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CDC Vol 3 EXAM > Vol 3 Exam Questions (1) [401-417] > Flashcards

Vol 3 Exam Questions (1) [401-417] Flashcards

1
Q
  1. (401) The four major interrelated systems affecting the development of joint operational plans include the National Security Council System;

a. Communication, Command, and Control System; Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution System; and Joint Operations Planning and Execution System.
b. Joint Strategic Planning System, Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution System, and Joint Operations Planning and Execution System.
c. Communication, Command, and Control System; Joint Strategic Planning System, Planning, Programming; and Budgeting and Execution System.
d. Joint Strategic Planning System, Communication, Command, and Control System, and Joint Operations Planning and Execution System.

A

b. Joint Strategic Planning System, Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution System, and Joint Operations Planning and Execution System.

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2
Q
  1. (401) What is an on-going process that enables senior leadership to evaluate other ways to achieve the best mix of force, requirements, and support within fiscal constraints?

a. Joint Strategic Planning System.
b. National Security Council System.
c. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System.
d. Planning, Programming and Budgeting Execution (PPBE) System.

A

d. Planning, Programming and Budgeting Execution (PPBE) System.

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3
Q
  1. (401) What is the tactical use of aircraft or forces in a desired area of operation, and is the actual use of forces within a combat zone or an objective area?

a. Deployment.
b. Employment.
c. Force package.
d. Mission essential task.

A

b. Employment.

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4
Q
  1. (401) What is the command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command?

a. Plan.
b. Mobility.
c. Tactical control.
d. Operational control.

A

d. Operational control.

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5
Q
  1. (402) What is the timeframe of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) life cycle?

a. 6 months.
b. 12 months.
c. 24 months.
d. 36 months.

A

c. 24 months

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5
Q
  1. (402) In order to effectively support the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF), when do functional areas revalidate the tempo band alignment of their respective capability areas and realign forces, if necessary?

a. Quarterly.
b. Every other AEF cycle.
c. In the middle of each AEF cycle.
d. Prior to the beginning of every AEF cycle.

A

d. Prior to the beginning of every AEF cycle.

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6
Q
  1. (403) What system’s objective is to enable improved and streamlined operations planning and execution process?

a. ART.
b. DRRS.
c. MRDSS.
d. DCAPES.

A

d. DCAPES.

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6
Q
  1. (403) What is the Air Force’s war planning system?

a. DCAPES.
b. MRDSS.
c. DRRS.
d. ART.

A

a. DCAPES.

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7
Q
  1. (404) What is a standard manpower listing published to identify the manpower tasked to deploy in support of specific unit task codes (UTC)?

a. Manpower Force Element Listing (MFEL).
b. Unit Personnel Management Roster.
c. Manpower Deployment Roster.
d. Unit Manpower Listing.

A

a. Manpower Force Element Listing (MFEL).

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8
Q
  1. (404) According to the Department of Defense (DOD), a unit task code is developed and assigned by the

a. Chief of Staff of the Air Force.
b. Joint Chiefs of Staff.
c. wing commander.
d. major command.

A

b. Joint Chiefs of Staff.

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9
Q
  1. (404) What is the three tier rating system in the Air and Space Expedition Force reporting tool (ART)

a. One, two, three.
b. Red, yellow, green.
c. On target, satisfactory, delinquent.
d. Met objective, close to objective, fail objective.

A

b. Red, yellow, green.

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10
Q
  1. (404) Which of the following is not a minimum requirement to update the Air and Space Expedition Force reporting tool (ART)?

a. Unit task code (UTC) tasked to deploy.
b. Significant UTC change.
c. Once a month.
d. Daily.

A

d. Daily.

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11
Q
  1. (405) Who is responsible for assessing the “mission ready” status of their unit, assigned unit type codes (UTC), and assigned personnel?

a. Unit deployment manager.
b. Medical readiness manager.
c. Unit commander.
d. Base commander.

A

c. Unit commander.

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12
Q
  1. (405) Who assigns the unit’s missions and goals in the Defense Readiness Reporting System
    (DRRS)?

a. Major command commander (MAJCOM/CC).
b. Secretary of the Air Force (SAF).
c. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF).
d. Wing commander (Wing/CC).

A

c. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF).

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13
Q
  1. (406) What is an internal management tool used by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, Unified Commands, and Combat Support Agencies?

a. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
b. Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS).
c. Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS).
d. Status of Resources and Training System report (SORTS).

A

d. Status of Resources and Training System report (SORTS).

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14
Q
  1. (406) What C-level states the unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized or designed?

a. C–1.
b. C–2.
c. C–3.
d. C–4.

A

a. C–1.

15
Q
  1. (406) Units must update the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) monthly, no later then what day of the month?

a. 1st.
b. 5th.
c. 10th.
d. 15th.

A

d. 15th.

16
Q
  1. (407) What is the official system of record for management of expeditionary medical personnel and resources for the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS)?

a. MRDSS-ULTRA.
b. MEDRED-C.
c. SITREP.
d. SORTS.

