Vocab Terms

Question 1

Magical Thinking

Answer 1

Magical thinking is when a client believes one event happens as the result of another, with no plausible link for causation. For example: I ate Captain Crunch for breakfast, so it is going to storm today.

Question 2

Ideas of reference

Answer 2

Ideas of Reference are when a client believes coincidences have personal significance ( the idea that everything that happens directly relates to himself/herself). For example: A person thinks every person they pass on the street is talking about them.

Question 3

Looseness of association

Answer 3

is when a client’s responses lack logical sequence. They often do not relate to the interviewer’s questions, or one paragraph, sentence, or phrase is not logically connected to those that occur before or after.

Question 4

Reframing

Answer 4

taking the client’s statement that her boyfriend is always around to make sure she eats and seeing it in a different context (reframing it) to him doing so because he cares about her.

Question 5

Collaboration

Answer 5

Working with the client

Question 6

Clarification

Answer 6

Clarification techniques are methods used in communication to ensure understanding and to clear up any ambiguities or confusion. These techniques involve asking questions, summarizing, or rephrasing information to confirm that the message has been accurately received and interpreted. By employing clarification techniques, communicators can bridge gaps in understanding and enhance overall interaction quality.

Question 7

Assimilation

Answer 7

is the process of taking in new information and incorporating it into our existing ideas.

Question 8

Socratic questioning

Answer 8

Clinical and forensic psychologist Dr. Leslie Dobson tells us that Socratic questioning is a communication style that allows a person to stimulate another person’s thinking through open-ended questions.

The questions are meant to push someone “slightly outside of their comfort level, so that they have to think about their thoughts, behaviors and feelings, building their awareness, and in turn allow them to feel more in control.” By asking thought provoking questions, we can have deeper interactions. This is helpful in settings both clinical and casual.

Question 9

Congruence

Answer 9

as ‘genuineness, honesty exhibited by the counsellor as an essential part of her person and her work; likewise, the genuineness of the client’.

Question 10

According to Piaget, the term accommodation refers to when a person:

Answer 10

Alters existing schemas based on new information

Question 11

MMPI

Answer 11

MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2RF).
How it’s administered: The MMPI is a 40-90 minute objective test used only with adults. The test asks the subject to answer around 550 true or false statements, depending on the version of the test being used

What it measures: This test is used to assess psychopathology and personality characteristics.
The MMPI consists of clinical scales 0 through 9 which include: 0 social introversion, 1
hypochondriasis, 2 depression, 3 hysteria, 4 psychopathic deviate or measuring one’s need for
control and respect for society’s rules, 5 masculine/feminine behaviors or interests, 6 paranoia,
7 psychasthenia or anxiety levels and tendencies, 8 schizophrenia, and 9 hypomania

Question 12

Beery VMI

Answer 12

BEERY VMI (Beery-Buktenica Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration), helps assess visual-motor skills in children and adults.

Question 13

TOWL-3

Answer 13

TOWL-3 (Test of Written Language) is a diagnostic test of written expression used with children ages 9-11

Question 14

MCMI-IV

Answer 14

Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory-IV

How it’s administered: The MCMI-IV is a 175 true or false question self-report instrument, used only with adults.

What it measures: The test is designed to assess DSM-5 related disorders. The test measures 15 personality scales (Schizoid, Avoidant, Melancholic, Dependent, Histrionic, Turbulent,
Narcissistic, Antisocial, Sadistic, Compulsive, Negativistic, Masochistic, Schizotypal, Borderline,
and Paranoid), and 10 clinical syndrome scales (Anxiety, Somatoform, Bipolar: Manic, Persistent
Depressive, Alcohol Use, Drug Use, PTSD, Thought Disorder, Major Depression, and Delusional
Disorder).

Question 15

WISC-R

Answer 15

WISC-R (Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children) is an intelligence test for children between the ages of 6 and 16.

Question 16

WAIS-IV

Answer 16

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale—Fourth Edition

How it’s administered: The WAIS-4 is an adult (ages 16+) intelligence scale that is individually
administered by a test administrator and takes 90 to 120 minutes to complete. It includes 10
core subtests, and 5 supplemental subtests.

What it measures: The test measures one’s cognitive ability or intelligence reflected in verbal and performance abilities. The test assesses four major components of intelligence: verbal comprehension, perceptual reasoning, working memory, and processing speed

Question 17

Content validity

Answer 17

Content validity evaluates how well an instrument (like a test) covers all relevant parts of the construct it aims to measure. Here, a construct is a theoretical concept, theme, or idea: in particular, one that cannot usually be measured directly.

Question 18

Face validity

Answer 18

is about whether a test appears to measure what it’s supposed to measure. This type of validity is concerned with whether a measure seems relevant and appropriate for what it’s assessing on the surface.

