VOL 1 & 2 2023 Flashcards
Explain Pilot Dispatcher joint responsibility
The Captain and Dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning of each flight and shall determine the suitability of the weather, field, traffic and airway facilities on that particular flight. Both the Captain and the Dispatcher have the authority to delay the flight. If during the course of operations the PIC or Dispatcher determine the flight cannot be completed safely, the PIC may not allow the flight to continue to the planned destination.
When is an alternate airport required? (123 MMOISTTR) updated 1/14/23. Yes. I did. Annoying AF
-123 = 1hour prior to 1 hour after ETA less than 2000ft ceilings and 3 miles visibility
-Marginal Weather- if the ceiling is within 100ft OR visibility is
within 1/2SM of the minimums for the Destination IAP. If ALTERNATE airport weather is marginal (based on Derived Alternate Minimums) you must file a second alternate that meets derived alternate minimum requirements.))
-Method 2 Alternate- If the aircraft weight cannot meet the terrain clearance Method 1 you can file Method 2 = 2000ft above terrain within 5 miles of the centerline for that route segment being flown. Requires that, if an engine failure occurs at cruise altitude, the aircraft be able to divert to at least one suitable airport from a normal cruise altitude along that segment of the driftdown flight plan.
-Off-line Charter or Supplimental- if not listed as a regular airport in our manual.
- International and the flight time will exceed 6.0 hours.
-Severe Icing- If sever icing conditions are forecast +/- 1 hour of ETA
-Takeoff Alternate- If the weather at the departure airport is below CAT I landing minimums a take off alternate is required that meets the following requirements: (Must Be Method 1 FYI)
– Be within 1hour normal cruise speed – SingleEngine
– StillAir
– Be within 330NM of departure airport
-RNAV Only Approach- If the destination airport does not have any operational ground based approaches an alternate must be filed with a suitable non-RNAV approach (In case your GPS craps out)
Explain flaps optimized between 3 and 4
Flaps optimized helps with go around performance when you pick up icing enroute. “Flap Full” becomes “Flaps 3”.
Flaps Optimized insures adequate approach climb performance in this case.
Explain the different between Method 1 and Method 2
a. Method 1 - Requires the aircraft to takeoff at a weight that ensures, if an engine failure occurs
anywhere from V1 to the destination, the aircrafts net altitude will clear all obstructions 5 SM
either side of the routes centerline by 1000ft until reaching the destination.
b. Method 2- If the aircraft weight is such that it cannot meet the terrain clearance requirements of
Method 1 you can file Method 2 which requires the aircraft to maintain 2000ft above terrain within 5 Miles of the centerline for that route segment being flown. if an engine failure occurs at cruise altitude, the aircraft be able to divert to at least one suitable airport from a normal cruise altitude along that segment.
When is a Takeoff Alternate required?
If the weather at the departure airport is below CAT I landing minimums a take off alternate is required that meets requirements:
– Within 1hour normal cruise-speed – SingleEngine
– StillAir
– Within 330 NM of departure airport
When is autopilot required for an approach?
When visibility is less than 4000 RVR or 3/4, the approach must be flown with the autopilot(s) engaged if operable.
AND……………….
additional 15% runway must also be available if
visibility is under 3/4 SM.
Required equipment for RVSM? (FFAT 2PAD)
FWC- Flight Warning Computer (Altitude Alerter)
FCU- Flight Control Unit
Autopilot
Transponder
2-PFD’s - Primary Flight Displays
2-ADR’s - Air Data Reference computer (#1 is required)
2-DMC’s - Display Monitoring Computer
VOL II 5.25
Four Requirements to accept an RNAV departure?
a. Cross track error deviation should be limited to .5NM
b. SID/STAR must be retrieved by procedure name from NAV database
c. Pilot must use Flight Director and/or Autopilot in LNAV mode
d. Pilot must be able to engage the RNAV flight guidance no later than 500ft above airport eleva
How must an approach be conducted when visibility is less than 3/4 SM or 4000 RVR? What Must Be Applied?(Hint: not autoland)
-Autopilot coupled approach
-add 15% to the Landing Field Length specified for that runway
How must an approach be conducted when visibility is 1/2 SM OR 2400 RVR or less?
The approach must be briefed and flown as an autoland with the captain acting as the pilot flying
– CATII or CAT III runway available
– The aircraft is auto-land capable
– Both crew members are trained for autoland
What paperwork must be onboard prior to blocking out?
Flight Plan (is right before TLR)
Latest available weather (METAR/TAF)
NOTAM Reports
Performance Information (AWP or TLR)
Weight and Balance manifest
You do not technically need the top copy
How does a pilot initiate the call to the Flight Attendants to inform them to prepare the cabin for a
possible Evacuation?
a. The pilot will initiate the call to the cabin using the Emergency call button on the inter-phone
b. He will then inform the Flight Attendant that they are in a TEST situation and brief the flight attendant on the information.
– T-Type of emergency (CargoFire)
– E- Evacuation Anticipated? ( we plan to evacuate the cabin)
– S - Signals from the Cockpit to the Cabin ( “Brace, Brace, Brace” “Remain Seated,
Remain Seated, Remain Seated” “Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate”)
– T-Time remaining until Landing(we will be landing in 10 minutes)
What is the lowest RVR Frontier can depart with?
