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7 Level CDC > Vol 2 > Flashcards

Vol 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Training detachments are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM

A

Air education and training command

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2
Q

The block training method is normally used to teach which maintenance training flight training course

A

Maintenance orientation

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3
Q

How often must of the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent review and sign the special certification roster

A

Semi annually

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4
Q

In order to be given authority to downgrade a red X an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of

A

Master Sergeant

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5
Q

Training business area provides Air Force personnel with global real time

A

Visibility of technical qualifications and certifications and training status is of Personnel

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6
Q

In the training business area what type of notification does the system messages board provide in addition to software releases projected downtimes and training update information

A

Application problems

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7
Q

What training phase has these for sub phases: multi phase, majcom mandatory, free flow, and maintenance qualification training

A

II

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8
Q

What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AeTC mission ready airmen and training detachment courses

A

Maintenance qualification

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9
Q

How often does the maintenance training flight provide a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander

A

Monthly

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10
Q

An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before D certification is required?

A

30

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11
Q

Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts cdc.

A

Unit training manager

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12
Q

Manpower authorizations are:

A

Funded

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13
Q

A meeting to discuss Manning issues in the maintenance group is normally held:

A

Monthly

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14
Q

The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander approval is:

A

12 hours

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15
Q

Maintenance group commanders are the final authority exceeding for exceeding a 12 hour shift up to:

A

16 hours

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16
Q

Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

A

Maintenance supply liaison

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17
Q

Maintenance supply liaison personality report directly to the commander of:

A

Logistics readiness squadron LRS

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18
Q

Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply Liason duty?

A

Collecting interning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

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19
Q

The assets in a high priority mission support kit should be transferred into the host base standard base supply system account after how many days?

A

30

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20
Q

Which expandability, recover ability, and repair ability codes must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

A

XB3

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21
Q

The goal for a bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

A

30

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22
Q

Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelflife item are you allowed to inspect and remark with a new expiration date?

A

II

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23
Q

Who in the maintenance group is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

A

Maintenance squadron operations officer/maintenance Superintendent

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24
Q

What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings another engineering data?

A

Engineering data service center

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25
Q

Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

A

Cloudy water

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26
Q

Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify Personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to any particular workcenter?

A

Section supervisor

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27
Q

Which tag do you use to document a part has been properly drained and or purged?

A

AF FTO form 20, caution tag

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28
Q

Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

A

Squadron commander

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29
Q

What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as an do in from maintenance monitor?

A

IIB

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30
Q

What form is used to document all report of surveys?

A

DD form 200, financial liability, investigation of property loss

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31
Q

Which logistics readiness squadron office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance assets manage on in use detailed records?

A

Equipment liaison office

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32
Q

Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance authorization submitted by SPRAM custodians?

A

Maintenance support group Commander

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33
Q

Which precious metals indicator code indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

A

C.

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34
Q

Which supply tracking documents provides information on all document numbers process during the day?

A

D04, daily document register

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35
Q

Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all backordered parts was an urgency of need to code of A?

A

D 18, priority monitor report

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36
Q

Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

A

M-24, organization effectiveness report

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37
Q

Who must authorize temporary storage of in transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

A

Host installation commander

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38
Q

When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every:

A

Three hours

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39
Q

Who is the final authority for reviewing the units list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operation flight program in?

A

Logistics readiness Squadron chief inspector

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40
Q

Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

A

Customer

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41
Q

Which urgency justification codes are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit or shop replaceable unit spare?

A

Ar or BR

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42
Q

Before a supply point Can be established and located in the maintenance work area, who must maintenance coordinate with?

A

LRS material management element

43
Q

Once established, how often must supply point Accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?

A

Semiannually

44
Q

When a mission capable part issues and is placed in the tail number bin supply personal notify the:

A

Maintenance operations center

45
Q

When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

A

Supply deficiency report

46
Q

Who has the responsibility for overall deficiency report program management for the submitting organization or group?

A

Originating point

47
Q

Who acts as a deficiency report focal point Between the support point and submitting organization?

A

Action point

48
Q

Once a category one deficiency is discovered, the deficiency report must be submitted to the screening point Within:

A

24 hours

49
Q

Which is not normally a maintenance group technical order distribution office duty?

A

Establishing technical order distribution account sub accounts as required.

50
Q

What maintenance operations flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing the maintenance information system product to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders by owning and managing agencies?

A

Plans, scheduling, and documentation

51
Q

The product improvement manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group section?

A

Quality assurance

52
Q

Which of the following is not a technical order change priority category?

A

Standard

53
Q

Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?

A

A4U

54
Q

Who designates cannibalization authorities?

A

Maintenance group commander

55
Q

If a serially controlled item is cannibalized the cann authority is required to notify:

A

Plans, scheduling, and documentation

56
Q

Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?

A

Weapons loading operations

57
Q

Redball maintenance is not designed to prevent:

A

Aircraft status changes

58
Q

Who designates the impoundment officials for a particular in impoundment situation?

A

Applicable impoundment authority

59
Q

Who is the office primary responsibility for development and procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the light and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas

A

Maintenance group commander

60
Q

How many digits make up and equipment identification designator code used to identify tools and equipment?