Question 19

Concurrent validity

Answer 19

Concurrent validity is a measure of how well a particular test correlates with a previously validated measure.

Question 20

Criterion validity

Answer 20

evaluates how accurately a test measures the outcome it was designed to measure. An outcome can be a disease, behavior, or performance. Concurrent validity measures tests and criterion variables in the present, while predictive validity measures those in the future.

Question 21

Stages of change:

Answer 21

Precontemplation – failing to recognize the need for change
Contemplation – seriously considering the need for change
Preparation – making small changes
Action – exercising for less than six months
Maintenance – regular exercise lasting longer than six months
Termination

Question 22

Steps of Community Organizing

Answer 22

Step 1: Integrate into the community
Step 2: Identify the issue impacting the community
Step 3: Identify individuals and create core group
Step 4: Set goals and objectives
Step 5: Create an action plan to meet goals
Step 6: Execute and monitor the action plan
Step 7: Evaluate the efect of the action plan on the stated goals

Question 23

Lobbying

Answer 23

Lobbying is the process of influencing public policy. Lobbyists are professional advocates that
are hired to represent specific causes and interest groups in order to be that group’s voice to
legislators and members of congress.
● Lobbyists engage in discussions with legislators to gain their support for a bill.
● The lobbyist brings a typed summary of the issue and reviews key points with the
legislator. Additional materials can be provided as needed.

Question 24

Coalitions

Answer 24

A coalition is a group of people or organizations who share a common interest and work
collaboratively to achieve a shared goal. Coalitions can be created to achieve a specific goal and
then part ways, or they can become permanent organizations of their own.

Question 25

Countertransference

Answer 25

A set of conscious or unconscious emotional reactions to a client
experienced by a therapist. These feelings usually originate in the therapist’s own developmental
conflicts or past. When this occurs, a good first step is to seek supervision (not just colleague
consultation, as colleagues may not have adequate training to know how to respond to this).

Question 26

Transference

Answer 26

The emotional reactions that are assigned to current relationships but originated
in earlier experiences (often presenting as the feelings a client has toward a therapist). When a client experiences this interaction with the therapist, it can be discussed and used
therapeutically.

Question 27

Ego Syntonic

Answer 27

Traits of personality, thought, behavior, and values that are incorporated by the
individual who considers them acceptable and consistent with his or her overall true self.

Question 28

Reflection/Reflective Listening

Answer 28

When using reflection, the social worker is accurately
describing the client’s verbal and nonverbal clues, listening and responding to not just the
content, but the feelings of the client. It involves communicating that you accurately sense the
world as they are experiencing it. Reflection is like holding up a mirror in counseling; you are
reflecting back the essence of what the client has just communicated (verbally and nonverbally)
to you.

Question 29

Ego Dystonic

Answer 29

Traits of personality, behavior, thought, or orientation considered to be
unacceptable, repugnant, or inconsistent with the individual’s perceptions—conscious or
unconscious—of himself or herself.

Question 30

Interpretation

Answer 30

The therapist’s clinical impression of the meaning behind a
behavior/communication. It goes beyond the explicit and observable client content and involves
communicating an inferred component with the intention of adding new knowledge,
understanding, or meaning.

Question 31

Reframing

Answer 31

A technique used to help clients see their situation in a new light or from a different
perspective they haven’t thought of.

Question 32

Summary

Answer 32

Condensing the main points of what the client is saying or feeling in a session. It
covers the primary components of the session so the client has an opportunity to recap key
points of the session before it ends.

Question 33

Confrontation

Answer 33

Addressing and bringing awareness to something the client may be overlooking,
avoiding, or denying. We would not confront a client until we have established rapport with
them. When a client is engaging in therapy interfering behavior, confronting may be necessary

Question 34

Clarification

Answer 34

This is used when the client makes a vague or ambiguous statement in order to
understand what they mean.

Question 35

Probing questions

Answer 35

These are questions the social worker asks to help the client dig deeper into
their thoughts, feelings, and opinions. This process can promote critical thinking and
self-reflection

Question 36

Capacity Building

Answer 36

The process of improving an individual or organization’s abilities, skills,
processes, and resources in order to expand, grow, and fulfill its mission.

Question 37

Social Justice

Answer 37

A social work ethical principle that involves working toward everyone having the
same economic, political and social rights, protections, and opportunities

Question 38

Board of Directors

Answer 38

A committee responsible for significant decisions and direction within an
organization (including mission and vision, funding, staffing of high level positions, and strategic
planning).

