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3DX7X > Vol. 1 UREs > Flashcards

Vol. 1 UREs Flashcards

1
Q

Which AFSC requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?

a. Computer Systems Programming
b. Cyber Systems Operations
c. Cyber Transport Systems
d. Cyber Surety

A

a. Computer Systems Programming

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2
Q

Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?

a. Minimum rank of SSgt.
b. 6 months on-the-job training for retrainees.
c. Completion of AFSC specific requirements.
d. Completion of AETC Supplemental training courses.

A

d. Completion of AETC Supplemental training courses

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3
Q

Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of AFSCs based upon the unit misson?

a. Comunications Focal Point
b. Unit Deployment Monitor
c. Enterprise Service Desk
d. Quality Assurance

A

a. Communications Focal Point

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4
Q

What document directs the CFP key processes?

a. TO 00-5-15
b. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA
c. Air Force Enlisted Classifcation Directory
d. CFETP Part II

A

b. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA

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5
Q

Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized

a. at major command functional managers
b. at Headquarters Air Force (HAF)
c. at the Air Force Personnel Center
d. with career field managers

A

b. at HAF

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6
Q

Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?

a. Program Element Code (PEC)
b. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
c. Authorization Change Request (ACR)
d. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

A

b. UMD

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7
Q

Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

a. PEC
b. Special Experience Identifier (SEI)
c. ACR
d. UPMR

A

a. PEC

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8
Q

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the AFCFM?

a. Construct career paths
b. Manage skill-level training requirements
c. Establish requirements for entry into the career field
d. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)

A

d. Distribute personnel throughout their respective MAJCOM

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9
Q

Who serves as the MAJCOM voting representative during career field STRT and U&TW?

a. MAJCOM director of Communications (A6)
b. MAJCOM Functional Manager
c. Career Field Manager (CFM)
d. SAF/CIO A6

A

b. MAJCOM Functional Manager (MFM)

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10
Q

Which segment of the U&TW/STRT process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?

a. Segment 1
b. Segment 2
c. Segment 3
d. Segment 4

A

b. Segment 2

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11
Q

Which of the following is not an action of the STRT?

a. Draft and sign minutes
b. Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)
c. Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description
d. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses

A

d. Finalize STS/CTS for all courses

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12
Q

Which of the following is an optional attendee for U&TW?

a. AETC/TPM
b. AETC CDC writer
c. AFCFM
d. MFM

A

b. AETC CDC writer

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13
Q

What is used as a starting point to develop the CFETP and STS during STRT and U&TW?

a. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)
b. Quality Training Package (QTP)
c. Subject Matter Expert (SME)
d. Job Quality Standards (JQS)

A

a. OAR

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14
Q

What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actons on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?

a. Remedy
b. Situational Report (SITREP)
c. Telephone Management System (TMS)
d. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

A

d. IMDS

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15
Q

Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?

a. Review IMDS reports to ensure job status is reflected properly
b. Ensure equipment status is entered into ESR
c. Match reports with OIL
d. Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions

A

b. Ensure equipment status is entered into ESR

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16
Q

Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

a. CFP
b. Flight Commander/Chief
c. Production Controller
d. Commander

A

b. Flight Commander/Chief

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17
Q

Which of the following is included in the MTP only if applicable to the work center?

a. Master Task List
b. Job Qualification Standard
c. Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
d. Milestones for tasks and CDC completion

A

b. JQS

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18
Q

Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?

a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. 120

A

d. 120

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19
Q

Which statement is not a goal of ORM?

a. Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.
b. Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.
c. Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- off-duty activities.
d. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

A

d. Identify opportunities to decrease AF warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

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20
Q

How many steps are there in ORM?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

A

c. 6

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21
Q

Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

a. AF Form 55
b. AF Form 971
c. AF Form 623A
d. AF Form 623A and AF Form 55

A

a. AF Form 55

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22
Q

Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

a. Job Safety Training (JST)
b. Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)
c. Task Hazard Analysis (THA)
d. Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA)

