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CDC Vol 3 EXAM > Vol 3 Exam Questions (2) [418-425] > Flashcards

Vol 3 Exam Questions (2) [418-425] Flashcards

1
Q
  1. (418) What phase of aeromedical evacuation (AE) provides airlift for patients between points within the battlefield, from the battlefield to the initial point of treatment, and then to subsequent points of treatment within the combat zone?

a. Theater.
b. Forward.
c. Strategic.
d. Domestic.

A

b. Forward.

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2
Q
  1. (418) What phase of aeromedical evacuation (AE) provides airlift for patients between points of treatment outside the combat zone, within a theater of operations?

a. Theater.
b. Forward.
c. Strategic.
d. Domestic.

A

a. Theater.

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3
Q
  1. (418) Who approves the activation or inactivation of a designated aeromedical staging facility (ASF) or the partial curtailment of the mission assigned to an ASF?

a. The President.
b. AF Chief of Staff.
c. Owning major command.
d. Responsible combatant commander.

A

b. AF Chief of Staff.

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4
Q
  1. (418) The primary USAF aircrafts supporting intratheater aeromedical evacuation (AE) are all of the following, except the

a. C–130 Hercules.
b. C–17 Globemaster.
c. KC–135 Stratotanker.
d. UH 60 Q Medevac Black Hawk Helicopter.

A

d. UH 60 Q Medevac Black Hawk Helicopter.

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5
Q
  1. (419) What patient movement requirement center (PMRC) is located at Scott Air Force Base (AFB)?

a. JPMRC.
b. TPMRC-A.
c. TPMRC-E.
d. TPMRC-P.

A

b. TPMRC-A.

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6
Q
  1. (420) Medical evacuation (MEDEVAC) typically is associated with what type of aircraft?

a. Fixed wing.
b. Heavy wing.
c. Forced wing.
d. Rotary wing.

A

d. Rotary wing.

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7
Q
  1. (420) What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated as soon as possible and
    within a maximum of one hour?

a. I-Urgent.
b. II-Priority.
c. III-Routine.
d. IV-Convenience.

A

a. I-Urgent.

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8
Q
  1. (420) What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated within 24 hours?

a. I-Urgent.
b. II-Priority.
c. III-Routine.
d. IV-Convenience.

A

c. III-Routine.

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9
Q
  1. (420) An air ambulance (AA) is typically conserved for what priority patient?

a. I-Urgent.
b. II-Priority.
c. III-Routine.
d. IV-Convenience.

A

a. I-Urgent.

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10
Q
  1. (421) What information system does Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J) transfer so it can be viewed by authorized healthcare providers all over the world?

a. CHCS.
b. TMDS.
c. ALTHA.
d. Essentris.

A

b. TMDS.

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11
Q
  1. (421) Which capability is not available in the Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J)?

a. Blood status.
b. Inpatient care.
c. Notification status.
d. Tracking medical supplies.

A

c. Notification status.

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12
Q
  1. (422) A patient requiring the use of restraining apparatus, sedation, and close supervision at all
    times should be classified as a

a. psychiatric walking patient of moderate severity.
b. psychiatric litter patient of intermediate severity.
c. litter patient other than psychiatric.
d. severe psychiatric litter patient.

A

d. severe psychiatric litter patient.

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13
Q
  1. (422) Patients requiring rest during a long aeromedical evacuation (AE) flight because of recent surgery should be classified as

a. litter.
b. recovered.
c. psychiatric.
d. ambulatory.

A

a. litter.

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14
Q
  1. (422) What classification is given to medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?

a. 6A.
b. 6B.
c. 5A.
d. 5B.

A

a. 6A.

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15
Q
  1. (422) What classification is given to non-medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation
    (AE) system?

a. 6A.
b. 6B.
c. 5A.
d. 5B.

A

b. 6B.

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16
Q
  1. (423) In the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system, the originating physician’s responsibility for a patient ends when

a. the patient is reported via the Transportation Command (TRANSCOM) Regulating and Command & Control Evacuation System (TRAC2ES).
b. the Patient Movement Requirements Center (PMRC) assigns a cite number to the regulating request.
c. the physician is notified by PMRC of the destination military treatment facility (MTF).
d. the patient is under the direct care of the accepting physician at the destination MTF.

A

d. the patient is under the direct care of the accepting physician at the destination MTF.