Question 39

Task force

Answer 39

A task force is any group or organization that is assembled for or assigned to
complete a specific task. On the exam, assembling a task force is something you may see
around community organizing or larger scale program development

Question 40

Program Evaluation

Answer 40

Program evaluation evaluates a program’s effectiveness. Data gathered
from an evaluation can be used to improve the services the program delivers.
● Overall program evaluation (also known as an ‘outcome evaluation’ or ‘summative
evaluation’) looks at the results of a program (whether or not it met the stated goals of
the program).
● Process evaluation analyzes the implementation of the program to determine whether
each step of the program was executed effectively

Question 41

Coalition

Answer 41

A coalition brings together people/groups/factions/political parties that join their
resources and manpower to work towards a specific change/goal that individually they would be
unable to achieve. These tend to be larger than a task force; there can be smaller
subcommittees (task forces) that are grouped by an area of specialty and are assigned to
complete specific tasks within a coalition.

Question 42

Program Development

Answer 42

Program development involves the planning, development, and
execution of a new program or service to meet an unmet need.

Question 43

Policy Analysis

Answer 43

The evaluation of a policy to understand what led to the creation and
implementation of the policy and how it will impact various people and communities.

Question 44

Community Organizing:

Answer 44

Involves engaging with and empowering members of a community to
address a common problem and bring about positive change within the community. This
involves coming alongside the community and addressing issues identified by members of the
community.

Question 45

501(c)5:

Answer 45

A political action committee (PAC). Unlike a 501(c)3, it is not exempt from paying
federal taxes
● A political action committee is an organization that raises money privately to influence
elections or legislation.

Question 46

501(c)4:

Answer 46

A lobbying organization. Unlike a 501(c)3, it is not exempt from paying federal taxes
● Lobbying is a form of advocacy that aims to influence decisions made by the
government. Lobbying often involves direct face-to face contact with politicians

Question 47

Rationalization

Answer 47

Rationalization is a defense process by which plausible reasons justify an action or
opinion
A person is using rationalization when, after getting turned down for a date, says, “I’m
better off without them. That person is really snobby anyway

Question 48

Denial

Answer 48

Denial distorts/refuses to accept reality (acting like whatever happened never
happened).
● Denial and repression are very similar. Repression is like forgetting something bad
happened. Denial is acting like something didn’t happen.

Question 49

Repression

Answer 49

Repression refuses to let unacceptable impulses into conscious awareness.
● A person using repression might feel sexually attracted toward members of the same
sex, but pushes away this intolerable thought from consciousness only to later dream
about such sexual impulses
Repression is like forgetting something bad
happened.

Question 50

Displacement

Answer 50

Displacement is a defense mechanism in which affect is transferred from one object to
another.
● Unlike projection, displacement typically has 3 parties/situations involved: so there’s
person A, who has the feeling about Person/Situation B, but doesn’t feel they can
express it directly, so instead they take it out on Person C.

Question 51

Projection

Answer 51

Projection places unacceptable feelings from the person feeling them onto another
person.
● Projection is a two-way street: there’s Person A, who has the feeling about Person B,
and instead of expressing that feeling, they accuse Person B of having that feeling
instead

A person has gained weight, but instead of acknowledging this, they tell their friend it
looks like they (the friend) has gained weight.

Question 52

Sublimation

Answer 52

A person using sublimation will displace unacceptable instincts for constructive and
socially acceptable behaviors.

Question 53

501(c)3:

Answer 53

A non-profit, tax-exempt organization

Question 54

Projective Identification

Answer 54

Projective identification takes projection a step further, with the person who has been
projected onto believing the projection

So if we look at the final example of projection (a person has gained weight, but instead
of acknowledging this, they tell their friend it looks like they-the friend-has gained weight.
▪ This becomes projective identification if the friend begins believing they’ve gained
weight, despite not having gained weight. They may go on to behave in way that aligs
with the projection either because of their own insecurities or because the person
projecting has controlled the situation in such a way to make them believe it. (So for
the example above, the person may begin eating more and actually end up gaining
weight).

Question 55

Erikson’s Developmental Theory

Answer 55

● Based on Freud’s emphasis on unconscious motivation.
● Greater emphasis on the ego.
● Assumes that people are basically rational and that behavior is largely due to ego
functioning.
● Each of the 8 stages involves a psychosocial task that is to be mastered. If not
mastered, the person still continues to develop, but the ego is damaged and subsequent
stages will be affected.
● We give the person until the very END of the age range to have resolved the conflict. So
we wouldn’t say they failed a stage until they had reached the end of that stage (age
range) and moved on to the next stage.

Question 56

Introjection/Internalization

Answer 56

● Introjection is the internalization of outside events or characteristics of other people.
● A victim may use introjection to identify with the aggressor’s behaviors to help protect
themself.
● A person uses introjection when putting on their seat belt before driving away in their car
because they have internalized the voice of previous authority figures who have told
them to buckle their seatbelt while in the car

Question 57

Asceticism

Answer 57

● Asceticism is characterized by rigor and self-denial.
● An adult uses asceticism when she refuses to eat or sleep until a major work project is
complete.

