Vocational Studies Terms

Question 1

Define autonomy

Answer 1

The ability to be self-governing and self-determining and to make competent decisions about oneself on the basis of reason

Important aspect of care. Health carer must respect patient autonomy.

Question 2

Define informed consent.

Answer 2

A voluntary decision and agreement to undergo a recommended procedure. Requires relevant info disclosure, understanding and competence. Must be done in a non-coercive manner.

Question 3

Define Implied consent.

Answer 3

Agreement that is presumed due to the patients actions and behaviour.

Question 4

Define competence.

Answer 4

The ability to understand and retain information about a procedure and make a reasoned decision based on it and communicate that decision.

Question 5

In Scotland what is the age at which capacity is assumed?

Answer 5

16 - Gillick competence

Question 6

Define voluntary.

Answer 6

Done based on your own free will.

Question 7

Define confidentiality.

Answer 7

Right of the patient to privacy. Information about the patient is not shared with those who are not involved in the patient’s care.

Question 8

Define disclosure.

Answer 8

The process of revealing and making something evident. Should not breach confidentiality but there are exceptions.

Question 9

In what circumstances could patient confidentiality be breached?

Answer 9

If another patient’s welfare was at risk.

If a court order was issued.

Question 10

What does the data protection act give patients access to?

Answer 10

Computerised medical records from 1987.

Question 11

What does the access to health records act?

Answer 11

Gives patients the right to hand written medical records from 1991.

Question 12

What is futility?

Answer 12

Non beneficial or useless treatment that are unlikely to be successful and could be harmful or burdensome.

Question 13

What is utility?

Answer 13

Treatment that is useful, tolerable and beneficial based on good evidence that indicated high chance of success.

Question 14

Define beneficence.

Answer 14

Doing good for the patient.

Question 15

Define non-malfeasance.

Answer 15

Doing no harm to the patient.

Question 16

Define cure.

Answer 16

Medical treatment used to eliminate underlying pathology and restore health.

Question 17

Define palliative.

Answer 17

Relieving the symptoms of a disease without affecting a cure.

Question 18

Define positive rights.

Answer 18

A right that requires active support from others I.e education (must be provided by someone)

Question 19

Define negative rights.

Answer 19

Requires non interference on the part of others. I.e to walk unmolested down the street.

Question 20

Define absolute/inalienable/natural right.

Answer 20

Founded on unarguable principles. Such rights are non-negotiable and cannot be breached for any reason.

Question 21

Define contingent right.

Answer 21

Based on a decision to uphold a certain behaviour. Can be used to bargain with and infringed upon without sanction if there is good reason to do so.

Question 22

Define competing rights.

Answer 22

Occurs when more than one right is at stake and and only one can be upheld.

Question 23

Do foetuses have rights?

Answer 23

Foetuses have no rights until they are born.

Question 24

What is the placebo effect?

Answer 24

Effect attributable to the expectation the regimen will have on the effect.

Question 25

What is the Hawthorne effect?

Answer 25

The effect that being under study has on the person being studied. Being studied influences behaviour.

Question 26

What is the halo effect?

Answer 26

The effect of the manner attention and caring of a provider has on the patient regardless of the medical service.

Question 27

What is a randomised control trial?

Answer 27

Appropriate sample of a representative study population. Participants randomly assigned the treatment or a control. Double blind design. Aims to reduce bias.

Question 28

What is a pragmatic trial?

Answer 28

Compares outcome everybody who entered the study, not just those completed the treatment. Studies effectiveness of treatment as a policy.

Question 29

Define double blind.

Answer 29

Patient and administrator both don’t know which patients are in the control group and which are in the test group.

Question 30

Define single blind.

Answer 30

Patient doesn’t know if he/she is in the control group or the treatment group.

Question 31

Define triple blind.

Answer 31

Patient, administrator and analyser of statistics don’t know which patient is in the control group and which are in the test group.

Question 32

Define quadruple blind.

Answer 32

Only the author of the study knows who gets the treatment and who gets the control and they’re not involved in data collection or analysis.

Question 33

Explanatory analysis.

Answer 33

Recognises that treatment cannot be expected to work if patients do not receive it.

Question 34

What are research ethics?

Answer 34

The rules and standards governing a scientific investigation.

Question 35

What do an ethics committee do?

Answer 35

Approve or reject a trial based on the expected effects of the patient’s physical, social and emotional health.

Question 36

What is meta-analysis?

Answer 36

The analysis of a combination of many similar trials to reach a conclusion.

Question 37

What is evidence based medicine?

Answer 37

Process by which most rigorous, up-to-date evidence is put into clinical practice.

Question 38

What is a critical appraisal?

Answer 38

Careful evaluation of journals for validity and usefulness. Base on titles, authors, summary, site and type it trial.

Question 39

Define vulnerability.

Answer 39

Patient is exposed, usually due to an unfamiliar environment.

Question 40

Define paternalism.

Answer 40

A policy of treating people in a fatherly manner especially by providing for their needs without giving them rights and responsibilities.

Question 41

What is the doctrine of the double effect?

Answer 41

A principle by where an act with a good intention would inevitably result in a good outcome and a bad outcome.

Question 42

What is bodily integrity?

Answer 42

An individual has the right to make a decision about their own body.

Question 43

What is personhood?

Answer 43

Ability to be rational, sentience accompanied by intelligence, memory of ongoing or continuous self, informed, capable of understanding and able to assert judgement.

Question 44

What does the 1967 abortion act permit?

Answer 44

Abortion to be carried out within 24 weeks of pregnancy by a trained medical professional.

Question 45

What are the 4 criteria that can justify an abortion?

Answer 45

Termination necessary to prevent grave personal injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman.

The continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk to the life of the pregnant woman, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated

There is a substantial risk that if the child were born it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped.

Continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk greater than if the pregnancy were terminated of injury to the physical or mental health of th pregnancy woman or any existing children in her family.