A

Nine digits

61
Q

The wings foreign object damage monitor is normally located within the blank

A

Quality assurance section

62
Q

The wing foreign object damage monitor must notify the maj COM FOD manager within how many hours of A fod incident

A

24 hours

63
Q

Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped her in your crew operations, is not considered he dropped object under the dropped object prevention program?

A

Explosive munitions

64
Q

I dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be recorded in accordance with

A

AFI 10–206, operational reporting

65
Q

Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

A

AFI 21–101, aircraft and equipment maintenance management

66
Q

Who is the quality assurance chief inspector directly responsible to you for ensuring the required maintenance standardization and evaluation program functions are performed?

A

Quality assurance officer in charge/super

67
Q

When a unit has received an unsatisfactory mentioning standardization and evaluation team reading, the maintenance group commander directs Quality assurance to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

A

30 days

68
Q

What maintenance standardization and evaluation team individual assessment is an over the shoulder evaluation while the technician performs the task?

A

Personnel evaluation

69
Q

What maintenance standardization and evaluation team individual assessment is performed after a technician completes the task?

A

Quality Verification inspection

70
Q

In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operators interface with the single point manager for a weapon system?

A

Lead command

71
Q

where is a list of formal AF wide training courses for a specific career field normally found?

A

in part 2 of career field’s CFETP

72
Q

what type of aircraft maint training is centrally produced but delivered to students to be accomplished at their convenience?

A

distance learning

73
Q

what type of training includes advanced and qual training that develops in depth expertise?

A

continuation training

74
Q

other than three airframe and powerplant courses, what is an example of a specialized course?

A

aircraft comm/nav systems

75
Q

for maint personnel, when must training documentation be maint for MSgts and above?

A

when they perform maint on aircraft, missiles or associated equipment

76
Q

what maint tasks go on spec cert rosters?

A

those that have high potential for injury or equipment damage

77
Q

what should sup do when they determine a person is no longer qualified for a spec cert

A

decert them and remove from SCR for that task

78
Q

TBA provides AF personnel with global, real time visibility of what?

A

the technical qual cert and training status of weapons systems and support professionals AF wide

79
Q

TBA allows all personnel to access their training and records of personnel they supervise anywhere that has what?

A

network access

80
Q

what provides notifications on TBA apps problems, software release (problem correction), projected downtime and train update info?

A

system messages board

81
Q

what determines actions TBA allows you to perform?

A

roles assigned to you by role manager

82
Q

what is a copy of the TBA production app intended for user practice and orientation on TBA and not for operational UTM activities?

A

TBA user practice environment (UPE)

83
Q

what form is normally used to add someone to spec cert roster?

A

AF IMT 2426, training request and completion notification

84
Q

maint orientation class given to newly assigned personnel is considered what phase of training?

A

phase 1

85
Q

what agency is required to develop a list of all mandatory TD, MTF and advanced distributed learning courses that maint personnel must attend in order to work on a specific MDS?

A

lead commands

86
Q

what course must MSgts or above attend if available when they will be sup personnel on an MDS for which they have less than 1 year experience?

A

aircraft familiarization course

87
Q

what training consists of academic and practical hands on training courses that complement initial skills training through AETC?

A

maint qual training

88
Q

what phase of training includes spec training such as engine run, hot pit refuel and borescope?

A

phase III spec qual training (SQT)

89
Q

what does it mean when someone is showing in IMDS as AWACT w/o a due date?

A

initial training has not been performed or loaded

90
Q

before beginning work on CDC course what should be completed in CDC volumes as an inventory is accomplished

A

applicable pen and ink changes

91
Q

if TBA is not used or available, which AF IMT should be used to sho milestones and any other significant CDC training issue?

A

AF IMT 623a, on the job training record continuation sheet

92
Q

when building a master training plan (MTP) for flight/section, what should you do first?

A

develop master task list

93
Q

what cutoff should be used to determine if a task should be a workcenter requirement?

A

if it is performed by 51 percent or more of personnel

94
Q

what do core tasks identify (with some exceptions)

A

minimum task cert that must be achieved for upgrade to 5 or 7 level

95
Q

what type of training tasks (core and non-core) require third party certs?

A

critical tasks

96
Q

what does UMD provide a listing of?

A

both funded and unfunded unit manpower requirements

97
Q

what does the UPMR provide a listing of?

A

unit authorizations by worcenter or FAC with name and rank of person filling each position

98
Q

what is a manning assist used for?

A

alleviate short term manning problem

99
Q

who is the approval authority to schedule maint personnel to work longer than 12 hour shifts

A

MXG/CC

100
Q

duty time for maint personnel definition?

A

when personnel report for duty until sup releases them

101
Q

which maint personnel will not perform their duty related maint actions beyond a 12 hour continuous shift?

A

any type of munitions

102
Q

why is shift rotation a key component of personnel utilization?

A

develops personal experience on shift specific duties

103
Q

who should flight/section chiefs coordinate work shift schedule changes with to ensure sufficient people will be available to support the mission?

A

production super or MX operations officer/MX SUPT

7 Level CDC (6 decks)

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