Question 58

Reaction Formation

Answer 58

● Reaction formation is a process by which unacceptable impulses are expressed as their
opposites.
● Reaction formation helps release anxiety and guilt associated with the true impulse.
● A supervisee who despises their supervisor uses reaction formation when being overly
nice to their supervisor.

Question 59

Undoing

Answer 59

● Undoing is a process by which we avoid being punished for undesirable thoughts or
actions. We ‘undo’ a threatening thought, feeling, or behavior by engaging in a contrary
behavior. Unlike reaction formation where they are trying to hide their true feelings, with
undoing they are actually trying to undo a thought, feeling, or behavior they have already
had (like a person being overly nice to a person she had just insulted in her mind)

Question 60

Intellectualization

Answer 60

● Intellectualization is a process by which content is separated from repressed affect.
● A person uses intellectualization when speaking of his traumatic childhood as if reading
a scripted story.

Question 61

Piaget’s Developmental Theory

Answer 61

● Based on the premise that people actively construct higher levels of knowledge.
● Motivation for cognitive development occurs when there is a state of ‘disequilibrium’
brought on by a discrepancy between the person’s current understanding of the world
and reality.
● Equilibrium is then achieved through a combination of assimilation (incorporation of
new information into existing schemas) and accommodation (modification of existing
schemas), which both lead to adaptation.

Question 62

Identification

Answer 62

● Identification is a process by which qualities of an external object are absorbed into
one’s personality.
● You want to think about introjection/internalization and identification as being very
similar and on a continuum - introjection/internalization can lead to identification over
time.
▪ Because they are so similar/connected, there is almost no chance of the test wanting
you to be able to discriminate between the two. It’s more likely that you’ll have one of
them as an answer choice with 3 others that aren’t so similar, or that the question will
use the term and you’ll have to choose an answer that reflects the closest definition.
● A Bruce Lee fan uses identification when becoming a disciplined martial art champion.
● A young person is using identification when deciding to follow in their father’s footsteps
and becomes a lawyer.

Question 63

Sensorimotor Stage:

Answer 63

Sensorimotor Stage: (birth to 2 years) Infants and young children learn primarily through
sensory input and action. There are 3 achievements during this stage:
1. Object Permanence allows the child to recognize that objects continue to exist
even when they are out of sight. Ex: A child searches for a toy that is hidden
under a blanket, even if the toy cannot be seen.
2. Causality is when the child recognizes that certain events cause other events. Ex:
A child realizes that they can use their hand to pick up and move a toy to a
different spot.
3. Symbolic Thought is when the child begins to use language (symbols) to think
about actions before performing them. Ex: A child begins to understand that
words represent an object such as a dog or cat

Question 64

Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt:

Answer 64

Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt: (18 months to 3 years) The toddler’s psychosocial task is
to achieve a sense of independence over their own body in the context of relationships with
primary caregivers. If a child experiences autonomy (in walking, exploring, etc.), they will gain
confidence and pride, which then become ego strengths. If they’re over controlled or prohibited
from exploring or becoming autonomous, they may feel doubtful of their own abilities and
experience excessive shame.

Question 65

Preoperational Stage:

Answer 65

(2 to 7 years) A key characteristic of this stage is the symbolic
function, which allows the child to learn through the use of mental images, language and other
symbols that represent objects that aren’t present. Children during this stage engage in
symbolic play and can solve problems mentally.

Question 66

Concrete Operational Stage:

Answer 66

(7 to 11 years) Children are capable of performing mental
operations using logic and abstract thinking. This allows children to classify and problem-solve
in more sophisticated ways.

Question 67

Formal Operational Stage:

Answer 67

(11+ years) During this stage, the adolescent or young adult is
able to think abstractly, hypothetically, and in a relativistic way. Adolescents can develop
competing hypotheses about a problem and strategies for testing the hypotheses. There is an
increase in ‘thinking about thinking’ and some return to egocentrism during this stage

Question 68

Trust vs. Mistrust:

Answer 68

(0-18 months) The psychosocial task is to achieve a balance between trust
and mistrust. Basic trust develops in the context of the relationship between the infant and
primary caregiver and forms the foundation for all other stages. Failure to master the task can
result in pervasive mistrust of others OR dependent, unthinking, rigid adulation of others

Question 69

Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt:

Answer 69

Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt: (18 months to 3 years) The toddler’s psychosocial task is
to achieve a sense of independence over their own body in the context of relationships with
primary caregivers. If a child experiences autonomy (in walking, exploring, etc.), they will gain
confidence and pride, which then become ego strengths. If they’re over controlled or prohibited
from exploring or becoming autonomous, they may feel doubtful of their own abilities and
experience excessive shame.

Question 70

initiative vs. Guilt:

Answer 70

initiative vs. Guilt: (3-6 years) The child’s psychosocial task is to set goals and carry out plans
without infringing on the rights of others. Exerting too much control (or taking action that does
infringe on the rights of others) results in disapproval from adults and subsequent feelings of
guilt. Those feelings of guilt then prohibit the child (or adult) from effectively making plans or
setting goals in the future.