A

a. JST

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23
Q

Which of the following is information not contained in TO 00-5-1?

a. TCTO procedures
b. Resources required to manage and use TOs
c. Infrastructure to manage and use TOs
d. Training to manage and use TOs

A

a. TCTO procedures

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24
Q

Recommended TO changes are required to be submitted on

a. AFTO Form 673
b. AFTO Form 22
c. AF Form 673
d. AF Form 22

A

b. AFTO Form 22

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25
Q

Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?

a. Library Custodian
b. Flight commander/chief
c. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)
d. Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)

A

b. Flight commander/chief

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26
Q

Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?

a. EIA
b. ANSI
c. ICT
d. ECIA

A

b. ANSI

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27
Q

Who develops standards for IP&E electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards?

a. EIA
b. ANSI
c. ICT
d. ECIA

A

d. ECIA

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28
Q

Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Offical?

a. The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR)
b. Commander/director responsible for the guidance
c. The authoring OPR’s supervisor
d. Publications Manager

A

c. The authoring OPR’s supervisor

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29
Q

What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable. and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

a. Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI)
b. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)
c. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS)
d. Military only

A

c. COTS

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30
Q

The creation of the DoD as an executive component of the government is authorized by USC Title

a. 10
b. 15
c. 37
d. 50

A

a. 10

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31
Q

Procedures and circumstances for Congres to order units into active Federal duty are established in USC Title

a. 15
b. 18
c. 32
d. 37

A

c. 32

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32
Q

Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

a. Wing Commander
b. Number Air Force Commander
c. Communications Squadron Commander
d. Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander

A

a. Wing Commander

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33
Q

When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

a. misuse of position
b. a covered relationships
c. non-public information
d. personal conflict of interest

A

a. misuse of position

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34
Q

Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

a. MILPERS
b. MILCON
c. O&M
d. RDT&E

A

b. MILCON

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35
Q

Which is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

a. $100,00
b. $250,000
c. $750,000
d. $1,000,000

A

c. $750,000

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36
Q

In-depth information for administering the GPC program at all responsible levels is found in AFI

a. 10-401
b. 33-360
c. 38-101
d. 64-117

A

d. 64-117

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37
Q

At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the GPC program?

a. Approval Office (AO)
b. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC)
c. DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO)
d. Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC)

A

c. PCPMO

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38
Q

Which of the following is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders?

a. Making authorized transactions
b. Reconciling transactions
c. Logging transactions
d. Funds accountability

A

d. Funds accountability

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39
Q

Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in

a. AFI 10-201
b. Joint Publication 1-02
c. Joint Publication 1-03
d. AFI 10-401

A

d. AFI 10-401

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40
Q

Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year

a. AF Chief of Staff
b. Secretary of the AF
c. Selected major command Command Chiefs
d. CMSgt of the AF

A

a. AF Chief of Staff

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41
Q

Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

a. Wing
b. Group
c. Squadron
d. Major Command

A

a. Wing

42
Q

Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in AFI

a. 36-2604
b. 36-2803
c. 36-2805
d. 36-2845

A

d. 36-2845

43
Q

What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the AF/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

a. 1 Oct - 30 Sep
b. 1 Jan - 31 Dec
c. 1 Apr - 31 Mar
d. 1 Jul - 30 Jun

A

a. 1 Oct - 30 Sep

44
Q

The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

a. 53
b. 63.
c. 73
d. 83

A

b. 63

45
Q

What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

a. Monitor
b. Scanner
c. Keyboard
d. Graphics card

A

c. Keyboard

46
Q

A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?

a. At least 5
b. No more than 10
c. No more than 20
d. 20 or more

A

c. No more than 20

47
Q

Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?

a. Simple
b. Relative
c. Positive
d. Absolute

A

c. Positive

48
Q

Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

a. Norton Utilities
b. Acrobat Reader
c. Virus Scan
d. WinZip

A

a. Norton Utilities

49
Q

The IEEE divides the OSI Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

a. HDLC and SDLC
b. LLC and MAC
c. Distance Vector and Link State
d. RS-232 and RS-530

