Vol 3 Exam Questions (3) [426-435] Flashcards by Nathan Palomo

(426) What service(s) is/are involved with the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (DES)?

a. Air Force.
b. Air Force and Army.
c. Air Force, Army, and Navy.
d. Air Force, Army, Navy, and Marine Corps.

d. Air Force, Army, Navy, and Marine Corps.

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(427) In general, Airmen are not eligible for disability due to all of the following reasons, except

a. Airman with conditions that existed prior to service.
b. Airmen in an Absent Without Leave status.
c. Airmen pending honorable discharge.
d. Airmen facing court martial charges.

c. Airmen pending honorable discharge.

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(428) All of the following are examples of trigger events, except for

a. provider identification.
b. commander requests evaluation.
c. permanent change of station (PCS) cancellation for administrative actions.
d. Medical Retention Standards Branch (HQ AFPC/DPANM) identification and direction.

c. permanent change of station (PCS) cancellation for administrative actions.

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(428) What type of condition is not eligible for referral to the Disability Evaluation System (DES)?

a. Unfit.
b. Unsuiting.
c. Duty limitation.
d. Duty restriction.

a. Unfit.

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(428) What is a report of an Airman’s injury or illness, based on evaluation by a medical professional, that describes specific physical activities or functions that are recommended for the Airman to avoid allowing recovery or reducing risk of further injury?

a. Functional (or physical) restriction.
b. Functional (or physical) limitation.
c. Duty restriction.
d. Duty limitation.

a. Functional (or physical) restriction.

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(428) An AF Form 469 and AF Form 422 are good for a maximum of how many days?

a. 90 days.
b. 120 days.
c. 180 days.
d. 365 days.

d. 365 days.

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(428) An Airmen should be referred to the deployment availability working group (DAWG) if a mobility restriction goes over how many days?

a. 90 days.
b. 120 days.
c. 180 days.
d. 365 days.

a. 90 days.

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(428) Who from the following list is not required to attend the deployment availability working group (DAWG)?

a. Exercise physiologist.
b. Medical group commander.
c. Physical Evaluation Board liaison officer.
d. Medical Standards Management Element.

b. Medical group commander.

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(428) What is an authorized disposition the deployment availability working group (DAWG) can make?

a. Case dismissal.
b. Return to duty with ACL-C.
c. Permanent Disability Retirement List.
d. Temporary Disability Retirement List.

a. Case dismissal.

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(428) Once AFPC/DPANM (Medical Retention Standards Branch) reviews an initial review in lieu of (RILO), how do they notify the physical evaluation board liaison officer (PEBLO) of the determination?

a. E-mail from the organizational box.
b. Official memorandum.
c. AF Form 356.
d. AFPC/FL 4.

d. AFPC/FL 4.

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(429) Who appoints the Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) clerk and the Physical Evaluation Board liaison Officer (PEBLO), and by what means is the PEBLO tasked?

a. Military treatment facility commander; published orders.
b. Flight commander, patient administration; published orders.
c. Military treatment facility commander; official correspondence.
d. Flight commander, patient administration; official correspondence.

a. Military treatment facility commander; published orders.

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(429) Which of the following is a responsibility of the medical evaluation board (MEB) clerk?

a. Schedules cases for board hearings.
b. Ensures accurate and complete case records are sent to the physical evaluation board (PEB).
c. Requests commander’s letter and keeps member’s commander/first sergeant apprised of the member’s case status.
d. Advises the patient administration or hospital services office of the final disposition of all cases where the member underwent PEB processing in an outpatient status.

a. Schedules cases for board hearings.

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(429) Which of the following is a responsibility of the Physical Evaluation Board liaison officer (PEBLO)?

a. Obtains evaluee or next of kin (NOK) signature on AF Form 618, Medical Board Report, forwards the completed medical evaluation board (MEB) package to the disposition authority, and makes proper distribution of that authority’s responses.

b. Counseling members or NOK on the physical evaluation board (PEB) findings and recommended disposition as documented on AF Form 356, Findings and Recommended Disposition of USAF Physical Evaluation Board.

c. Completes AF Form 618, Medical Board Report; obtains signatures from the board members and the approval authority; and assembles the attachments to AF Form 618, Medical Board Report.

d. Assists the evaluee in resolving any questions concerning the content of the report or summary.

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(429) Before the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (IDES) process existed, how long would the average medical evaluation board (MEB) take from case imitation to Veteran’s Administration (VA) rating?

a. 5 years.
b. 4 years.
c. 3 years.
d. 2 years.

c. 3 years.

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(430) Who is the non-clinical benefits advisor to the member while going through the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (IDES)?

a. MEB clerk.
b. VA-MSC.
c. Provider.
d. PEBLO.

b. VA-MSC.

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(430) The Veterans Tracking Application

a. retrieves data from the Temporary Disabled Retirement List (TDRL).
b. retrieves data from comprehensive recovery plan (CRP).
c. tracks review in lieu of (RILO).
d. is a web-enabled tool.

d. is a web-enabled tool.