Question 71

Industry vs. Inferiority:

Answer 71

Industry vs. Inferiority: (6-12 years) The child’s psychosocial task is to develop a sense of
competence by beginning school and learning to do things on their own. This instills a sense of
pride and confidence. The peer group begins to be of greater significance and contributes to
self-esteem. If adults don’t support the child in their initiative, a sense of inferiority may develop
where the child doubts their abilities, making it more difficult to reach their potential

Question 72

Identity vs. Role Confusion:

Answer 72

Identity vs. Role Confusion: (12-18 years) The adolescent’s task is to learn the roles that they
will occupy as an adult while developing a sense of personal identity. Peer relationships help
them to explore various identities. Success in this stage leads to fidelity where the adolescent
feels comfortable with others who have varying values, while remaining true to their own
identity. If the adolescent fails to develop a sense of identity, then they may feel role confusion
or a weakened sense of self.

Question 73

Intimacy vs. Isolation:

Answer 73

Intimacy vs. Isolation: (18-40 years) The psychosocial task is to begin forming intimate
relationships with others. An individual develops comfortable relationships with a sense of
commitment and care. Failure to develop intimacy can lead to isolation, loneliness, and a feeling
of exclusion

Question 74

Generativity vs. Stagnation:

Answer 74

Generativity vs. Stagnation: (40-65 years) The psychosocial task during this stage is to
participate in activities that give the individual a sense of purpose such as a career, raising
children, and creating positive changes that benefit others. If an adult doesn’t feel a sense of
purpose, they may feel little connection to others and a sense of uselessness or rejection.

Question 75

Ego Integrity vs. Despair:

Answer 75

Ego Integrity vs. Despair: (65-death) The psychosocial task during this stage is for older
adults to look back on life and feel a sense of fulfillment and accomplishment. This wisdom
allows them to face the end of life and accept successes and failures, aging, and loss. Those
who see their lives as unproductive or with many regrets may develop a sense of despair and
guilt that can lead to depression and/or hopelessness.

Question 76

Mahler Stages of Development

Answer 76

Mahler Stages of Development
According to Mahler, the Object Relations theory refers to the way a child’s Ego becomes
organized over the first 3 1/2 years of life. During this time the child struggles between the self
and others. The theory focuses on the reciprocal relationship between a mother and her infant
and its effect on the infant’s development of sense of self that occurs in three stages.
Individuals are born with the drive to develop a sense of self and others along with the
motivation to build interpersonal relationships.

Question 77

Mahler Stages of Development: Austic Stage

Answer 77

Autistic Stage (newborn-1 month): The infant is focused purely on themself; they are
unresponsive to external stimuli

Question 78

Mahler: Symbitotic Stage:

Answer 78

Symbiotic Stage (1-5 months): infant begins to perceive the ‘need-satisfying object’.
During this stage, the mother’s ego functions for the infant. The infant begins to
understand that the mother is a separate being from themself.

Question 79

Mahler: Seperation0individuation stage

Answer 79

Separation-Individuation Stage (5-24 months+) During separation, the infant begins
to develop an understanding of the boundaries of self and they start to see their mother
as a separate individual. During individuation the child begins to develop a sense of self.
Within separation-individuation there are four sub-stages.
○ Differentiation Substage (5-9 months): The infant’s attention shifts from being
inwardly focused to outwardly focused. (i.e. crawling)
○ Practicing Substage (9-14 months): The infant continues to separate from their
caretaker; their autonomous ego functions become more apparent. (i.e. walking,
playing)
○ Rapprochement Substage (14-24 months): The infant begins to want to act
independently. They will move away from their mother, but regularly come back to
ensure she is still there.
○ Object Constancy Substage (after 24 months): The infant internalizes their
mother and begins to understand that their mother still exists for them despite
her absence

Question 80

Depressive Disorders medication

Answer 80

SSRI:
● Prozac (Fluoxetine)
● Celexa (Citalopram)
● Zoloft (Sertraline)
● Lexapro (Escitalopram)
● Paxil (Paroxetine)
● Luvox (Fluvoxamine)
NDRI:
● Wellbutrin (Bupropion)
○ Other brand name Bupropion medications include Zyban and Aplenzin
○ All three can also be used as a smoking cessation aid.