The lowest authorized RVR value Frontier can depart at is 500/500/500 RVR with HIRL and CL lights
When is a crew briefing required?
a. Crew briefings should be conducted prior to the first flight of the day.
b. If a crew member change occurs the Captain should complete an additional crew briefing with the new
crew member prior to that flight.
c. If a crew briefing cannot be accomplished prior to the first flight of the day or prior to the flight in the
event of a crew member change the captain should insure that at least the first officer and preferably the “A” flight attendant have received the crew briefing. The briefed flight attendant will then be responsible for briefing the other flight attendants in this situation and those flight attendants that were not briefed by the captain should try to stop by the flight deck prior to departure to identify themselves as crew members to the captain.
When is a DDA required?
Derived Decision Altitude is required when conducting an approach with an MDA or MDH.
DDA is derived by adding 50ft to the published MDA or MDH.
PF on the ground?
Captain is always PF on the ground for the purpose of ECAM actions.
Circle to Land approach minimums and important points.
circle to land maneuver you must have at least 3 SM and 1000ft ceilings.
Circle to land uses MDA not DDA because you level off.
Primary flight plan will have the instrument approach procedure the circling approach, the secondary flight plan will have the desired runway without an approach.
Circle in configuration 3. Once on base/final, flaps full.
Is a logbook entry required if you do a computer reset?
YES.
a. Successful reset must be entered into the aircraft logbook as “CR” (Computer Reset) items.
b. If a Computer / System cannot be successfully reset it must be entered into the aircraft logbook as a
discrepancy.
When are wing walkers or marshaller necessary?
a. Parking an aircraft requires a marshaller to guide the aircraft. One or more wing-walkers may be used at the discretion of the marshaller..
During the cockpit prep, setting the QNH on the FCU, what is the max altitude difference between PFD 1 and 2?
A) = +/- 20ft difference
Extra Credit:
B) Standby system Steam Gauge = +/- 300ft from PFD
C) ISIS system = +/- 100ft from PFD
After landing when do we perform the drift check and what are the limits?
a. A drift check is required to be completed after each flight to Alaska or an international destination, or anytime the aircraft is flown in Class II airspace.
b. If the drift check falls into the shaded band on the chart in Vol. 2 3.20 pg. 4 no logbook entry is required. However, a drift check is required to be completed on the next flight leg even if the leg would not normally require one to be done.
Quick align IRUs
What is Marginal weather?
a. The weather is considered marginal if the ceiling is within 100 ft or the visibility is within 1/2 SM of the
minimums for the destination airport and the weather at the alternate airport is within 100 ft and 1/2 SM of the derived alternate minimums. If both the destination and first alternate are determined to be Marginal than a second alternate is required that meets derived alternate minimum requirements.
What does RNAV 1 Mean?
RNAV 1 on SIDS and STARS must maintain a total system error of not more than 1.0 NM, 95% of the
total flight time. (RNP 1.0)
deviation should be limited to 0.5 NM.
When May Frontier fly to a published MDA?
a. Never, whenever an MDA or MDH is published for an approach we must always use Derived Decision
Altitude and a constant Flight Path/Angle descent to the DDA.
(Ehhhh circling approach)
For abnormal procedures during takeoff, which checklist is read first: After takeoff checklist or
the abnormal checklist?
a. After takeoff checklist is completed first and the Abnormal checklist is completed second
When may a single engine autoland be done, and in what configuration?
a. Frontier limitations prohibit the use of single engine autoland approaches, however if the flight crew determines it to be the safest course of action for the approach they may use their emergency authority to complete the single engine autoland approach. If the single engine auto-land is used it will be done in the “CONFIG FULL” configuration.
When do you select “FLAPS FULL” on a single engine approach?
“FLAPS FULL” should not be selected on a single engine approach until the aircraft is established on
the final descent to an assured landing. If a level off is expected during the final approach the
approach and landing should be preformed “FLAP 3”
When is it appropriate to call “continuing” on an approach?
“Continuing” is called by the PF if the the approach lights are in sight
What needs to be turned off at minimums, when runway is in sight, landing from a non-precision approach?
- A/P Off
– FDs Off
What do you do if the aircraft starts to move with the parking brake on?
If the aircraft starts to move with the parking brake on, immediately release the Parking Brake handle
and restore braking with the pedals.
Is it ok to leave the cockpit unattended when the parking brake is released?
A Frontier pilot or mechanic shall be at the duty station any time the parking brake is released, or at the discretion of maintenance when work is being preformed.
What Equipment is a Frontier pilot required to carry? (Revised February 2023)
(VOL I 20.10 pg. 2)
- AirmanCertificate
– FCCPermit
– Medical Certificate
– Flashlight
– EFB with Vol 1 and 2, FlySmart+, EQRH and Jepp Charts
– Passport
– Government issued photo ID
— Company Badge (10.40 pg.1)
How long before departure are we required to report for duty?
- 1 hour prior in domicile
– 45 minutes prior to departure out of domicile
– not less than 1 hour prior to departure for international
When is your new medical certificate required to be submitted to the Chief Pilots Office?