A

a. MRDSS-ULTRA.

17
Q
  1. (407) Who must approve user accounts before the Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS) Help Desk creates accounts?

a. Major command (MAJCOM) or higher headquarters.
b. Military treatment facility (MTF) commander.
c. Medical readiness office.
d. Base commander.

A

a. Major command (MAJCOM) or higher headquarters.

18
Q
  1. (407) In the Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS), what tool is designed to manage the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) readiness resources?

a. Mission Essential Task.
b. Medical Resource Letter.
c. Manpower Force Element Listing.
d. Designed Operational Capability Statement.

A

b. Medical Resource Letter.

19
Q
  1. (408) What plan is the medical unit commander’s plan, establishing procedures for the unit’s expeditionary missions identified in the designed operational capability (DOC) statement and emergency response missions identified in the Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan (CEMP)?

a. MCRP.
b. IGESP.
c. DCP.
d. IDP.

A

a. MCRP.

20
Q
  1. (408) What triage category would include injuries that need immediate medical or surgical attention to save a life?

a. Delayed.
b. Minimal.
c. Expectant.
d. Immediate.

A

d. Immediate.

21
Q
  1. (409) Once the minutes are approved, who should they be submitted to?

a. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
b. MAJCOM readiness office.
c. Base readiness office.
d. Base commander.

A

b. MAJCOM readiness office.

22
Q
  1. (410) When unit personnel are processed through the personnel deployment function (PDF), who is responsible for their accountability?

a. Unit commander
b. Base commander.
c. Unit deployment manager.
d. Personnel deployment function.

A

d. Personnel deployment function.

23
Q
  1. (410) At minimum, who attends the deployment order briefing?

a. The military treatment facility commander (MTF/CC).
b. The unit deployment manager (UDM).
c. Medical control center chief (MCC).
d. Medical readiness office (MRO).

A

b. The unit deployment manager (UDM).

24
Q
  1. (411) Who does the unit deployment manager (UDM) notify for remedial actions when unit task codes (UTC) cannot be supported due to changes in manpower or equipment?

a. Military treatment facility commander (MTF/CC).
b. Support squadron commander (MDSS/CC).
c. Installation deployment office (IDO).
d. Medical readiness office (MRO).

A

c. Installation deployment office (IDO).

25
Q
  1. (412) Once you have navigated to the Training Overview Page, what do you select to update an individual’s training information?

a. The individual’s name.
b. Find individual’s record.
c. Record training course attendance.
d. Update training for multiple individuals.

A

b. Find individual’s record.

26
Q
  1. (413) What part of the deployment folder is for major command (MAJCOM)/installation/wing/unit requirements?

a. Part 2.
b. Part 3.
c. Part 4.
d. Part 5.

A

d. Part 5.

27
Q

  1. (414) All of the following should be on the in-processing checklist, except

a. document training in Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS).
b. assign the member to a medical contingency response plan (MCRP) team.
c. assign the member to a unit task code (UTC).
d. give the member their mobility folder.

A

d. give the member their mobility folder.

28
Q
  1. (415) The medical control center is also known as the

a. unit control center.
b. mission control center.
c. readiness control center.
d. commander control center.

A

a. unit control center.

29
Q
  1. (415) The alert notification and recall system used through the Air Force is referred to as what kind of system?

a. Mass notification.
b. Pyramid alerting system.
c. Enterprise notification system.
d. Mission essential alerting system.

A

b. Pyramid alerting system.

30
Q
  1. (415) Who’s function is it to oversee the mission operation of the installation?

a. First responders (FR).
b. Crisis action team (CAT).
c. Incident commander (IC).
d. Emergency operations center (EOC).

A

b. Crisis action team (CAT).

31
Q
  1. (415) Who has overall authority and responsibility for conducting all incident activities including development of strategies and tactics and distribution of resources at the incident site?

a. First responders (FR).
b. Crisis action team (CAT).
c. Incident commander (IC).
d. Emergency operations center (EOC).

A

c. Incident commander (IC).

32
Q
  1. (416) On a military map, what color illustrates the relief features, such as the vertical elevation of
    the terrain on a map as seen from above?

a. Red.
b. Black.
c. Green.
d. Brown.

A

d. Brown.

33
Q
  1. (416) On a military map, what color represents main roads, built-up areas, and special features?

a. Red.
b. Black.
c. Green.
d. Brown.

A

a. Red.

34
Q
  1. (416) On a grid coordinate of 2.5/E.4, the 2 represents the

a. horizontal grid line.
b. grid line number.
c. vertical grid line.
d. grid square.

A

c. vertical grid line.

35
Q
  1. (416) What time frame should an event log cover?

a. 6-hour period.
b. 12-hour period.
c. 24-hour period.
d. 48-hour period.

A

c. 24-hour period.

36
Q
  1. (417) What is the first step in completing a checklist?

a. Initial the checklist.
b. Evaluate the scenario.
c. Enter the date on the checklist.
d. Write your name on the checklist.

A

b. Evaluate the scenario.

CDC Vol 3 EXAM (3 decks)

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