17
Q
  1. (423) Which individual is also a focal point that Theater Patient Movement Requirements Centers (TPMRC) personnel can contact for questions concerning a patient’s movement?

a. Admissions and dispositions technician.
b. Unit inpatient records technician.
c. Patient movement technician.
d. TRAC2ES technician.

A

c. Patient movement technician.

18
Q
  1. (424) All of the following needs to be prepared for the flight, except for which item?

a. Patient.
b. Medical records.
c. Laboratory reports.
d. Attending physician.

A

d. Attending physician.

19
Q
  1. (423) The name of the attending physician entered on the AF Form 3899 is the

a. patient’s primary care manager (PCM).
b. physician at the destination who is accepting the patient.
c. physician who is treating the patient at the originating medical treatment facility (MTF).
d. physician located were the patient will remain overnight (RON) and will take care of the patient.

A

c. physician who is treating the patient at the originating medical treatment facility (MTF).

20
Q
  1. (424) It’s important to check the Mission Document for the flight in order to

a. notify patient movement requirements center (PMRC) if there are changes to the patient movement request (PMR).
b. make sure the patient movement request PMR information is correct.
c. make sure everyone is entered is on the appropriate flight.
d. make a change to the patient movement request PMR.

A

c. make sure everyone is entered is on the appropriate flight.

21
Q
  1. (424) Who will notify you of special administrative requirements your patients may require for
    the flight?

a. The attending physician.
b. The receiving physician.
c. Patient Movement Center.
d. Medical Readiness Office.

A

c. Patient Movement Center.

22
Q
  1. (424) What does the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) code written to the left of the red cross on the DD Form 600, Patient’s Baggage Tag represent?

a. The facility where an aeromedical evacuation (AE) patient will remain overnight (RON) awaiting AE movement to the final destination.
b. The civilian AE transport center where the patient will be transported.
c. The patient’s final military treatment facility (MTF) destination.
d. The patient’s originating MTF.

A

a. The facility where an aeromedical evacuation (AE) patient will remain overnight (RON) awaiting AE movement to the final destination.

23
Q
  1. (424) Who’s responsibility is it to ensure the DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation Tag, includes all essential patient information?

a. The patient.
b. The aerovac nurse.
c. The attending physician.
d. The patient movement clerk.

A

c. The attending physician.

24
Q
  1. (424) Which item listed below is not part of the anti-hijacking search?

a. Inspect patients and attendants with either a hand held or walk through metal detector.
b. Redo the inspection for personnel who leave a holding area after you have finished.
c. Honor requests for visual inspection instead of using X-ray or metal detectors.
d. Allow boarding to individuals refusing anti-hijacking inspection.

A

d. Allow boarding to individuals refusing anti-hijacking inspection

24
Q
  1. (424) The dimensions of stowed baggage for aeromedical evacuation patients must not exceed

a. 78 inches in any one direction or 105 inches overall (length+width+height).
b. 76 inches in any one direction or 105 inches overall (length+width+height).
c. 74 inches in any one direction or 100 inches overall (length+width+height).
d. 72 inches in any one direction or 100 inches overall (length+width+height).

A

d. 72 inches in any one direction or 100 inches overall (length+width+height).

25
Q
  1. (425) All of the following are authorized litters for aeromedical evacuation, except the

a. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) litter.
b. Air Force decontamination litter.
c. Army decontamination litter.
d. overweight patient litter.

A

b. Air Force decontamination litter.

26
Q
  1. (425) When a patient is in remain overnight (RON) status, on which form should the evaluation, treatment and medication be documented?

a. AF Form 3899, Patient Movement Physical Assessment.
b. SF 600, Chronological Record of Medical Care.
c. DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation Tag.
d. Patient Movement Request.

A

c. DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation Tag.

27
Q
  1. (425) What is the primary purpose of a release certificate, which is signed by the patient when he or she desires to be released from the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system of his or her own free will?

a. Prohibits the patient from receiving future AE services.
b. Determines if the patient is sufficiently competent to understand the consequences of his or her decision.
c. Releases the US government, its agents and employees from all responsibility, liability, and resulting damage.
d. Demands reimbursement for travel costs expended and certifies that the patient will proceed by his or her own means of transportation.

A

c. Releases the US government, its agents and employees from all responsibility, liability, and resulting damage.

CDC Vol 3 EXAM (3 decks)

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