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MOD-Exam 3 > Viruses > Flashcards

Viruses Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following viruses are the only ones that have double stranded RNA?

A. HIV

B. HepB

C. Rotavirus

D. Retrovirus

A

Rotavirus

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2
Q

RNA viruses either have positive or negative RNA, which influences their first steps in terms of getting the host cell to replicate their genetic information. Which of the following is true of negative stranded RNA?

A. RNA gets immediately translated by the host’s ribosomes

B. Must carry RNA-dependent RNA polymerase to allow transcription of the RNA

C. The RNA is able to get directly encorporated into the host genome

D. None of the above are correct

A

B. Must carry RNA-dependent RNA polymerase to allow transcription of the RNA

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3
Q

Which of the following viruses are able to get directly encorporated into the host genome?

A. Arbovirus

B. HepB

C. Rotavirus

D. Retrovirus

A

Retrovirus

NOTE:

  • HIV is a retrovirus
  • the RNA of retroviruses are transcribed in a “reverse” fashion into DNA, and require reverse transcriptase
  • retro things are usually directly implemented into our fashion*
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4
Q

RNA viruses either have positive or negative RNA, which influences their first steps in terms of getting the host cell to replicate their genetic information. Which of the following is true of positive stranded RNA?

A. RNA gets immediately translated by the host’s ribosomes

B. Must carry RNA-dependent RNA polymerase to allow transcription of the RNA

C. The RNA is able to get directly encorporated into the host genome

D. The RNA must be transcribed in a reverse fashion into DNA first with the help of the viruses reverse transcriptase enzyme

A

RNA gets immediately translated by the host’s ribosomes

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5
Q

Most DNA viruses have a positive and negative strand. Which strand is read, and is thus the template for transcription into mRNA?

Which strand is ignored?

A

Which strand is read, and is thus the template for transcription into mRNA?

negative

Which strand is ignored?

positive

it’s not good (negative) that viral DNA gets read

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6
Q

While most DNA viruses have a psoitive and negative strand, what DNA virus is the exception as it has single stranded DNA?

A

Parvovirus

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7
Q

What are the 6 DNA viruses?

A

Herpesvirus B

Hepadnavirus

Adenovirus

Papovavirus

Parvovirus

Poxvirus

remember HHAPPPy mnemonic

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8
Q

Of the following DNA viruses most of them have dsDNA, icosahedral symmetry, and replicate in the nucleus. However, which of these is different and has ssDNA?

A. Herpesvirus B

B. Hepadnavirus

C. Adenovirus

D. Papovavirus

E. Parvovirus

F. Poxvirus

A

Parvovirus

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9
Q

Of the following DNA viruses most of them have dsDNA, icosahedral symmetry, and replicate in the nucleus. However, which of these, while having dsDNA, does not have icosahedral symmetry and replicates in the cytoplasm?

A. Herpesvirus B

B. Hepadnavirus

C. Adenovirus

D. Papovavirus

E. Parvovirus

F. Poxvirus

A

Poxvirus

think of Pox in a “box” floating in the cytoplasm

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10
Q

What 3 of the 6 DNA viruses are naked (non-enveloped)?

What 3 of the 6 DNA viruses are enveloped?

A

What 3 of the 6 DNA viruses are naked (non-enveloped)?

Papovavirus, Adenovirus, Parvovirus

get naked for a PAP smear

What 3 of the 6 DNA viruses are enveloped?

Herpes, Hepadna, Pox

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11
Q

Which of the following is true GENERALLY of RNA viruses:

Replication location cytoplasm vs. nucleus:

Enveloped vs Non-enveloped:

Helical vs icosahedral:

single stranded vs. double stranded:

A

Replication location cytoplasm vs. nucleus: cytoplasm

Enveloped vs Non-enveloped: enveloped

Helical vs icosahedral: helical

single stranded vs. double stranded: single stranded

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12
Q

Of the following RNA viruses, which of them is double stranded?

A. Toga

B. Retro

C. Reo

D. Calici

E. Falvi

A

Reo

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13
Q

What is true of orthomyxoviridae and Paramyxoviridae?

A. Comprised of influenzae viruses

B. Mostly affect upper respiratory tract and predominantly pulmonary pathogens

C. Are DNA viruses

D. All the above are correct

A

Mostly affect upper respiratory tract and predominantly pulmonary pathogens

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14
Q

Influenzae is part of the orthomyxoviridae group of RNA viruses, whom utilize two glycoproteins that lie on the helical capsid to infect and inflitrate host cells. Which of the glycoproteins allows siliac acid receptors to be revealed on the mucosal epithelial cell surface through their cleavage of the mucosal covering?