No later than the 20th of the month in which its due
What do you do if you lose one of your certificates?
a. Call the SOC for a copy of the certificates and exemption 5487
b. This limits you to domestic flights only
c. Must request a new/temporary certificate from the FAA within 72 hours
If the aircraft is not certified for overwater operations, how close must you stay to land?
162 NM from shoreline and not to exceed 30 minutes of flying time
United States holding speeds?
– 0-6000ft = 200KIAS
– 6001-14000ft = 230KIAS
– Above14000ft = 265KIAS
If the weather at the departure airport drops from one SM to 1,000 RVR, as you taxi out, what should the flight crew complete? STAR
So below 1,200 RVR = SMGCS
And
below CAT I minimums = Takeoff Alternate.
– SMGCS charts out for taxi
– Take off Alternate is required
– ARTR required from dispatch
– Red Stop Bar Lights at the runway
When is an ARTR required? (HAMM Fuel)
– H our Old (release is more than one hour old)
– A lternate becomes required for takeoff or Destination
- M EL added to aircraft after release was sent
– M iles added to the flight plan greater than 100 miles
- Fuel more than 2000LBS to be added
When do you need a new TLR report?
If the QNH drops more than .10 QNH from the TLR a new report is required
When Is FLEX takeoff Prohibited? MCOWS
– MEL prevents it
– Contaminated Runway
– OAT is greater than Flex Temp
– Windshear
– Special Departure Procedures (ie.KSNA noise abatement) – Performance will not allow a Flex takeoff
What are the three different engine failure procedures?
a. Standard (Simple) - Runway Heading
b. Simple-Special (Special) - Heading to a DME than direct to a fix
c. Complex-Special (Complex) - An escape route that can be found in the AIP or Jepp chart 10-7
What is the minimum engine oil quantity required for flight?
14 quarts for A321 NEO (above -30+)
If less than 14 quarts, lookup minimum oil quantity in VOL II.
What ways can you obtain a valid weight and balance?
ACARS
Paper form
Central Load Planning phone call
What is the required response to a “SINK RATE” aural warning?
“GO AROUND” because vertical speed has become greater than 1000 FMP and the approach is no
longer stabilized
What is the required response to an “AUTOLAND” warning during CAT II/III approach?
An immediate missed approach is required. VOL II 6.30 P.13
– Excessive ILS beam deviation (1/4 Dot localizer,1 Dot glide slope)
– The loss or disconnect of both auto pilots
– ILS transmitter failure
– The Difference between both RA indications is greater than 15ft
If a circuit braker pops on the ground or in flight, can we reset them?
-On the Ground
1. Do NOT re-engage fuel pump C/Bs.
2. The flight crew may re-engage any other tripped C/B provided the action is coordinated with MOC and cause has been identified
-In flight
1. Do NOT re-engage any C/B that has tripped by itself unless the captain judges it absolutely necessary for the safe continuation of flight.
VOL II 5.05 P. 1
An RNAV/GPS approach has LPV, LNAV/VNAV and VNAV minimums Which minimums can Frontier use? Stipulations?
a. CANNOT use LPV minimums
b. CAN use LNAV/VNAV minimums
c. CAN use VNAV minimums
d. CANNOT use LNAV or VNAV minimums if a minimum climb gradient is published for the missed
approach
What is the proper terminology for the transition thru 18,000 ft climbing and descending?
a. Climbing
1. PF Calls “PULL STANDARD” and “STATE ALTITUDE PASSING” 2. PM Calls “STANDARD PULLED, ALTITUDE CHECKED”
b. Descending
1. PF Calls “PUSH QNH” “STATE ALTITUDE PASSING” 2. PM Calls “ QNH PUSHED, ALTITUDE CHECKED
Preliminary Cockpit Prep:
a. What is the minimum battery voltage and what does it ensure?
Minimum battery voltage is 25.5 volts which ensures a charge above 50% on the batteries
What indications do you get when performing an engine fire test with AC power?
-Respective Fire push button light
– Master Warning Lights
– FIRE warning on ECAM
– CRC (Continuous Repetitive Chime)
– SQUIB and DISCH lights on
– FIRE light on the ENG Panel
– ***Push MASTER WARN to verify MASTER WARN lights and CRC cancel!!!
What indication do you get when performing the APU fire test with AC power?
APU FIRE push button
– CRC (continuous repetitive chime) – APU FIRE warning on ECAM
– SQUIB and DISCH light
– Master Warning Lights
What indications do you have on the APU fire test when you do not have AC power?
– Half of APU FIRE push button Illuminates
– SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate
If the brake accumulator pressure is out of the green band, how can it be charged?
You can pressurize the the YELLOW HYDRAULIC system by selecting the YELLOW ELECTRIC pump switch to on. DO NOT switch the YELLOW ELECTRIC pump to the on position at the gate without first consulting with the ground crew to make sure everyone is clear of the aircraft.
At the gate with the engines off, you turn on the YELLOW ELECTRIC HYDRAULIC pump. Will this action pressurize the GREEN HYDRAULIC system? Why?
