Vol 4 Exam Questions (2) [614-635] Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q
  1. (614) The official program that summarizes the secretary of defense approved plans and programs for the DOD is called

a. Future years defense program.
b. Operating budget code.
c. Obligation authority.
d. Operating budget.

A

a. Future years defense program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. (615) What funding structure, mandated by the defense health agency, must military treatment
    facility (MTF) commanders, resource management personnel, and flight commanders review and
    manage?

a. Program elements.
b. Budget activity groups.
c. Operating budget authority document.
d. Element of expense and investment codes.

A

b. Budget activity groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. (615) Which organizational unit is headed by an officer or supervisor who is responsible for the management of resources in the unit and, in most instances, can significantly influence the expenses incurred by the unit?

a. Flight.
b. Squadron.
c. Program element.
d. Responsibility center.

A

d. Responsibility center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. (616) Who is in the best position to see how funds are being expended in their responsibility center?

a. MDG/CC.
b. Resource advisor.
c. Cost center manager.
d. Flight commander, resource management office.

A

c. Cost center manager.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. (616) Who is responsible for reviewing backorder lists, evaluating stock supply levels, and inventorying all equipment within their responsibility?

a. Resource advisor.
b. Flight commander.
c. Cost center manager.
d. Squadron commander.

A

c. Cost center manager.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. (617) What must the cost center managers have in order to operate their cost center?

a. Certification.
b. Initial training.
c. Appointment letter.
d. In-processed the unit.

A

b. Initial training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. (618) The intent of what form is to provide sufficient information for contracting to issue a
    contract and for the financial service office (FSO) to set aside funds for the requirement?

a. AF Form 9, Request for Purchase.
b. AF Form 616, Fund Cite Authorization.
c. DD Form 448, Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request.
d. AF Form 406, Miscellaneous Obligation/Reimbursement Document.

A

a. AF Form 9, Request for Purchase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. (619) What is involved at every echelon in the administration of an appropriation warrant?

a. Budget execution.
b. Open document listing.
c. Budget execution reports.
d. Future year defense program.

A

a. Budget execution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. (620) What represents orders, contracts or agreements (negotiated), and obligations of funds?

a. Accrued expenditures paid.
b. Accrued expenditures unpaid.
c. Undeliverable orders outstanding.
d. Undeliverable orders not outstanding.

A

c. Undeliverable orders outstanding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. (620) What is the term used when the amount available for obligation is a negative number?

a. Allocate funds.
b. Under allocate funds.
c. Obligate the government.
d. Over obligate the government.

A

d. Over obligate the government.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. (621) During the initial distribution phase of the budget process, who is responsible for dispersing
    funds to the MTFs?

a. Wing commander.
b. Air Force Surgeon General.
c. Air Force Medical Operations Agency.
d. Secretary of the Air Force, Financial Management Office.

A

c. Air Force Medical Operations Agency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. (621) Locating and clearing discrepancies between the resource advisor’s record and the official
    accounting records occurs during the triannual review of the

a. budget working group.
b. open document listing.
c. operating budget authority.
d. future years defense program.

A

b. open document listing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. (622) What does not occur during end of year close out?

a. The RA develops the spend plan
b. Notify AFMOA immediately if a surplus or deficit in funds develops.
c. Monitor TDY travel and assist the ALO in liquidating all travel obligations.
d. Complete any other closeout instructions or orders given by the financial analysis office.

A

a. The RA develops the spend plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. (623) Who is responsible for maintaining the necessary patient valuable records and protecting the
    security of the valuables accepted for safekeeping?

a. Custodian for patient valuables.
b. Inpatient unit administration personnel.
c. Admissions and dispositions personnel.
d. Medical service accounts office personnel.

A

a. Custodian for patient valuables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. (623) If you notice that a patient valuables have been lost, who do you have to immediately notify?

a. Admissions and dispositions noncommissioned officer in charge.
b. Medical service accounts office officer in charge.
c. Military treatment facility commander.
d. Custodian for patient valuables.

A

c. Military treatment facility commander.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. (624) The objective of the medical affirmative claims program is to assist the

a. staff judge advocate to prosecute active duty airmen liable for third party injuries.
b. staff judge advocate in attempting to recover the cost of providing medical care to individuals whose injury or disease was caused by a third party.
c. MDG/CC in attempting to recover the cost of providing medical care to individuals whose injury or disease was caused by a third party.
d. MDG/CC in collecting vital data to determine precisely how our beneficiaries are using medical care.

A

b. staff judge advocate in attempting to recover the cost of providing medical care to individuals
whose injury or disease was caused by a third party.

17
Q
  1. (624) Who determines if an injury is actually a medical affirmative claims case?

a. MDG/CC.
b. Attending physician.
c. Health services manager.
d. Base legal office or MCRP.

A

d. Base legal office or MCRP.