Question 81

Anxiety Disorders medications

Answer 81

● Valium (Diazepam)
● Xanax (Alprazolam)
● Ativan (Lorazepam)
● Klonopin (Clonazepam)

Benzodiazepines

Question 82

Mood Disorders medication

Answer 82

● Lithium
● Depakote (Divalproex Sodium)
● Lamictal (Lamotrigine)
● Abilify (Aripiprazole)

Question 83

ADHD medication

Answer 83

● Ritalin/Concerta (Methylphenidate)
● Adderall (Amphetamine)
● Dexedrine (Dextroamphetamine

Question 84

Schizophrenia medication

Answer 84

● Haldol (Haloperidol)
● Thorazine (Chlorpromazine)
● Seroquel (Quitiapine)
● Risperdal (Risperidone)
● Zyprexa (Olanzapine)
● Clozaril (Clozapine)

Question 85

factitious disorder

Answer 85

is a serious mental disorder in which someone deceives others by appearing sick, by purposely getting sick or by self-injury. Factitious disorder also can happen when family members or caregivers falsely present others, such as children, as being ill, injured or impaired.

Factitious disorder symptoms can range from mild (slight exaggeration of symptoms) to severe (previously called Munchausen syndrome). The person may make up symptoms or even tamper with medical tests to convince others that treatment, such as high-risk surgery, is needed.

Question 86

Malingering

Answer 86

Malingerers engage in many of the same activities as people with factitious disorder. They exaggerate or make up symptoms of an illness, either physical or psychiatric. Whereas factitious disorder is a mental health condition with no clear cause, malingerers do it for personal gain. They have clear external motivations that drive their behavior. Some reasons why people malinger include:

Insurance fraud or other form of financial gain
To get time off work
To get prescriptions for controlled medications
Shirking obligations for military service
Reducing work obligations
An attempt to avoid prison time

Malingering itself is not a mental illness. In some cases, however, people who adopt malingering behavior do have a mental illness.

Question 87

Korsakoff syndrome

Answer 87

Korsakoff syndrome is a chronic neuropsychiatric syndrome that is caused by the deficiency of thiamine, also known as vitamin B1. This deficiency leads to damage to multiple areas of the brain, which in turn cause amnesia and confusion. Korsakoff syndrome is most commonly seen in the context of chronic alcohol abuse and thought to be on the spectrum with Wernicke encephalopathy, however, Wernicke encephalopathy is acute and often reversible while Korsakoff syndrome is chronic and may be irreversible.

Question 88

securely attached

Answer 88

In addition, securely attached children show balanced behavioral strategies, expressing their need for both intimacy and autonomy. Autonomy is particularly significant as it facilitates interaction with the environment.

Question 88

anxiously avoidant

Answer 88

Anxious-avoidant attachment may also be called fearful-avoidant attachment or disorganized attachment. It combines aspects of both the anxious and avoidant attachment styles. People with anxious-avoidant attachment styles or attachment anxiety may experience the urge to connect vulnerably with others. However, they might also have an intense fear of both intimacy and vulnerability. Those who are in relationships tend to struggle forming healthy emotional bonds. They may enter a relationship feeling emotionally present but as the relationship continues and more commitment is required, they could become anxious, distressed, or distant.

Question 89

anxiously attachment

Answer 89

Anxious attachment is one of four types of attachment styles. People who have developed an anxious attachment may have difficulty feeling secure in relationships. As young children, they may cling to caregivers or become inconsolable when a caregiver leaves.

or

is a pattern of relating to others characterized by a strong desire for closeness coupled with an intense fear of rejection or abandonment. Individuals with this attachment style often find themselves caught in a tumultuous emotional dance, craving intimacy while simultaneously pushing others away out of fear.

Question 90

Somatic Symptom Disorder

Answer 90

Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by an extreme focus on physical symptoms — such as pain or fatigue — that causes major emotional distress and problems functioning. You may or may not have another diagnosed medical condition associated with these symptoms, but your reaction to the symptoms is not normal.

You often think the worst about your symptoms and frequently seek medical care, continuing to search for an explanation even when other serious conditions have been excluded. Health concerns may become such a central focus of your life that it’s hard to function, sometimes leading to disability.

If you have somatic symptom disorder, you may experience significant emotional and physical distress. Treatment can help ease symptoms, help you cope and improve your quality of life.

Question 91

Illness anxiety disorder,

Answer 91

Illness anxiety disorder, sometimes called hypochondriasis or health anxiety, is worrying excessively that you are or may become seriously ill. You may have no physical symptoms. Or you may believe that normal body sensations or minor symptoms are signs of severe illness, even though a thorough medical exam doesn’t reveal a serious medical condition.

You may experience extreme anxiety that body sensations, such as muscle twitching or fatigue, are associated with a specific, serious illness. This excessive anxiety — rather than the physical symptom itself — results in severe distress that can disrupt your life.

Illness anxiety disorder is a long-term condition that can fluctuate in severity. It may increase with age or during times of stress. But psychological counseling (psychotherapy) and sometimes medication can help ease your worries.

Question 92

Acute stress disorder

Answer 92

The main difference between acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is the length of the symptoms.

