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CDC Vol 4 EXAM > Vol 4 Exam Questions (3) [636-653] > Flashcards

Vol 4 Exam Questions (3) [636-653] Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. (636) Through what system are allocation notices generated?

a. MilPDS.
b. PCIII.
c. MURT.
d. DTS.

A

a. MilPDS

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2
Q
  1. (637) What is the first step to take in DMHRSi when inprocessing a member?

a. Add the members profile.
b. Delete the members profile.
c. Remove employee from the command.
d. Verify the source system information with the member.

A

d. Verify the source system information with the member.

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3
Q
  1. (637) What is one of the most important aspects of in processing?

a. Completing GTC form.
b. Creating a suspense file.
c. Deleting from database.
d. In processing into database.

A

b. Creating a suspense file.

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4
Q
  1. (638) What is not an action a PAC worksheet can communicate to the CSS?

a. PCA.
b. CRO.
c. PCS-in.
d. Promotion.

A

d. Promotion.

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5
Q
  1. (638) Once the change request has been submitted, what do you check to ensure the change has been made?

a. Alpha roster.
b. Unit manning document.
c. Expense assignment system.
d. Medical expense and performance reporting.

A

a. Alpha roster.

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6
Q
  1. (639) What is defined as termination of active duty status and transfer or reversion to a reserve component not on active duty, including transfer to the individual ready reserve (IRR)?

a. Discharge.
b. Release from active duty.
c. Military service obligation.
d. Expiration term of service (ETS).

A

b. Release from active duty.

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7
Q
  1. (639) What is not necessarily a consideration for a hardship voluntary separation?

a. The family is separated.
b. Separation will eliminate the hardship.
c. The dependency or hardship is not temporary.
d. The airman has made every reasonable effort to remedy the situation.

A

a. The family is separated.

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8
Q
  1. (639) When is involuntary discharge not mandatory?

a. Drug abuse.
b. Alcohol abuse.
c. Civil court conviction.
d. Fraudulent enlistment.

A

b. Alcohol abuse.

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9
Q
  1. (640) What is emergency leave?

a. Chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member’s presence.

b. Non-chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the members to be present.

c. Chargeable leave that is granted to members who are under medical care as part of their prescribed treatment.

d. Non-chargeable leave that is granted to members who are under medical care as part of their prescribed treatment.

A

a. Chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member’s presence.

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10
Q
  1. (640) How many permissive TDY days may a losing commander approve for eligible members?

a. 20 days CONUS/30 days OCONUS.
b. 30 days CONUS/20 days OCONUS.
c. 30 days CONUS/30 days OCONUS.
d. 20 days CONUS/45 days OCONUS.

A

a. 20 days CONUS/30 days OCONUS.

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11
Q
  1. (641) What order is issued by a competent authority for reimbursement of expenses incident to official travel?

a. Travel.
b. Written.
c. Accounting.
d. Permissive.

A

b. Written.

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12
Q
  1. (641) The sponsoring unit can authorize lodging allowance up to what percent of the local lodging per diem rate for conferences?

a. 110.
b. 115.
c. 120.
d. 125.

A

d. 125.

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13
Q
  1. (642) What is awarded only to numbered organizations that perform meritorious service or outstanding achievements that clearly set the unit above and apart from similar units?

a. Air Force Outstanding Unit Award (AFOUA).
b. Air Force Organizational Excellence Award (AFOEA).
c. Joint Meritorious Unit Award (JMUA).
d. MAJCOM Award.

A

a. Air Force Outstanding Unit Award (AFOUA).

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14
Q
  1. (642) What is not a more common Air Force achievement awards?

a. Air Force Longevity Service Award (AFLSA).
b. Air Force Overseas Ribbon (AFOR).
c. Air Force Training Ribbon (AFTR).
d. Service Award

A

d. Service Award.

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15
Q
  1. (642) Who may initiate a recommendation for a decoration?

a. Supervisor.
b. Commander.
c. First sergeant.
d. Anyone, other than the person being recommended.

A

d. Anyone, other than the person being recommended.

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16
Q
  1. (643) When an airman will not be allowed to assume the next higher grade, the commander’s written notice must include the reasons for the non-recommendation, inclusive dates of the non-recommendation action, and

a. the Airman’s acknowledgement.
b. the promotion eligibility status code.
c. the Airman’s time in grade and time in service.
d. a statement indicating that the status is withheld.

A

a. the Airman’s acknowledgement.

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17
Q
  1. (643) In the WAPS, what two weighted factors account for 44 percent of the total point value?

a. PDG and EPRs.
b. SKT and PDG.
c. PDG and time in grade.
d. SKT and decorations.

A

b. SKT and PDG.

18
Q
  1. (643) In the weighted airman promotion system (WAPS), time in grade (TIG) is computed at the rate of

a. one-fourth point per month in grade up to 10 years.
b. one-fourth point per month in grade up to 20 years.
c. one-half point per month in grade up to 10 years.
d. one-half point per month in grade up to 20 years.

A

c. one-half point per month in grade up to 10 years.

19
Q
  1. (643) What is the enlisted performance reports (EPR) conversion factor?

a. 27.
b. 18.
c. 15.
d. 9.

A

a. 27.

20
Q
  1. (643) A TSgt is eligible for promotion to MSgt after becoming a 7 level,

a. 23 months TIG, and 7 years TAFMS.
b. 23 months TIG, and 8 years TAFMS.
c. 24 months TIG, and 7 years TAFMS.
d. 24 months TIG, and 8 years TAFMS.

A

b. 23 months TIG, and 8 years TAFMS.