A. HA

B. NA

A

NA

NA is neuraminidase, which specifically cleaves the neuramic acid that’s found in mucin that covers mucosal epithelial surface

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15
Q

Hemagglutin Activity (HA) is a glycoprotein utilized by influenzae to adsorb to sialic receptors. Siliac acid receptors are located on which of the following cell surfaces?

A. Erythrocytes and Upper respiratory tract

B. Erythrocytes and Intestinal tract

C. Upper respiratory tract only

D. None of the above

A

Erythrocytes and Upper respiratory tract

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16
Q

There are 3 types of influenzae viruses: A, B, and C. Each of these has different strains based on antigenic differences of what two glycoproteins?

Which type of influenzae causes most influenzae epidemics?

A

There are 3 types of influenzae viruses: A, B, and C. Each of these has different strains based on antigenic differences of what two glycoproteins?

Hemagglutinin (HA)

Neuraminidase (NA)

Which type of influenzae causes most influenzae epidemics?

Type A

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17
Q

Which of the following correctly describes Reye’s Syndrome?

A. A severe liver and kidney disease that develops in children with influenzae who have beem given aspirin

B. A severe liver and brain disease that develops in children with influenzae who have been given aspirin

C. A severe brain and kidney disease that develops in children with influenzae who have been given aspirin

D. A severe skin and lung disease that develops in children with influenzae who have been given aspirin

A

B. A severe liver and brain disease that develops in children with influenzae who have been given aspirin

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18
Q

T/F: Unlike most influenzae, almost all patients that are infected the H5N1 strain develops clinical pneumonia with diffuse infiltrates which progresses to consolidation in more than one lung zone

A

True

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19
Q

Which of the following is found in paramyxoviridae (not orthomyxoviridiae) and causes the infected host cells to fuse into multinucleated giant cells?

A. HA and NA

B. F protein

C. M protein

D. ssRNA

A

F protein (fusion protein)

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20
Q

Which of the following paramyxoviridae viruses is associated with Laryngotracheobronchitis that results in edema/swelling of the upper respiratory tract and resultant stridor and croup (barking cough)?

A. RSV (respiratory synctial virus)

B. Mumps

C. Measels

D. Parainfluenza

E. Metapneumovirus

A

Parainfluenza

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21
Q

What paramyxoviridae virus lacks NA and HA, and is the #1 cause of pneumonia in young children, especially infants <6 months?

A. RSV (respiratory synctial virus)

B. Mumps

C. Measels

D. Parainfluenza

E. Metapneumovirus

A

Respiratory Synctial Virus (RSV)

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22
Q

T/F: Infection with measles during pregnancy does not cause birthdefects, but has been associated with spontaneous abortion and premature delivery

A

True

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23
Q

What paramyxoviridae is associated with complications through the development of a form of encephilitis called Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)?

A. RSV (respiratory synctial virus)

B. Mumps

C. Measels

D. Parainfluenza

E. Metapneumovirus

A

Measels

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24
Q

There are 5 clinically important herpes viruses: A-E.

All of them are RNA viruses, EXCEPT which one that is dsDNA?

Which 2 are acquired through the fecal-oral route?

Which 2 are acquired through Sexual contact and/or blood?

Which 1 is acquired only through exposure to blood?

A

All of them are RNA viruses, EXCEPT which one that is dsDNA?

HBV

Which 2 are acquired through the fecal-oral route?

HAV, HEV

Which 2 are acquired through Sexual contact and/or blood?

HBV, HDV

Which 1 is acquired only through exposure to blood?

HCV

remember the pattern of this chart to remember through which route these diseases are acquired

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25
Q

All of hepatitus viruses are able to cause acute disease, a disease state with mild-to severe symptoms that gets resolved. Of them however, which of them is the most common cause of acute disease?

A. HAV

B. HBV

C. HCV

D. HDV

E. HEV

A

HEV

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26
Q

Select all of the hepatitis viruses that cause chronic disease? Bonus: Which of them is the most common cause of chronic dz?

A. HAV

B. HBV

C. HCV

D. HDV

E. HEV

A

HBV

HCV- most common

HDV

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27
Q

A vaccine exists for which of the following hepatitis viruses?

A. HAV

B. HBV

C. HCV

D. HDV

E. HEV

A

HAV

HBV

HEV

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28
Q

Viral hepatitis can be acute or chronic based on the virus class. In which case (acute vs. chronic) are we MOST LIKELY to see significant (and not mild) elevation of liver function enzymes AST and ALT?