Acute stress disorder involves stress reactions that happen between three days and four weeks following a traumatic event. Stress reactions lasting longer than four weeks may meet the criteria for PTSD.

Question 93

hypersomnolence disorder

Answer 93

In people with hypersomnolence, excessive sleepiness is not due to another underlying medical disorder or medication.

The primary symptom of hypersomnolence is excessive sleepiness, even though a person is getting 7 hours of sleep a night. Other symptoms include:

falling asleep several times during the day
taking naps to combat the sleepiness but not waking up refreshed
sleeping more than 9 hours but not feeling rested
having difficulty waking up from sleep
feeling confused or combative while trying to wake up

Excessive sleeping may cause problems at work, school, or for other daily activities.

Question 94

Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder

Answer 94

Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder (more commonly known as Stuttering) is a communication disorder characterized by a disturbance in the normal fluency and time patterning of speech that is inappropriate for an individual’s age. The disorder is characterized by frequent repetitions or prolongations of sounds or syllables. Other speech deficits include: (1) single words that are broken up (e.g. - pauses within a word), (2) audible or silent blocks (i.e. - filled or unfilled pauses in speech), (3) circumlocutions (i.e. - word substitutions to avoid problematic words), (4) words produced with excess physical tension, and (5) monosyllabic whole-word repetitions (e.g., ‘He-he-he-he is here“).

Question 95

Specific Learning Disorder

Answer 95

To be diagnosed with a specific learning disorder (SLD), a person must meet four criteria.

Have difficulties in at least one of the following areas for at least six months despite targeted help:
    Difficulty reading (e.g., inaccurate, slow and only with much effort).
    Difficulty understanding the meaning of what is read.
    Difficulty with spelling.
    Difficulty with written expression (e.g., problems with grammar, punctuation or organization).
    Difficulty understanding number concepts, number facts or calculation.
    Difficulty with mathematical reasoning (e.g., applying math concepts or solving math problems).
Have academic skills that are substantially below what is expected for the child’s age and cause problems in school, work or everyday activities.
    This criterion requires  academic skill challenges to be based on standardized achievement measures and “comprehensive clinical assessment.”
The difficulties start during school-age even if some people don’t experience significant problems until adulthood (when academic, work and day-to-day demands are greater).
Learning difficulties are not due to other conditions, such as intellectual disability, vision or hearing problems, a neurological condition (e.g., pediatric stroke), adverse conditions such as economic or environmental disadvantage, lack of instruction, or difficulties speaking/understanding the language.

With impairment in reading (dyslexia)
With impairment in written expression (dysgraphia)
With impairment in mathematics (dyscalculia)

Question 96

Prolonged Grief Disorder

Answer 96

An individual with prolonged grief disorder may experience intense longing for the person who has died or preoccupation with thoughts of that person. In children and adolescents, the preoccupation may focus on the circumstances around the death. Additionally, the individual may experience significant distress or problems performing daily activities at home, work, or other important areas. The persistent grief is disabling and affects everyday functioning in a way that typical grieving does not.

For a diagnosis of prolonged grief disorder, the loss of a loved one had to have occurred at least a year ago for adults, and at least 6 months ago for children and adolescents. In addition, the grieving individual must have experienced at least three of the symptoms below nearly every day for at least the last month prior to the diagnosis.

Question 97

Uncomplicated Bereavement

Question 98

Negative Reinforcement

Answer 98

_ In behavior modification, the strengthening of a response through the
removal of adverse stimuli

Question 99

Extinction

Answer 99

_ In behavior modification, the elimination or weakening of a conditioned
response by discontinuing the reinforcement after the response occurs.

Question 100

reinforcement

Answer 100

_ In behavior modification, a procedure that strengthens the tendency of a
response to recur.

Question 101

Punishment

Answer 101

__ A penalty imposed for misbehavior. In behavior modification, the
presentation of an unpleasant or undesired event following a behavior.

Question 102

Paradoxical directive

Answer 102

Asks clients to restrain from change and is designed to provoke defiance in the recipient.
- The client is told to continue to do what he or she came to therapy to get over doing (i.e: continue having the symptom).
- Therapist is trying indirectly to get the client or family to decide that they won’t do what they have now been directed to do.

Question 102

Positive reinforcment

Answer 102

__ Strengthening a desired behavior or response by presenting a desired
stimulus contingent on performance of the response

Question 103

The stages of the family life cycle

Answer 103

1. Newlywed couple
2. Families in initial upbringing
3. Families with preschool children
4. Families with school-age children
5. Families with teenagers
6. Families as a launching pad (Parents have to accept that their little ones have grown up, that they seek to become masters of their own lives)
7. Middle-aged parents (no more children at home )
8. Family with elderly members (a crisis caused by the perception that one has lost one’s youth, vitality, health, and a partner)

Question 103

FAREAFI

Answer 103

FAREAFI
F: Feelings of the client be acknowledged first above all. Begin building rapport.
A: Assess
R: Refer
E: Educate
A: Advocate
F: Facilitate
I: Intervene

To clarify how you use this acronym, your goal is to select the response that is closest in hierarchy to the first letter/item of FAREAFI. Typically, you will have no trouble in discarding two out of the four options provided. However, selecting the correct response among the remaining two responses gets trickier and this handy acronym reminds you which step should go first.