21
Q
  1. (643) Under the stripes for exceptional performers program (STEP) program, no airman may be promoted more than once during any 12-month period under any combination of promotion programs except

a. SrAs.
b. SSgts.
c. TSgts.
d. MSgts.

A

a. SrAs.

22
Q
  1. (644) Monthly increment products are produced automatically upon receipt of the monthly promotion increment transactions that flow from Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) before the promotion effective date and on or about what day of the month?

a. 1st.
b. 5th.
c. 10th.
d. 15th.

A

d. 15th.

23
Q
  1. (645) What the P&A staff not able to do in BLSDM?

a. Request an individual report.
b. Request change of status.
c. Report duty status change.
d. Change of rater.

A

d. Change of rater.

24
Q
  1. (645) What is used for entering, tracking, resolving and reporting on pay and personnel related cases?

a. Case Management System.
b. Military Personnel Data System.
c. Base-Level Service Delivery Model.
d. Defense Medical Human Resources System - Internet.

A

a. Case Management System.

25
Q
  1. (646) You may change members’ duty status to “deserter” if they are absent for less than 30 days and

a. are in civil confinement.
b. are known to have purchased airline tickets.
c. have received counseling for personal problems.
d. have action pending on a previous unauthorized absence.

A

d. have action pending on a previous unauthorized absence.

26
Q
  1. (646) You change members’ duty status to “absent without leave – AWOL” when they have an unauthorized absence of more than

a. 24 hours, but less than 15 days.
b. 24 hours, but less than 30 days.
c. 48 hours, but less than 15 days.
d. 48 hours, but less than 30 days.

A

b. 24 hours, but less than 30 days.

27
Q
  1. (647) An enlisted performance report (EPR) will have at least how many evaluators?

a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 2, unless the rater qualifies as a single evaluator.
d. 3, unless the rater qualifies as a single evaluator.

A

c. 2, unless the rater qualifies as a single evaluator.

28
Q
  1. (647) Who is the evaluation forwarded to upon completion?

a. AFPC or ARPC.
b. AETC.
c. HQ USAF.
d. Members command.

A

a. AFPC or ARPC.

29
Q
  1. (647) In which situation would a letter of evaluation (LOE) not be mandatory?

a. Officers when required by AFI 36–3208.
b. Enlisted members participating in the WCAP.
c. Active duty A1Cs and below with less than 20 months’ TAFMS when a CRO occurs due to PCS/PCA of the rater or rate or separation/retirement of the rater.
d. A1C with 5 months TAFMS.

A

d. A1C with 5 months TAFMS.

30
Q
  1. (648) What below is not one of the three substantiating document used in conjunction with the BAS program?

a. AF Form 220.
b. DD Form 114.
c. DD Form 714.
d. DD Form 1475.

A

c. DD Form 714.

31
Q
  1. (649) What is an example of a nondirective publication?

a. Policy memorandums.
b. Mission directives.
c. Instructions.
d. Handbooks.

A

d. Handbooks.

32
Q
  1. (649) A MAJCOM or FOA issues what type of forms for use within the organization and subordinate organizations?

a. Field.
b. Departmental.
c. Non-prescribed.
d. Headquarters and unit.

A

a. Field.

33
Q
  1. (649) This is a form used Air Force-wide or by more than one MAJCOM, FOA, DRU, base or wing.

a. Field.
b. Departmental.
c. Non-prescribed.
d. Headquarters and unit.

A

b. Departmental.

34
Q
  1. (650) What is the second step if you have identified suspicious mail?

a. Isolate the article and evacuate the immediate area.
b. Put the article in an enclosed area (desk drawer) and evacuate the area.
c. Place the package in the trash bag, seal the bag, and put it in the dumpster.
d. Open the item to make sure it is something significant, before calling security forces.

A

a. Isolate the article and evacuate the immediate area.

35
Q
  1. (650) What is the best choice for ensuring that accountable containers remain in a controlled environment?

a. Certified mail.
b. Registered mail.
c. Image confirmation.
d. Certificate of mailing.

A

b. Registered mail.

36
Q
  1. (651) Personnel information file (PIF) contents are available to everyone except

a. Office of special investigation.
b. Area defense council.
c. First sergeant.
d. Commander.

A

b. Area defense council.

37
Q
  1. (652) Who appoints the trusted agents for issuing and ensuring member notification to provide a urine sample?

a. First sergeant.
b. Commander.
c. Drug demand reduction manager.
d. Staff judge advocate.

A

b. Commander.

38
Q
  1. (653) Individuals who have been designated the authority to order, receive and sign for equipment materiel in writing by the medical group commander are

a. supply representatives.
b. property custodians.
c. accountable officers.
d. logistics liaisons.

A

b. property custodians.

39
Q
  1. (653) The statutory obligation of an individual to reimburse the government for loss, damage, or destruction of government property arising from his or her negligence is the definition of

a. pecuniary liability.
b. monetary liability.
c. financial liability.
d. fiscal liability.

A

a. pecuniary liability.

40
Q
  1. (653) The end item of medical equipment that has a unit cost of between $3,300 and $250,000, a life expectancy of at least 5 years, and maintains its identity during use is classified as

a. a maintenance significant supply item.
b. medical investment equipment.
c. medical expense equipment.
d. a medical supply item.

A

c. medical expense equipment.

41
Q
  1. (653) Which statement best defines prime vendors?

a. Civilian companies contracted by Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) that usually deliver supplies within 24 hours.
b. Civilian companies that accept the International Merchant Purchase Authorization Card (IMPAC).
c. Civilian companies with which the government has a blanket purchase agreement.
d. Civilian companies that use the 13-digit national stock number (NSN).

A

a. Civilian companies contracted by Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) that usually deliver supplies within 24 hours.

CDC Vol 4 EXAM (3 decks)

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