A

Acute hepatitis

NOTE:

can be caused by A-E hep

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29
Q

Which of the following is most likely to occur when a gallstone blocks the bile duct?

A. High elevation of AST and ALT, and mild elevation of GGT, alkaline phosphatase, and bilirubin

B. Mild elevation of AST and ALT, GGT, alkaline phosphatase, and bilirubin

C. Mild elevation of AST and ALT, and high elevation of GGT, alkaline phosphatase, and bilirubin

D. None of the above

A

C. Mild elevation of AST and ALT, and high elevation of GGT, alkaline phosphatase, and bilirubin

NOTE:

The opposite occurs for acute viral hepatitis infection, due to necrosis of liver cells, that does not impact bile flow. We dont see a significant rise in GGT, alkaline phosphatase, and bilirubin until the dz worsens in canaliculi narrow and are destroyed resulting in release of GGT, alkaline phosphatase.

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30
Q

In an acute hepatitis infection, which of the following symptoms are we most likely to see first?

A. Jaundice due to increased bilirubin levels

B. High levels of GGT and alkaline phosphatase

C. High levels of AST and ALT

D. Flu-like symptoms

A

D. Flu-like symptoms

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31
Q

Which of the following desribes the Hep B genetic material?

A. circular dsDNA

B. linear dsDNA

C. circular dsRNA

D. linear ssRNA

A

circular dsDNA

think of “B” and how it’s essentially 2 circles and almost looks like a “D”

32
Q

T/F: Having anti-HBsAg means we are immune against Hep B, as does having anti-HBcAg

A

False; only anti-HBsAg is immunoprotective

NOTE:

HBsAg= hep B surface antigen

HBcAg= hep B core antigen

33
Q

Which of the following Hep B antigens is a marker og active disease and suggests the patient is in a highly infective state?

A. HBsAg

B. HBcAg

C. HBeAg

A

HBeAg

NOTE:

If a pregnant mother has HBeAg, they will liekly transmit Hep B to their offspring

34
Q

Chronic Hep B infection can co-infect with what other hepatitis virus?

A

Hep D

B looks like D so maybe they work together

35
Q

T/F: Primary hepatocellular carcinoma is a complication of HBV, as with chronicity its DNA gets encorporated into the hosts hepatocyte DNA and triggers malignant growth

A

True

36
Q

During the first 6 months of a Hep B infection, which of the following Abs is most likely to be present?

A. Anti-HBsAg

B. IgM Anti-HBcAg

C. Anti-HBeAg

D. IgG Anti-HBcAg

A

IgM Anti-HBcAg

NOTE:

The “core window” in the photo refers to weeks 24-32 that seperates the disappearance of HBsAg and appearance of anti-HBsAg. Thus presence of anti-HBcAg might be our only indication that their might be a current or recent infection

37
Q

Hepatitis D is only able to replicate with the help of what other hepatitis class?

A

Hepatitis D is only able to replicate with the help of what other hepatitis class?

hep B

NOTE:

Hep D is a helical nucelocaspid that uses hep B as an envelope

38
Q

Hepatitis D can only cause infection using what antigenic coat?

A. HBsAg

B. HBsAg

C. HBeAg

D. None of the above

A

HBsAg

39
Q

T/F: Prolonged PT (Prothrombin time) might indicate severe hepatic damage, and is thus important to check in those with acute viral hepatitis

A

True

40
Q

What do the 3 big components “Retro, Grow, and Blow” refer to for retrovirideae?

A

Retro: have reverse transcriptase for their RNA to be converted to DNA

Grow: cancer causing by carrying oncogenes (acute transforming viruses) or mutating host’s proto-oncogenes (non-acute transforming viruses)

Blow: cytotoxic capabilities that allow them to “blow up” cells, like HIV does to T-cells

41
Q

Which of the following would likely be most useful in helping people become HIV resistant?

A. CCR1 inhibitiors

B. CCR4 inhibitors

C. CCR5 inhibitors

D. None of the above

A

CCR5 inhibitors

42
Q

AIDS is defined as having a CD4 T cell count below what value?

A. 1000

B. 400

C. 200

D. 100

A

200

NOTE:

normal healthy adult is about 1000 cells/um of blood

43
Q

What is the order of opportunistic infections in which HIV patients are exposed as their T cell counts decline?

A. Bacteria > Fungi > Parasites > viruses

B. Fungi > Bacteria > Parasites > Viruses

C. Viruses > Parasites > bacteria > fungi

D. None of the above

A

Bacteria > Fungi > Parasites > viruses

44
Q

All of the following parasites cause diarrhea in patients with AIDS, except which of the following that causes mass lesions in the brain of 15% of AIDS patients?

