnancy leaving a part of the spinal cord unprotected. Long term damage includes physical and mobility impairments as well as learning disabilities.

Three most common kinds are:
- Myelomeningocele: the severest form where the spinal cord and meninges protrude from an opening in the spine

  • Meningocele: Normal development of the spinal cord but the meninges protrude through a spinal opening
  • Occulta: mildest form where one or more of the vertebra are malformed and covered by a layer of skin
77
Q

What is Poliomyelitis? (Polio)

Degenerative Neurologic Disorder

A

An infectious, inflammatory, viral disease of the CNS that sometimes results in permanent paralysis

78
Q

What are 4 considerations when dealing with a pt that has a Degenerative Neurologic Disorder?

A
  • mobility
  • communication
  • respiratory compromise
  • Anxiety
79
Q

What are the 2 Degenerative Neurologic Disorders that belong to a special class of disorders known as Motor Neuron Diseases?

A

Parkinson’s and Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

80
Q

What are the two classes of back pain?

Where is the most common complaint of back pain?

A

Traumatic or non-traumatic

Most common is the lower back (from bottom of rib cage to the gluteal muscles)

81
Q

What are the 3 main causes of pain in Non-Traumatic Back Pain?

A
  1. Disk Injury
  2. Vertebral Injury
  3. Cysts and Tumors
82
Q

What is Cauda Equina Syndrome?

A

A significant narrowing of the spinal canal that compresses the nerve roots below the level of the spinal cord (in the cauda equina)

PC3 (10 decks)

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