Yes
YELLOW ELECTRIC pump will pressurize both the GREEN and YELLOW hydraulic system VIA the PTU (Power Transfer Unit) if there is greater than a 500 PSI difference between the YELLOW and GREEN hydraulic systems.
FROM VOL III:
(A bidirectional power transfer unit enables the yellow system to pressurize the green system and vice
versa.
The power transfer unit comes into action automatically when the differential pressure between the
green and the yellow systems is greater than 500 PSI.
The PTU therefore allows the green system to be pressurized on the ground when the engines are
stopped.)
During single engine taxi, the #2 engine MUST be started a minimum of how many minutes prior to takeoff and why?
Start the #2 engine at least 3 minutes prior to takeoff to allow for engine stabilization and to alliviate the risk of THERMAL SHOCK to the engine.
What temperature and conditions MUST the ENGINE ANTI ICE (not wing), and wing be turned on and in what phase of flight? VOL II 5.45 page 10
a. ENGINE ANTI ICE must be turned on when there is visible moisture and the OAT/TAT is at or below 10 Degrees C down to -40 Degrees C.
b. Must be on during ground operations with visible moisture or slush, standing water, ice, or snow present on taxiways and runways
c. Must be turned on at all times when the aircraft is in a descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below -40 C
- wing only needs to be on if there is an indication of airframe icing such as the windscreen indicators…
What is the definition of Ground Icing conditions?
– Visible moisture
– Temperature below 10 degrees C
– Visibility Less than 1SM
What do the FAC’s do? (Flight Augmentation Computers)
– Control The Flight Envelope
– Generate speed tape symbologies (Green DOT, S Speed, F Speed)
– Wind-shear Alerts
– Low Energy warnings
– Yaw Damping, Turn Coordination, Rudder Travel limiter
SEAFAT
– SEC1 and SEC3 faults
- E levator L or R Fault
- A LPHA FLOOR Activation
– Flaps are configured FULL
– A lpha protection Active
– Thrust levers above MCT position
What does centering the BETA TARGET with the Bank Index do?
In the event of an engine failure during takeoff or on a Go Around, the sideslip index changes to
BLUE. When this index is centered with the roll index, the sideslip equals the sideslip target for
optimum performance. ( ENG N1 =/+ 80% with more than a 35% split in N1 Values)l
If you loose the BLUE hydraulic system fluid, is the RAT still available?
Noop. It is NOT available to supply the hydraulic or emergency electrical power without hydraulic fluid in the BLUE system
What color is the “NW STRG DISC” on the ECAM?
a. Green with both engine off
b. Amber with one or both engines running
What is the MAXIMUM recommended thrust to be used to get the Aircraft to move on the ramp?
Not to EXCEED 40% N1, once aircraft starts to move very little thrust is required
If the pilot manually tunes a frequency thru the RAD/NAV function, does it affect the Auto-Tuning of the FMGC?
NO
Green Dot, S speed, F speed ?
– Green Dot = L/Dmax (best glide performance, maneuvering speed, LRC) Changes during load factor, hence maneuvering speed…….
– S Speed = Minimum Slat retraction Speed
– F Speed = Minimum Flap retraction speed
When do we use Flight Path Vector/ The Bird for approaches?
For MANAGED / SELECTED Non-Precision Approaches.
The flight path director (TRK-FPA) allows the pilot to set FPA for vertical approaches. Enables the FPV (“BIRD”) for visual landing.
COCKPIT PREPARATION: First flight of the Day, Electric System is supplied with AC power, is the BAT Voltage check required? Batt switches off or Auto?
NO
VOL II 3.05 page 2
Batt PBs must be in off to check the battery voltage! If in Auto they will automatically connect to charge if low. Off isolates them completely.
During cockpit preparation, after external power has been connected, we do something with the Batteries….
What, Why, and what are we looking for?
This proves the batteries are charged… Turn the batteries off then on…. Starts charging cycle on the batteries. LOOK AT ECAM ELEC page, should show that BAT Amps (Being Charged) drop below 60A within 10 seconds and continue to decrease. (This means the battery is charged and cannot take anymore amps). If not, this means the damn battery is sucking up power because its dead. flight crew MUST wait until the charging cycle complete.
During Engine Start with the THRUST LEVERS out of the IDLE position, will the engines start?
Yes the engines will start.. CAUTION must be used because thrust will increase rapidly to the
corresponding thrust lever position.
After engine start the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast. What is our action?
Run the engine for 5 minutes at idle speed. If the leak disappears in those 5 minutes no further action is required by the flight crew. If the leak is still present after those 5 minutes, maintenance action is required before flight.
EXCEPT A321 NEO. 600’s =abort start. Call MX
During Engine Start, Electric power supply is interrupted, what is our action?
Abort the start by switching OFF the MASTER switch. Then, preform a 30 second dry crank.
Which leading edge devices are ICE protected?
The outboard 3 SLATS on each wing are heated ( 3, 4, 5 )
Is the Tail ICE protected?
No
How do you verify that your EPE does not exceed your RNP of 1.0? ( Estimated Position Error )
NAV ACCUR HIGH denoted EPE does not exceed appropriate criteria for the procedure. GPS
PRIMARY displayed = NAV accuracy check not required
If you are preparing for a CAT III B approach and the standby altimeter failed, would if affect your
CAT status or your capability in any way?