A

b. LLC and MAC

50
Q

Network switches and bridges operate at what OSI layer?

a. Network
b. Physical
c. Data Link
d. Transport

A

c. Data Link

51
Q

Routers operate at what OSI layer?

a. Network
b. Physical
c. Data Link
d. Transport

A

a. Network

52
Q

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what OSI layer?

a. Network
b. Physical
c. Data Link
d. Transport

A

d. Transport

53
Q

What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the Dod called?

a. Defense Intelligence Agency
b. Defense Information Systems Agency
c. Defense Information Systems Network
d. Department of Defense Information Network

A

b. DISA

54
Q

Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

a. The customer
b. Security Manager
c. National Security Agency
d. Communications Squadron

A

a. The customer

55
Q

What are the two classifications of transport protocols?

a. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented
b. Classful and Connectionless Oriented
c. Connectionless Oriented and Classless
d. Classful and Classless

A

a. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented

56
Q

In a connection-oriented protocol, such as TCP, what must happen before data is transmitted between clients?

a. Authorization
b. Connection establishment
c. Establishment of a clear channel
d. End-to-end connectivity between host applications

A

b. Connection establishment

57
Q

What regulates how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement?

a. Data receive message
b. Sliding window
c. Buffer
d. Socket

A

b. Sliding window

58
Q

Which of these lists the fields in the UDP segment?

a. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data
b. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Windowing, Data
c. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Acknowledgement, Data
d. Channel Clear, Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data

A

a. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data

59
Q

How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

a. 16
b. 32
c. 64
d. 128

A

b. 32

60
Q

What class uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4?

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

A

a. Class A

61
Q

What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

a. Class C
b. Class D
c. Class E
d. Class F

A

a. Class C

62
Q

What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?

a. Class C
b. Class D
c. Class E
d. Class F

A

b. Class D

63
Q

What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?

a. 0.0.0.0
b. 127.0.0.1
c. 207.55.157.255
d. 255.255.255.255

A

b. 127.0.0.1

64
Q

Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to more user-friendly?

a. Colon Hexadecimal Format
b. Dotted Decimal Notation
c. Hexadecimal
d. Octal

A

a. Colon Hexadecimal Format

65
Q

The range of well-known port numbers is

a. 1024 to 49151
b. 49152 to 65535
c. 0 to 1023
d. 0 to 1024

A

c. 0-1023

66
Q

Which common port contains HTTP servers and proxies?

a. Port 80
b. Port 110
c. Port 443
d. Port 8080

A

d. Port 8080

67
Q

The design of communications network is known as

a. an internet suite
b. the physical layer
c. network architecture
d. network implementation

A

c. network architecture

68
Q

What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communication line within a small geographic area?

a. MAN
b. VPN
c. LAN
d. WAN

A

c. LAN

69
Q

What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?

a. LAN
b. WAN
c. VPN
d. MAN

A

d. MAN

70
Q

Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at 2.4 GHz frequency?

a. 802.11a
b. 802.11b
c. 802.11g
d. 802.11n

A

b. 802.11b

71
Q

Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz?

a. 802.11a
b. 802.11b
c. 802.11g
d. 802.11n

A

d. 802.11n

72
Q

What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media?

a. Physical
b. Logical
c. Hybrid
d. Star

A

a. Physical

73
Q

What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

a. Bus
b. Star
c. Ring
d. Hybrid

A

b. Star

74
Q

Over a single pair cable, ISDN is capable of tranmission rates of

a. 256 Kbps
b. 256 Mbps
c. 144 Mbps
d. 144 Kbps

A

d. 144 Kbps

75
Q

A modem is a device that

a. transmits on every link attached to it
b. modulates and demodulates data signals
c. uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination
d. operates on the Network layer of the OSI model