A. Isospora

B. Cryptosporidium

C. Microsporidia

D. Toxoplasma gondii

A

Toxoplasma gondii

45
Q

When the CD4 T cell count is below 200, which of the following infections is the most common opprotunistic infection in AIDS patients in the US?

A. Candida albicans

B. Cryptoneoformans

C. Pneumocytis jiroveci

D. Coccidiodes immitis

E. Histoplasma capsulatum

A

Pneumocytis jiroveci

NOTE:

pneumocystis jiroveci causes pneumonia

46
Q

Which of the following opportunitisc fungal infections causes meningitis where while neuralogical changes can be seen, but no meningeal swelling is recorded due to lowered immunity?

A. Candida albicans

B. Cryptococcus neoformans

C. Pneumocytis jiroveci

D. Coccidiodes immitis

E. Histoplasma capsulatum

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

47
Q

Herpesviridae are also grouped by their latent sites. Which group’s latent site is in neurons of sensory ganglia, often causing blisters?

A. alpha-herpes viruses: HSV-1, HSV-2, VZN (HHV-3)

B. beta-herpes viruses: CMV (HHV-5), HHV-6, HHV-7

C. gamma-herpes viruses: EBV (HHV-4), HHV-8 (KSHV)

A

alpha-herpes viruses: HSV-1, HSV-2, VZN

48
Q

Herpesviridae are also grouped by their latent sites. Which group’s latent site is in lymphoid cells?

A. alpha-herpes viruses: HSV-1, HSV-2, VZN (HHV-3)

B. beta-herpes viruses: CMV (HHV-5), HHV-6, HHV-7

C. gamma-herpes viruses: EBV (HHV-4), HHV-8 (KSHV)

A

gamma-herpes viruses: EBV (HHV-4) and HHV-8 (KHSV)

49
Q

Herpesviridae are also grouped by their latent sites. Which group’s latent site is in mononuclear cells?

A. alpha-herpes viruses: HSV-1, HSV-2, VZN (HHV-3)

B. beta-herpes viruses: CMV (HHV-5), HHV-6, HHV-7

C. gamma-herpes viruses: EBV (HHV-4), HHV-8 (KSHV)

A

beta-herpes viruses: CMV (HHV-5), HHV-6, HHV-7

50
Q

Which of the following clinical manifestations is attributed to HSV-1 infection, which HSV-1 is the #1 cause of in the US?

A. Encephalitis

B. Gingivostomatitis

C. Disseminated herpes

D. Herpetic keratosis

A

Encephalitis

51
Q

Which of the following clinical manifestations of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infectionsis the most common infectious cause of corneal blindness in the US?

A. Encephalitis

B. Gingivostomatitis

C. Disseminated herpes

D. Herpetic keratosis

A

Herpetic keratosis

52
Q

Which of the following clinical manifestations of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections only occurs in immunocompromised patients?

A. Genital herpes

B. Gingivostomatitis

C. Disseminated herpes

D. Herpetic keratosis

E. Neonatal herpes

A

Disseminated herpes

53
Q

CMV is the most common viral cause of which of the following?

A. Mental retardation

B. Endocarditis

C. Scoliosis

D. Corneal blindness

A

Mental retardation

54
Q

Which herpesviridae causes “monospot negative mono”?

A. EBV

B. CMV

C. HZV

D. HSV-1

A

CMV

55
Q

CMV can reactivate in the immunocompromised populations producing infections listed below. Interestingly however, the disease development between AIDS patients and those that have received bone marrow transplants differs. All of the following diseases are commonly seen in AIDS patients exposed to CMV, EXCEPT for which of the following which is more common for patients who’ve recently received a bone marrow transplant?

A. CMV retinitis

B. CMV viremia

C. DCMV colitis

D. CMV pneumonia

A

CMV pneumonia

56
Q

What two herpesviridae cause mononucleosis in young adults?

A

EBV

CMV

57
Q

HHV-6 infection in older age groups usually presents as what?

A. Roseola infantum characterized by fever and subsequent rash

B. Mononucleosis-like syndrome and sever, disseminated disease

C. Fever and siezures and possible pityriasis rosea

A

Mononucleosis-like syndrome and sever, disseminated disease

58
Q

HHV-8 (KSHV) predominantly infects which of the following cells?

A. Endothelial cells

B. B cells

C. Macrophages

D. Epithelial cells

A

B cells

59
Q

What disease does poxviridae causes?