Yes, you would be limited to a CAT I approach
DUAL ENGINE FAILURE!!!
ECAM or QRH?
QRH-(its smarter than you)
ENG tab
Red “ All ENG FAIL”
Then, time permitting, clear ECAM warnings and check the ECAM status page.
Explain NORMAL LAW protections
(BYPALS)
B ank 67*
Y aw damping and turn coordination
P itch UP-30°-20° DOWN-15°
A OA Vls,A-prot,A-MAX,A-Floor
L oad (clean = -1 to + 2.5) (Flaps = 0 to + 2.0)
S peed Mmo + 0.1, Vmo + 6 kts (High Speed Protection)
NORMAL LAW PROTECTIONS (BYPALS)
- BANK= Maximum of 67 Degrees
– YAW=Turn Coordination And Yaw Damping Provided
– PITCH= 20-30 Degrees nose up pitch. 15 degrees nose down
– ANGLE OF ATTACK =Vls, ALPHA PROT, ALPHA FLOOR, or ALPHA MAX
– LOAD= -1G to +2.5G Clean -0G +2.0 G with Flaps
– SPEED = High Speed Protection = Vmo+6KTS/Mmo+.01 MACH and Full down Side Stick deflection limits much higher…
Is ALPHA FLOOR available in Alternate or Direct Law?
NO.
Alpha Floor protections is inoperative in both Alternate and Direct Law
How do you get out of TOGA LOCK that is triggered by ALPHA FLOOR?
To cancel ALPHA FLOOR or TOGA LOCK thrust: Disconnect the auto thrust
Explain Ground Speed MINI?
Essentially Ground Speed Mini calculates for actual wind gusts experienced on the approach to maintain a constant groundspeed..
Minimum constant ground speed.
When does the battery connect to the electrical system?
When the batteries need to be charged the BAT Contactors automatically close allowing them to
charge. When charging is complete they disconnect themselves
–When the battery is the soul source of electrical power they automatically connect
– Batteries automatically connect during APU starts
What is the purpose of the DFDR Button?
Marks the FDR tape for an event that you feel needs to be seen by MX
What is the significants of a GREEN circuit breaker?
System that is monitored by the ECAM
What is the significants of a BLACk circuit breaker?
System is not monitored by ECAM
What is the significants of a RED circuit breaker?
DO NOT RESET!
What happens when you turn the Engine Mode control to IGNITION?
– Turns on FADEC
– ARMS Engine Master Switches
– ARMS Manual Start Switches
– Brings up Engine Page on ECAMSD – Closes Pack Valves
What conditions must be met to ARM the AUTO THRUST?
– Need At least one Flight Director
– Thrust Lever Needs To be in CL Detent
– A/THR is ARMED at FLEX/MCT or higher
What sections of the engines do the Fire Loops monitor?
– Pylon
– Core
– Nacelle
i. 2 LOOPS A & B BOTH HAVE TO AGREE ON INDICATION TO GIVE YOU A FIRE WARNING
What happens when the pilot pushes the Engine fire Pushbutton
– ARMS Squib/CRC Silenced
– Closes HYD FIRE shutoff valve
– Closes LP Fuel Valve and Closes IDG Return Valve (De-energizes FADEC) – De-Activates Generator
– Closes Engine Bleed Valve and Pack Valve
What happens when the pilot pushes the APU fire Pushbutton? (2-0-2-1-2)
– ARMS Squib / CRC Silenced
– NO HYD
– Closes LP Fuel Valve and Shuts down APU Fuel Pump – De-Activates APU Generator
– Closes APU Bleed Valve and X Bleed Valve
What BIG systems are on the GREEN HYD Pump?
– Nose-wheel Steering
– Landing Gear Extension/Retraction – Reverser #1
– Normal/Auto-brakes
What BIG systems are on the YELLOW HYD Pump?
– Nose-wheel Steering (Some Airplanes)
– Parking and Alternate Brakes
– Thrust Reverser #2
– Cargo Doors
When does the PTU run?
It runs with a difference of 500 PSI between the YELLOW and GREEN HYD Systems
When Is the PTU inhibited? (Revised 1/27/2023)
PB is selected off.
40 seconds after The cargo door is opened, or closed.
One engine master switch on & Tow Pin installed.
One engine master switch on & parking brake set.
When do WING TIP BRAKES Turn on?
– Flap Slat Asymmetry
– Flap Overspeed (Flaps Moving TOO Fast)
– Un-commanded Flap or Slat Movement
White lines across the Captains PFD, ND and E/WD, what does it mean?
Failure of DMC #1
Captains screens are BROKE! (PFD, ND and E/WD) restored by selecting
the EIS DMC switch on the center pedestal to CAPT 3
What procedures for high humidity and heavy rain
environments?
Avoid getting moisture in Avionics Bay:
1) EXTRACT FAN should be placed in OVRD.