A

b. modulates and demodulates data signals

76
Q

What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

a. Hub
b. Bridge
c. Switch
d. Router

A

b. Bridge

77
Q

Two basic routing activities are determing optimal routing paths and

a. modulation of datagrams through an internetwork
b. Layer-1 error determination and correction through an internetwork
c. VPN tunnel determination through an internetwork
d. transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork

A

d. transporting packets through an internetwork

78
Q

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

a. 2

79
Q

What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder?

a. Line encryption
b. Link encryption
c. Device encryption
d. End-to-end encryption

A

b. Link encryption

80
Q

Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard?

a. Coaxial cable
b. Fiber optic cable
c. Shielded twisted-pair (STP)
d. Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP)

A

a. Coaxial cable

81
Q

Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

a. Twisted pair cable
b. Fiber optic cable
c. Coaxial cable
d. Twinax cable

A

a. Twisted pair cable

82
Q

What is the most common wireless network standard?

a. 802.3
b. 802.9
c. 802.11
d. 802.14

A

c. 802.11

83
Q

What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

a. Policy, Security, Authority
b. Authority, Security, Law
c. Law, Authority, Policy
d. Security, Policy, Law

A

c. Law, Authority, Policy

84
Q

What title status must National Guard Guardsman be in to execute cyber operations?

a. Title 10
b. Title 30
c. Title 50
d. Title 52

A

a. Title 10

85
Q

Which operations center monitors and controls AF network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

a. I-NOSC
b. Base Defense Operations Center
c. 624th Operations Center
d. Air Operations Center

A

a. I-NOSC

86
Q

Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one’s favor?

a. Information Management
b. Network-centric warfare
c. Information Superiority
d. Information Operations

A

c. Information Superiority

87
Q

What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary’s, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

a. Careful planning
b. Reactive operations.
c. Immediate response
d. Information Operations

A

a. Careful planning

88
Q

Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary’s use of the EMS?

a. Electronic attack
b. Electronic protection
c. Network Exploitation
d. Electronic warfare support

A

a. Electronic attack

89
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about EW and CNO?

a. EW concerns radiated energy
b. CNO concerns radiated energy
c. EW is only used for offensive purposes
d. CNO is only used or defensive purposes

A

a. EW conerns radiated energy

90
Q

Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

a. Computer Forensics
b. Incident Prevention
c. Incident Detection
d. Incident Response

A

d. Incident Response

91
Q

Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery or critical information?

a. Defense-in-Depth
b. Proactive Defense
c. Situational Awareness
d. Network Standardization

A

b. Proactive Defense

92
Q

Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisiion (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?

a. Supervisory System
b. Remote Terminal Unit
c. Human Machine Interface
d. Programmable Logic Controller

A

a. Supervisory System

93
Q

Which SCADA subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?

a. Supervisory System
b. Remote Terminal Unit
c. Human Machine Interface
d. Programmable Logic Controller

A

b. Remote Terminal Unit

94
Q

Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

a. Virus
b. Spam
c. Spyware
d. Phishing

A

b. Spam

95
Q

Which vulnerability preventative measure is a small piece of code that sofware developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

a. Patches
b. Antivirus
c. Software removal
d. Vulnerability scanner

A

a. Patches

96
Q

Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

a. Token
b. Biometric
c. Multifactor
d. Knowledge-base

A

b. Biometric

97
Q

Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

a. Token
b. Biometric
c. Multifunction
d. Knowledge-based

A

d. Knowledge-based

98
Q

What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?

a. Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems
b. End-to-End Performance Monitoring
c. Vulnerability Scanners
d. Capacity Planning

A

d. Capacity Planning

99
Q

Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk?

a. Wing commander
b. Authorizing Official (AO)
c. Wing information security office (WIAO)
d. Communications and information systems officer (CS)

A

b. Authorizing Official (AO)

100
Q

The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes

a. only full costs
b. recommended course of action only
c. full cost and recommended course of action
d. full cost, recommended course of action, and security requirements

A

c. full costs and recommended course of action

3DX7X (8 decks)

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