A. Chicken pox

B. Shingles

C. Small pox

D. Large pox

A

Small pox

60
Q

What are the 3 members of PA-PO-VA-viridae?

A

Papilloma virus

Polymavirus

Simian Vacuolating virus

NOTE:

Simian vacuolating virus doesn’t affect humans

61
Q

When thinking of papovaviridae viruses, why is it helpful to think of the letter “O”? Hint: there are 3 reasons.

A

O for circular dsDNA

O for round warts

O for round cervix

62
Q

What are the most common oncogenic subtypes of HPV?

A. 31 and 35

B. 16 and 18

C. 18 and 3

D. None of the above

A

16 and 18

63
Q

Papillomavirus ellaborates proteins included below. Which of these E proteins causes malignant transformation of cells by targetting and destroying p53 and RB?

A. E6

B. E7

C. E6 and E7

D. E1, E2, E5

A

E6 and E7

NOTE:

E6 and E7 are most frequently termed HPV-associated oncoproteins

64
Q

For the following questions, indicate which group is affected by the disease which results from BK polymavirus infection.

Asymptomatic or mild respiratory illness:

Nephiritis and uretral stenosis:

Hemorrhagic cystitis:

A

Asymptomatic or mild respiratory illness:

Children

Nephiritis and uretral stenosis:

immunocompromised, renal transplant patients

Hemorrhagic cystitis:

immunocompromised, bone marrow transplant

65
Q

There are two human disease causing polymavirus types which are called BK and JC. These can cause different disease presentations. Which of the following is mostly associated with JC polymavirus, and not BK polymavirus?

A. Uretral stenosis

B. Nephritis

C. Hemorrhagic cystitis

D. Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML)

A

Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy

NOTE:

PML causes poor speech, incoordination, and memory loss

66
Q

T/F: The acute respiratory infections caused by adenovirus often have prominent rhinorrhea, as well as unilateral or bilateral conjunctiva

A

True

67
Q

Which of the following symptoms may be a result of infection by adenovirus?

A. Acute respiratory infection with rhinorrhea

B. Sore throat and fever

C. Diarrhea

D. Conjunctivitis (unilateral or bilateral)

E. All of the above are correct

F. None of the above

A

All of the above are correct

NOTE:

it is thought to be the 2nd most common cause of endemic, viral diarrhea in infants and children

68
Q

Which of the following are the most common cause of respiratory illness in children?

A. RSV

B. Metapneumovirus

C. Parainfluenze

D. Rhinovirus

E. Adenovirus

F. All of the above

A

All of the above

Childhood respiratory illnesses RsvP in MARch

69
Q

What are the 5 most common causes of respiratory illness in children?

Hint: Childhood respiratory illnesses RsvP in MARch

A

RSV

Parainfluenze

Metapneumovirus

Adenovirus

Rhinovirus

70
Q

THe most common parvovirus that infects humans is B19. B19 has a receptor for which of the following that allows it to replicate primarily in erythroid progenitors?

A. blood group A Ag

B. blood group P Ag

C. blood group O Ag

D. Non of the above

A

blood group P Ag

71
Q

T/F: B19 parvovirus infection is associated with fever and a slap-faced rash on the cheeks

A

True

B19!? Well slap my face until it’s read, I just got Bingo

72
Q

T/F: Pure red-cell aplasia/chronic anemia can occur upon B19 parvovirus infection in all people

A

False;

occurs in people with immunodeficiencies, AIDS, and lymphoproliferative disorders like ALL, and transplantation

73
Q

T/F: Although B19 is not considered tetrogenic, infection during pregnancy may lead to hydrops fetalis and fetal loss

A

True

74
Q

Arboviruses include bynyaviridae, togaviridae, and flaviviridae. Which of the following is true of arboviruses?

A. Spread by IV drug use and cause fever and necrosis

B. Spread by sexual contact and cause fever and warts

C. Spread through arthropods and cause fever and encephalitis

D. None of the above are true

A

Spread through arthropods and cause fever and encephalitis

75
Q

Which of the following clinical presentations associated with Congenital Rubella Syndrome is the most common defect?

A. Cataracts, hearing impairment, and heart defects

B. Hearing impairment

C. Cataracts

D. Heart defects

A

Hearing impairment

76
Q

Read this

A

Again

77
Q

What viruses are the most common causes of diarrhea?

Hint: I got diarhea all over my CAAR

A

Calicivirus

Rotavirus

Adenovirus

Astrovirus

MOD-Exam 3 (6 decks)

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