2) PACKS ON / APU BLEED ON takeoff (planned using PACKS OFF performance)
Notes: EXTRAC FAN to OVRD position closes the avionics ventilation system, preventing rainwater/moisture from entering the avionics compartment.
c. Leaving the Packs on APU bleed adds air from the air conditioning system to avionics compartment to be cooled dried in the closed configuration on the ground when needed.
What happens when you turn the APU MASTER switch on?
– Power the ECB (Electronic Control Box)
– Pressurizing theAPU fuel pump if required
– Opens APU Flap/Inlet
– Brings Up APU ECAM Page
What Automatically Inhibits the PTU? 4
– Engine Master Switches mismatched (one is selected off the other is on) with parking brake set
– Engine Master Switches mismatched with tow pin installed
– During cargo door operations + 40 seconds
- PB is selected off
What items are checked when the pilot presses the T.O Config test?
– Rudder Trim in T/O range
– Pitch Trim in T/O range
– Flaps in T/O range
– Speed Brakes retracted
– Slats in T/O range
– L or R side stick faults
– Door
– HotBrakes
When does the “T.O INHIBIT” appear on the ECAM?
It appears when the first engine reaches T.O Power and remains active until the aircraft reaches
1500ft or 2 minutes after lift off which ever comes first. This inhibits the aircraft from distracting the
pilot with anything other than critical failures during high workload phases of flight
When does the “LDG INHIBIT” appear on the ECAM?
It appears at 800ft on landing and remains active until the aircraft slows to below 80kts on the runway after landing.
How many protections per each Law are there?
Normal, alternate, abnormal, direct.
Normal = 6
Alternate = 4
Abnormal = 2
Direct = 0
Explain Flight control laws with BYPALS
Bank
Yaw
Pitch
Angle
Load Factor
Speed
Explain 3585
An exemption used to dispatch a flight to a destination that has conditional remarks that are lower than CAT I landing minimums.
No International
Must have two alternates
Why will RAT auto deploy?
Both AC Busses Fail
The RAT powers the ______________ Hydraulic system. Can the RAT run another hydraulic system?
BLUE SYSTEM. Only
If your blue Hydraulic system is broken, the RAT IS USELESS!!!
How long does it take the RAT to deploy?
8 Seconds. Momentary Fault on RAT and Emer Gen push button.
When on EMERGENCY electrical power from RAT, how many screens do you have? What about Battery power?
RAT Fully Functioning (> 140 kts): 4 Screens CA PFD, ND, E/WD, MCDU
125 Knots (100 - 140 kts) RAT STALLS: YOU HAVE - CA PFD & E/WD
100 KTS - DC BATT bus connects
50 KTS - all screens shut off and AC ESS BUS sheds (VHF#1 Available)
Explain Basic RAT landing Synopsis
RAT Fully Functioning (> 140 kts): 4 Screens CA PFD, ND, E/WD, MCDU
125 Knots (100 - 140 kts) RAT STALLS: YOU HAVE - CA PFD & E/WD
100 KTS - DC BATT bus connects
50 KTS - all screens shut off and AC ESS BUS sheds (VHF#1 Available)
How do you check the Battery Voltage?
Batteries must be off. This opens line contractor so batteries don’t charge, so you see their charge.
Battery PB
Fault
charging current is outside of limits.
battery line contactor opens
GEN Fault Light?
- Line Contactor Tripped
OR - GCU Tripped
Simple APU Starter Sequence.
Three starts then 60 minute wait.
Max APU start with Battery
25,000
FMA - Blue, green and White are?
Blue is Armed
Green (Vertical Lateral) and White are Active
If you’re starting an engine, and you have an electrical Interruption:
Abort Start, Master off
Eng selector……….Crank
MAN start…….On
If you test APU FIRE with only battery, what lights?
2
-Fire PB (only two lights)
-Squib/DISC Light
Fuel Tank Priority for center tanks and inner tank
Burns center tank first.
When Center Fuel Tank hits 550lbs, the pumps continue for five minutes. (Which is about 500lbs)
When either of the Inner fuel tanks reach 1650lbs The outer tanks are drained (Jet Pump) into the inner pumps. The inner wing tanks will fill up (1650lbs to 6,000 or whatever is available)
Fault on Center Tank Mode Selector means.
More than 550lbs in Center Tank AND < 11,000lbs in a wing Tank.
When can the CRC NOT be cancelled? GOS
Gear not down below 750’
Over speed
Stall
APU Start Sequence (EFFFE)
ECB (electronic control box) Self Test
Flap Opens
Fuel Pump
Fuel Isolation Valve opens
ECAM APU Page opens
APU AVAIL When?
95% + 2 Seconds or 99%
ENG START FAULT =
1) Aborted Start (FADEC)
2) Fuel Valve Position Disagreement
FUEL Center Tank
-Mode Selector FAULT
-WHEN DO CENTER TANK PUMPS RUN?
FAULT = 550lbs center tank with less than 11,000lbs in an outboard tank.
*PUMPS RUN AFTER ENG START for 2 MINUTES
*IF SLATS ARE RETRACTED
*550 lbs in Center Tank then + 5 Minutes
ENG BLEED PB FAULT (loosa)
APU BLEED FAULT
L eak
O ver Pressure
O ver Temperature
S tarting Engine with Valve Open
A PU Bleed open with Eng Bleed Valve open
Startin Eng Valve Open = If the Eng Bleed Valve is open, the air being used to start the Engine will move into the engine and out the
Bleed into the system. This makes it impossible to build up air pressure to start the engine)
APU BLEED OPEN With Eng Bleed open. The two sources will be pushing against each other.
