vocab Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

etiology

A

the cause, set of cause, or manner of causation of a disease or condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

manifestation

A

describes the manifestation(Sign or The display or disclosure of characteristic signs or symptoms of an illness) of an underlying disease, not the disease itself, and therefore, cannot be a principal diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

7th characters and place holder

A

codes less than 6 characters that require a 7th character a placeholder X is assigned for all character less than 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

7th character A

A

initial encounter - all encounters involving diagnosis and treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

7th character D

A

subsequent encounter - encounters during the healing phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

7th character S

A

sequela

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which diagnosis is used in an outpatient setting first

A

first list diagnosis is used in lieu of principal diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

chapter 21 Z codes are

A

factors influencing health status and cotact with health services Z00-Z99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T/F certain Z codes may ony be used as 1st listed or principal diagnosis

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F Z codes indicate a reason for an encounter

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F Z codes are not procedure codes

A

true a corresponding procedure code must accompany a Z code to describe any procedure performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Code Z20 indicates what

A

contact with, and suspected exposure to, cummunicalbe diseases. these codes are for patients who do not show sign or symptom of a disease but are suspected to have been exposed by close personal contact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

status codes indicate

A

that a patient is either a carrier of a diseae or has the sequelae or residual of a past disease or condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

residual

A

that which is left behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

sequela

A

a condition that follows an illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

pressure ulcers are graded how

A

reported based on the depth of ulcer and categorized in stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

stage 1

A

erythema - redness of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

stage 2

A

partial loss of skin-epidermis or dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

stage 3

A

full thickness loss of skin-up to but not through fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

stage 4

A

full thickness loss-extensive destruction and necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

acute and chronic conditions

A

same condition is described as both acute(subacute) and chronic, and separate subentries exist in the alphabetic index at the same indentation level, code both and sequence the acute first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

sequela also know as what

A

late effects - after the acute phase of an illness or injury has terminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

combination coding is

A

when one code fully describes the conditions and/or manifestations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

multiple coding is

A

when it takes more than one code to fully describe the condition, circumstance, or manifestation, and then sequencing of multiple codes is considered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

diagnosis of sepsis code how

A

assign the appropriate code for the underlying systemic infection, if the type of infection or causal organism is not further specified assign code A41.9, sepsis unspecified organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

diagnois of sever sepsis/septic shock code how

A

systemic infection should be sequenced first followed by code R65.21, any additional codes for the other acute organ dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

R65.2 sever sepsis/shock can never be what

A

assigned as a principal diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

R65.2 sever sepsis should what

A

not be assigned unless sever sepsis or an associated acute organ dysfunction is documented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

severe sepsis requires what 2 codes

A

first a code for the underlying systemic infection, followed by a code from subcategory R65.2 sever sepsis

30
Q

outer layer of skin

A

dermis

31
Q

second layer of skin holding blood vessels, nerve endings, sweat glands, and hair follicles

A

epidermis

32
Q

tissue below dermis, primarily fat cells that insulate the body

A

subcutaneous

33
Q

incision and drainage

A

to cut and withdrw fluid

34
Q

abscess

A

localized collection of pus that will result in the disintergration of tissue over time

35
Q

cyst

A

closed sac containing matter or fluid

36
Q

cleansing of or removing dead tissue from a wound

A

debridment

37
Q

horizontal or transverse removal of dermal or epidermal lesions, without full-thickness excision

A

paring

38
Q

removal of a small piece of living tissue for diagnostic purposes

A

biopsy

39
Q

removal of thin layers of skin by peeling or scraping

A

shaving

40
Q

excision

A

full-thickness removal of a lesion that may include simple closure

41
Q

benign

A

not progressive or recurrent

42
Q

malignant

A

used to describe a cancerous tumor that grows worse over time

43
Q

pertains to suturing a wound

A

repair

44
Q

transplantation of tissue to repair a defect

A

skin graft

45
Q

piece of skin for grafting that is still partially attached to the original blood supply and is used to cover an adjacent wound area

A

tissue transfer

46
Q

killing of tissue, possibly by elctrocautery laser, chemical, or other mans

A

destruction

47
Q

cryosurgery

A

destruction of lesions using extreme cold

48
Q

Tumor on a pedicle that bleeds easily and may become malignant

A

polyp

49
Q

Inspection of body organs or cavities using a lighted scope that may be placed through an existing opening or though a small incision

A

endoscopy

50
Q

Cavities within the nasal bones

A

sinuses

51
Q

maxillary sinus

A

antrum

52
Q

Cutting through the antrum wall to make an opening in the sinus

A

antrotomy

53
Q

Inspection of the bronchial tree using a bronchoscope

A

bronchoscopy

54
Q

Surgical puncture of the thoracic cavity, usually using a needle, to remove fluids

A

thoracentesis

55
Q

Surgical incision into the thoracic cavity

A

thoracotomy

56
Q

Cutting into the thoracic cavity to allow for enlargement of the heart or for drainage

A

thoracostomy

57
Q

Use of a lighted endoscope to view the pleural spaces and thoracic cavity or perform surgical procedures

A

thoracoscopy

58
Q

Excision of a lobe of the lung

A

lobectomy

59
Q

Covering of the lungs and thoracic cavity that is moistened with serous fluid to reduce friction during respiratory movements of the lungs

A

pleura

60
Q

Removal of blockage (embolism) from vessels

A

embolectomy

61
Q

What is the name of the item that is placed into the hole in a nasal septum perforation as a repair without surgical grafting?

A

nasal button

62
Q

What is the name of the surgical procedure for the reshaping of the nose?

A

rhinoplasty

63
Q

What is the name of the surgical procedure for the rearrangement of the nasal septum often used in patients with a deviated septum?

A

septoplasty

64
Q

This term means destruction by removing, usually by vaporization, chipping, or other erosive process such as laser or cutting:

A

ablation

65
Q

Which approach of treating nasal hemorrhage is most difficult to control, posterior or anterior?

A

posterior

66
Q

What term describes washing out an organ?

A

lavage

67
Q

What are the two different approaches that can be used to perform a tracheostomy?

A

transtracheal

cricothyroid

68
Q

If a surgeon performs a thoracotomy procedure and at the end of the procedure inserts a chest tube for drainage, do you report the insertion of the tube separately? Why?

A

No, the chest tube is bundled into thoracotomy codes

69
Q

If bilateral destruction of maxillary sinuses is performed, what modifier would you use?

A

-50

70
Q

Removal of two lobes of a lung is termed a(n)

A

bilobectomy

71
Q

manifestation

A

sign of a disease