(430) The Veterans Tracking Application

a. is strictly used to create reports for Senior Department of Defense (DOD) officials.
b. replaces the local military treatment facility (MTF) database system.
c. is hosted on the Veterans Information Portal (VIP).
d. tracks review in lieu of (RILO).

c. is hosted on the Veterans Information Portal (VIP).

(430) When the providing care manager (PCM), or referring provider, reviews the compensation and pension (C&P) results, and does not note any inconsistencies, what should the PCM do?

a. Rewrite the narrative/summary (NARSUM) in the approved Air Force format.
b. Submit an addendum stating there were no inconsistencies.
c. Endorse the NARSUM, stating it is current and complete.
d. The provider is not required to review the C&P results.

c. Endorse the NARSUM, stating it is current and complete.

(431) A medical board can be convened to determine an individual’s mental competence for pay and records purposes when the member

a. is not performing to the appropriate skill level and grade.
b. has a specific psychiatric illness or illnesses.
c. displays gross financial irresponsibility.
d. has been under severe emotional stress.

b. has a specific psychiatric illness or illnesses.

(431) Who designates the military training facility (MTF) to conduct a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) on a general officer?

a. The board will be conducted at the originating MTF.
b. Air Force Surgeon General.
c. HQ AFPC/DPANM.
d. HQ AF/CC.

c. HQ AFPC/DPANM.

(431) Who can authorize a military treatment facility (MTF) to conduct a military evaluation Board (MEB) on an assigned enlisted staff member who has been a disciplinary problem?

a. AFPC/DPANM.
b. MEB President.
c. MAJCOM/SG.
d. MTF/CC.

a. AFPC/DPANM.

(431) Who can be voting member(s) on the medical evaluation board (MEB)?

a. Physical evaluation board liaison officer (PEBLO).
b. Physicians.
c. Residents.
d. Interns.

b. Physicians.

(431) Who appoints medical evaluation board (MEB) members, and by what means are they tasked?

a. Physical Evaluation Board Liaison Officer (PEBLO); MEB report.
b. Military treatment facility commander; appointing orders.
c. MEB recorder; meeting minutes.
d. Base commander; orders.

b. Military treatment facility commander; appointing orders.

(431) Under normal conditions, how many board members are required for a medical evaluation board (MEB)?

a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 5.

b. 3.

91. (431) Who has review and approval authority over the AF Form 618, Medical Board Report? ## Footnote a. Military treatment facility commander or their designee. b. Physical Evaluation Board liaison officer. c. Medical Evaluation Board president. d. Attending physician.

a. Military treatment facility commander or their designee.

92. (431) After the evaluee has been informed of the Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) findings, how many days does the member have to request an impartial review? ## Footnote a. Depends on whether the case has imminent death implications. b. Seven calendar days. c. Three duty days. d. Five duty days.

d. Five duty days.

93. (431) If the impartial reviewer finds that the review does not support the medical evaluation board (MEB) findings, the reviewer should contact the ## Footnote a. MEB President concurrently with notification to the member. b. physical evalutation board liaison officer (PEBLO). c. patient’s primary care manager (PCM). d. MEB clerk.

a. MEB President concurrently with notification to the member.

94. (432) Although assignment limitation codes (ALC)-C are valid indefinitely, how often should the codes be reviewed? ## Footnote a. At least annually, unless otherwise specified by Medical Retention Standards Branch (DPANM). b. At least every 18 months, unless otherwise specified by DPANM. c. As determined by the Physical Evaluation Board. d. As prescribed by the attending physician.

a. At least annually, unless otherwise specified by Medical Retention Standards Branch (DPANM).

95. (432) What assignment limitation code (ALC) is for members who should not be deployed or assigned away from specialty medical capability required to manage their unique medical condition? ## Footnote a. ALC-C0. b. ALC-C1. c. ALC-C2. d. ALC-C3.

d. ALC-C3.

96. (433) A member may be permanently retired when the member has ## Footnote a. a disabling condition that is determined to be stable. b. more than three diagnosed conditions. c. at least 20 years in the military. d. 100% disability rating.

a. a disabling condition that is determined to be stable.

97. (433) What is the maximum amount of time a member is authorized to be on a Temporary Disabled Retirement List (TDRL)? ## Footnote a. 3 years. b. 4 years. c. 5 years. d. 6 years.

c. 5 years.

98. (434) Who appoints an officer to serve as the Patient Squadron commander? ## Footnote a. MTF/CC. b. Squadron/CC. c. The MAJCOM. d. AFPC/DPAMM.

a. MTF/CC.

99. (435) How long or when does the Wounded Warrior Program work with the service member and the medical team to develop a comprehensive recovery plan? ## Footnote a. Once the member is discharged from the military treatment facility. b. Only after the member is retired or separated. c. Until the member is retired or separated. d. It provides lifetime support.

d. It provides lifetime support.

100. (435) Recovery care coordinator (RCC) and Wounded Warrior advocates are typically assigned to seriously wounded, ill, or injured service members whose medical conditions are expected to last at least how many days? ## Footnote a. 90. b. 120. c. 180. d. 365.

c. 180.