APU bleed fault = Leak
FAULT LIGHT EXTRACTOR AND BLOWER (SACO)
Smoke
Air pressure low
Computer Fault
Overheat (Extract DOESNT have OverHeat)
Explain the Significant Altitudes for rising cabin pressure.
When do pax O2 masks drop?
Normal cabin max 8000
Advisory 8800
Warning 9550
Cabin signs come on 11300
Pax Masks deploy auto 14,000
Outflow Valves close 15,000
What is the procedure for removing ice build up during taxi from the engines?
Rev up engines to 70% N1 for 30 seconds. Also do this just before take off.
VOL2 5.45 page 7
When is Alpha Floor protection Active?
Above 100’ RA.
If below that it ain’t gonna help you
What speed is the landing gear inhibited from extending?
Above 260 kts.
Hydraulic is cut off
How many turns to manually extend the gear and what happens for each turn?
Three
1) Turns off the green Hydraulic system
2) Opens gear bay doors
3) Drops the gear
What speed is the landing gear extend inhibited? What’s max speeds?
Landing gear will not extend above 260 knots
Extension = 250
Retraction = 220
Max Gear speed = 280 or Mach .67
How many brake applications from accumulator?
What system?
How long will the accumulator hold the parking break?
7 applications
Yellow
12 hours
When will auto break work?
They are commanded ON from the Ground Spoilers….
The Ground spoilers will not deploy below 72 knots.
SO on an RTO, If you’re below 72 kts Autobreak will not function
When are the Speed Breaks inhibited?
SEAFAT
SEC 1 AND 3 fault
Elevator L or R fault
Alpha Protection active
Flaps Full
Alpha Floor active
Thrust Levers >MCT
What is ? (Revised 1/27/2023)
Alpha Prot
Alpha Floor
Alpha Max
Alpha Prot:
Low speed range. This is the “tiger tail”. Provides protections.
Bank, Pitch is taken over and will keep AOA from stalling.
Only works above 100 FEET RA
Alpha FLOOR:
is a speed that is in the alpha protection range, and is calculated by the airplane. If you reach alpha floor, TOGA THRUST is added. TOGA lock occurs.
Alpha Max:
Is basically a stall.
What is ADIRS?
Air Data Reference is information based on barometric pressure, AOA, airspeed
Inertial Reference is information based on Inertial Parameters from laser gyros.
What’s optimized V2
Procedure of increasing Take Off V speeds when you have a super long runway to increase payload and fuel efficiency. (Still looks at all parameters i.e. Obstacles…)
When do we apply SAFO
When we get landing data out of the QRH……
SAFO: add 15% (Rnwy_____ times 1.15 = ______ plus 500) and 500’ to the Landing Runway
What do you need for a fully functioning Normal Law Airplane?
Electrics and Hydraulics
How do you go from normal law to Alternate Law?
Multiple failures of redundant systems OR Abnormal upset
What protections do you loose in Alternate Law?
(Sidestick)
-Bank
-Pitch
-AOA protections (like Alpha Floor),(you still have stall warning and VLS)
-High Speed
How do you get from Alternate Law to Direct Law?
Turn the Autopilot Off
(Gear Down)
AOA protection range is what and what happens?
ALPHA FLOOR
AOA protection range is the “Tiger Tail”
The airplane will start automatically imposing ways to keep the airplane safe. Such as reducing bank and pitch..
Explain the fuel burn process
Center tanks burn first until 550 lbs. and five minutes. unless slats extended…
Outer tanks flow into inner wing tanks when inner tanks reach 1650lbs
How do you get out of toga lock
Match Auto thrust and mash the disconnect button
Low Speed Protections. Alpha Prot
BASAP
Bank <45°
AP Off
Speed Brakes retract
AOA instead of G load
Pitch up trim inhibited
High speed protections
BASN
Bank <45°
AP disconnects
Seeks wings level
Nose up
Reactive Windshear is active when?
3 seconds after Take Off to 1300’ AGL
Landing 1300’ to 50’
Predictive Windshear is active when
Taxi-100 kts
50’ - 2300’AGL for Takeoff and Landing
When are Speed Brakes inhibited
SEAFAT—
SEC 1 AND 3 fault
Elevator L or R fault
Alpha Protection active
Flaps Full
Alpha Floor active
Thrust Levers >MC
When in Alpha Lock, you try to put the flaps up…..
The flaps will retract to zero,but the slats will stay at one.
Will deploying the RAT from the Hydraulic panel run the Blue Hydraulic Electrical generator?
NO
What does DECEL on landing mean?
Slowing at least 80% of target
GEN 1 LINE Pushbutton
Smoke (amber) and Off?
SMOKE: smoke detected in avionics bay
OFF: Disconnects Generator 1 from AC BUS 1. A fuel pump in each wing Tank is powered by Generator one. AC BUS 1 powered by Gen 2…
When does the RAT Deploy?