18
Q
  1. (625) What form does the medical affirmative claims clerk initiate for patients identified as a medical affirmative claims case by the staff judge advocate?

a. None, the base legal office assumes responsibility for the case.
b. AF Form 1488, Daily Log of Patients Treated for Injuries.
c. AF 438, Medical Care-Third Party Liability Notification.
d. DD Form 153, Federal Medical Care Recovery.

A

c. AF 438, Medical Care-Third Party Liability Notification.

19
Q
  1. (625) How should entries in the medical record pertaining to medical affirmative claims cases be stamped?

a. Sequestered record.
b. Third party liability case.
c. Medical affirmative claim.
d. Sensitive medical information.

A

c. Medical affirmative claim.

20
Q
  1. (626) Who is responsible for assessing the DQMC program and developing the annual statement of assurance for health affairs?

a. Facility data quality monitor.
b. MAJCOM data quality monitor.
c. Air Force Data Quality Monitor.
d. DHA management control manager.

A

d. DHA management control manager.

21
Q
  1. (627) The medical expense and performance reporting system (MEPRS) information is routinely
    channeled to which person or agency?

a. Commander in chief.
b. Chief of Staff, United States Air Force.
c. Deputy Chief of Staff, United States Air Force.
d. Department of Defense, Secretary of Health Affairs.

A

d. Department of Defense, Secretary of Health Affairs.

22
Q
  1. (627) Who is primarily responsible for managing medical expense performance reporting system (MEPRS) within the military treatment facility (MTF)?

a. Medical group commander.
b. Medical support squadron commander.
c. Resources from within the resource management office.
d. Resources from within the personnel and administration flight.

A

c. Resources from within the resource management office.

23
Q
  1. (628) What is established to collect operating expenses when two or more work centers share physical space, personnel, and supplies?

a. Cost pool.
b. Sub-account.
c. Element of expense.
d. Functional account code.

A

a. Cost pool.

24
Q
  1. (629) On average, what percentage of a military treatment facility’s budget is allocated for personnel in the form of salaries?

a. 50–65.
b. 60–75.
c. 70–85.
d. 80–95.

A

b. 60–75.

25
Q
  1. (629) Timecard approvers must approve or reject timecards NLT close of business the

a. last duty day of the month.
b. first duty day after timecard period ends.
c. fifth duty day after timecard period ends.
d. third duty day after timecard period ends.

A

d. third duty day after timecard period ends.

26
Q
  1. (630) What system is responsible for incorporating all of a military treatment facility’s captured expense, workload and personnel data into one single report?

a. Expense assignment.
b. Composite health care.
c. Defense eligibility enrollment registration.
d. Medical expense and performance reporting.

A

a. Expense assignment.

27
Q
  1. (631) What report contains total expenses, performance factor workloads, and cost per performance factor amounts at the FCC code level?

a. Personnel detail.
b. MEPRS detailed.
c. EAS cost table.
d. EAS allocation summary.

A

c. EAS cost table.

28
Q
  1. (631) What report will give you a detailed picture of the expenses processed through EAS?

a. Personnel detail.
b. MEPRS detailed.
c. EAS cost table.
d. EAS allocation summary.

A

d. EAS allocation summary.

29
Q
  1. (632) Once a project has been closed, who does the medical expense performance reporting system (MEPRS) program manager contact if hours need to be changed?

a. MEPRS program office.
b. MAJCOM MEPRS monitor.
c. Air Force MEPRS monitor.
d. DHA management control manager.

A

a. MEPRS program office

30
Q
  1. (633) What part of the unit manpower document four-digit code identifying a particular work center which HQ USAF controls?

a. MAJCOM code.
b. Program element code.
c. Functional account code.
d. Organizational structure code.

A

c. Functional account code

31
Q
  1. (633) What is it called when a request for an increase in the unit manpower document (UMD) authorization must be accompanied by a proposal for equivalent offsetting resource/decrease from elsewhere?

a. Zero balance transaction.
b. Authorization change request.
c. Organizational change request.
d. Career progression group.

A

a. Zero balance transaction.

32
Q
  1. (634) What document is a by name personnel roster reflecting authorized positions, position number, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) authorized grade, functional account code (FAC), personnel accounting system (PAS)?

a. Unit personnel management roster.
b. Unit manpower personnel roster.
c. Unit personnel manning roster.
d. Unit manpower document.

A

a. Unit personnel management roster.

33
Q
  1. (635) What is trained/ prepared to accomplish their assigned tasks and duties to augment or to
    offset dwindling active duty manpower in support of the Total Air Force and national objectives?

a. Traditional reservist.
b. Air Force National Guard.
c. Oversees contingency operations.
d. Individual mobilization augmentee.

A

d. Individual mobilization augmentee.

34
Q
  1. (635) What is intended to mitigate the effects on deployments on healthcare access, quality, and
    scope?

a. Traditional reservist.
b. Air Force National Guard.
c. Oversees contingency operations.
d. Individual mobilization augmentee.

A

c. Oversees contingency operations.