Question 104

AASPIRINS

Answer 104

A: Acknowledge client/patient. Begin building rapport.
A: Assess
S: Start where the patient is at
P: Protect life (of the individual and community…this one is about
determining/preventing danger to self and others)
I: Intoxicated do not treat. Refer
R: Rule out medical issue
I: Informed consent
N: Non-judgmental stance
S: Support patient self-determination

Question 105

Depersonalization

Answer 105

is a disorder in which the person experiences persistent feelings of unreality, detachment or being an outside observer of themselves. They might feel like they are watching things happen to themselves.

Question 106

Derealization

Answer 106

the person feels detached from the outside world. For example, the environment around them may feel foggy, unreal, or disconnected. Sights and sounds might be muted or seem unreal. In these instances, though, they still have their memory and are still aware of what is going on around them.

Question 107

Delirium

Answer 107

can cause disruption in people’s eating and drinking habits (during a delirious episode, clients may not feel hungry or forget to eat and drink). For example, someone is delirious and suddenly is experiencing hallucinations and changes in perception.

Question 108

Conformity

Answer 108

the individual prefers the dominant culture and devalues their own background;

Question 108

Dissociation

Answer 108

With dissociation, a person will be completely detached to the point that they have no conscious memory of where they have been or what they have been doing (like in question 16).

Delirium usually occurs in hospital settings or can be due to chronic illness, changes in metabolic balance (such as low sodium), medication, infection, surgery, or alcohol or drug intoxication or withdrawal. It has a rapid onset and there is a marked shift in awareness, perceptions, and can result in hallucinations

Question 108

Dissonance

Answer 108

according to a minority identity development model, the stage of dissonance includes a period in which the individual moves from feeling shame about their identity to feelings of pride.

Question 109

Introversion

Answer 109

the individual moves toward feeling that the dominant culture is not all bad and that there are individual differences.

Question 109

Resistance

Answer 109

the individual rejects the dominant culture and has a sense of appreciation for their own culture;

Question 110

Supervision Administrative

Answer 110

Administrative supervision is synonymous with
management. It is the implementation of
administrative methods that enable social
workers to provide effective services to clients.

Administrative supervision is oriented toward
agency policy or organizational demands and
focuses on a supervisee’s level of functioning on
the job and work assign

Question 111

Educational supervision

Answer 111

Educational supervision focuses on professional
concerns and relates to specific cases. It helps
supervisees better understand social work
philosophy, become more self-aware, and refine
their knowledge and skills. Educational
supervision focuses on staff development and
the training needs of a social worker to a
particular caseload. It includes activities in which
the supervisee is guided to learn about
assessment, treatment and intervention,
identification and resolution of ethical issues,
and evaluation and termination of services.

Question 112

Supportive supervisor

Answer 112

Supportive supervision decreases job stress that
interferes with work performance and provides
the supervisee with nurturing conditions that
compliment their success and encourage
self-efficacy.
Supervisees are faced with increasing challenges
that contribute to job stress, including the growing
complexity of client problems, unfavorable
physical work environments, heavy workloads,
and emotionally draining environments such as
vicarious trauma. Supportive supervision is
underscored by a climate of safety and trust,
where supervisees can develop their sense of
professional identity.

Question 113

Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy

Answer 113

Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy is a short term therapy that helps clients identify and replace self-defeating rigid thought patterns, beliefs, and unhealthy behaviors that interfere with their life goals with healthier thoughts and behaviors that help them achieve their goals. Some tools used in REBT include: cognitive reframing, visualizations, self-help tools, and homework assignments.

Question 114

Parallel Process

Answer 114

Parallel process occurs when a supervisor interacts with a supervisee in a way that models through the supervisory relationship how the supervisee should interact with their clients.

Question 115

Assertiveness Therapy

Question 116

Circular questioning

Answer 116

Circular questioning is a technique used in systemic family therapy to “invite participants in a conversation to consider relational aspects of the topic being investigated” (Evans & Whitcombe, 2015, p. 28).

Therapists use circular questioning with individuals, couples, and families to help them see alternative or new options and possibilities, and explore other people’s views.

Question 117

Temporal questions

Answer 117

Temporal questioning encourages reflection on what has happened in the past and the changes that have taken place over time

Question 118

Triadic questions

Answer 118

Triadic questioning invites reflection regarding how two people’s actions impact the behavior or mood of another. Such questions are often used to assess how families respond to their members in different situations