AC BUS 1 and 2 are not powered and speed >100 knots
How is the aircraft position determined?
IRUs back up by the GPS! Plus ground based navaids. All compiled to give airplane position.
Do you have anti-skid if you loose normal braking
Yes, provided the anti-skid switch is on. And BSCU works..
There’s an Alternate way valves.
Normal braking is on green. Alternate is yellow
IDG fuel return line draws fuel from, and returns to?
Fuel is drawn from the onside engine’s fuel manifold that comes from the inner wing tank. The fuel is utilized for fuel oil heat exchanger, and returned to the outer wing tank.
What Protections are given in Alternate Law?
Alternate Law: 4
B
Yaw Damp only
P
AOA Vls and Vsw (Stall Warning)
Load Factor same as Normal Law
Speed Protections will Vary
What Hydraulic PSI is guaranteed with the RAT?
2500 PSI
Low Speed Protections (Alpha Prot)
B ank 45° limited
A P disconnects
S peed brake retract
A oa instead of load factor
P itch up trim inhibited
High Speed Protections (BAWN)
B ank limited 40°
A P disconnect
W ings level
N ose up movement
When does the pitch trim go to zero?
During landing the airplane goes into ground mode. Ground mode signals the pitch trim to auto trim to zero.
Remember: Ground Mode > Flight Mode > Flare Mode > Ground Mode > Flight..
Which Spoilers are “Ground Spoilers”
All…… 1-5
Protections given in Direct Law?
AOA = Vls and Vsw
Speed = Aural Warning Overspeed
Explain Offline Charter Alternate
We need an alternate if we fly to an offline charter airport that is not in our AIP blue pages. AKA regularly fly to
Where is the overweight landing tab and the unreliable airspeed
In the QRH
Overweight is a few pages in front of the blue tab….
The unreliable speed AB 34 NAV
What is required for an RNAV Departure?
VOL I
RNAV capable (1.0)(NM)
Retrievable in Database (FMS)
must fly LNAV guidance with FD and or AutoPilot
LNAV guidance must be flown by 500’ AGL
Some MELs say to check the CFDS for warnings..
What is this?
The CDFS is the centralized fault display system, that can be found on the ATSU menu
Can we be dispatched without gps?
No. We have an agreement with ATC requiring us to have at least one GPS
What is RNAV1? Where can we find this?
RNAV1 signifies the SID or STAR requires better than 1 mile accuracy. This is found in the notes on the specific SID or STAR.
ADIRUs be off for >___ for a full alignment? Quick Align?
how long does a full alignment take?
When do we need to do a full alignment?
(Checked February 11, 2023)
Greater than 5 seconds for a full alignment.
quick alignment is ADIRU is selected off then on in less then 5 seconds.
Full Alignment Takes 10 minutes
FIGCC
First flight of the day
Intl & Alaska
GPS N/A and flight > 3 hours
Crew change
Class II
Engine Failure at cruise! What do you do?
MCT thrust
Auto thrust off
Fly Green Dot
Check MCDU for optimum altitude
Set that altitude
Advise ATC, SOC
Land at nearest suitable airport with good weather.
Auto lands are prohibited when?
Braking action less than medium
Is the TLR required?
No… IF you have AWP.
But yes, if there is a special runway entry code or special NOTAMs for runways
What paperwork do you need prior to block out?
From the release you need the flight plan, the TLR or AWP, Weather, notams,
and the rampers will give you the weight and balance manifest.
You start engine #1 at the gate with air cart.
Ramp crew loads another bag and closes the cargo door.
They say you’re clear on number two engine.
Why would you not want to start the engine immediately?
Because operation of the cargo door inhibits the PTU from the time the cargo door moves, until 40 seconds after cargo door operation. The PTU always does a self test during 2nd engine start. So, if the PTU is still inhibited from cargo door operation, and you attempt to start the second engine within 40 seconds, the PTU test will fail. You’ll get an ECAM.
Explain our job for the security sweep? (1/27/2023)
In the past we were to verify the security sweep was done before first flight of the day and international flights.
BUT
The pilots no longer have any responsibility over the security sweep. If the paper is in the cockpit, you can sign it. But it’s not your responsibility.
If you forget to arm the spoilers before takeoff,
and you have an RTO,
Will the ground spoilers still deploy?
1: do you take off configuration button will yell at you. So it’s hard to take off without the spoilers armed.
ELAC quantity and duties
ELAC: 2
Pitch (Elevator control)
Abnormal Attitude
Roll
Autopilot Orders
Aileron Control and Droop
SEC quantity and functions
SEC: 3
Pitch (Elevator Control)
Abnormal Attitude
Roll
Spoilers
Speed brake
When must you hear “100 above”?
On every approach with minimums. You must hear or say “100 above” and PF response must be “checked”
What provides the function and when?
Reactive Windshear
Predictive Windshear
Reactive Windshear is computed by the FAC and AOA. it is active from lift off until 1300 feet AGL, and then 1,300’ agl to 50’ agl
Predictive Windshear is driven by our predictive windshield radar.
It is active on takeoff up to 2300 feet AGL and on landing, 2,300’ until 50 feet AGL
