Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MOD-Exam 3 > Fungi, Parasites, and Prions > Flashcards

Fungi, Parasites, and Prions Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following Tineas subgroups are cutaneous infectors, EXCEPt which of the following that is superficial like Pityriasis verisicolor?

A. Tineas corporis

B. Tineas nigra

C. Tineas unguium

D. Tineas capitis

E. Tinaeis pedis

F. Tineas cruris

A

Tineas nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fungi can be organized based on the level of skin depth they infect: Mucocutaneus vs. Deep/systemic. Indicate the fungi that are part of each of the subgroups of mucocutaneus fungi.

Superficial:

Cutaneous:

Subcutaneous:

A

Superficial:

Pityriasis verisicolor

Tineas nigra

superficial means on TiP-top

Cutaneous:

Tineas- capitis, corporis, cruris, ungium, pedis

a cute Tin CCCUP

Subcutaneous:

Sporotrichosis

Chromoblastomycosis

SubCutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fungi can be organized based on the level of skin depth they infect: Mucocutaneus vs. Deep/systemic. Indicate the fungi that are part of each of the subgroups of Potential deep/systemic fungal infections.

Endemic mycoses:

Opportunistic:

A

Endemic mycoses:

Blastomycosis

Coccidiodmycosis

Cryptococcus

Histoplasmosis

you endemic mycoses BiCCH

Opportunistic:

Candida

Asperiguillus

Mucor

Pneumocystis

CAMPeres are opportunistic fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sporeotrichosis is caused by sporothrix schenckii, and usually affects what occupation?

A. Gardeners

B. Athletes

C. Office workers

D. Healthcare workers

A

Gardeners

NOTE:

this infection causes lesions (not painful really) that might continue to occur along lymphatic drainage path proximal to the original lesion site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Copper-colored sclerotic bodies and violet colored cauliflower warts affecting mostly the lower extremities, would be most associated with which of the following infections?

A. Sporotrichosis

B. Tinea nigrans

C. Chromoblastomycosis

D. Pityriasis verisicolor

A

Chromoblastomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All of the fungi below cause systemic disease, are dimorphic, are acquired through the respiratory route, and are not spread through human-to-human contact. Moreover, all are endemic mostly to moist soils of the Midwest/Mississippi/Ohio river valley, EXCEPT for which of the following that prefers drier soils and is endemic to southwest united states?

A. Blastomyces

B. Coccidioides

C. Histoplasma

D. None of the above

A

Coccidioides

NOTE:

Cryptococcus neoformans was not mentioned, and is more widely distributed in nature and often acquired from pigeon droppings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following systemic fungal infections most commonly exhibits a chronic meningitis syndrome and is considered the most common cause of fungal meningitis?

A. Blastomyces

B. Coccidioides

C. Histoplasma

D. Cryptococcus

A

Cryptococcus

NOTE:

options A-C are more associated with chronic pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following sis the rarest systemic fungal infection?

A. Blastomyces

B. Coccidioides

C. Histoplasma

D. Cryptococcus

A

Blastomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following morphological desriptions fits the diagnosis of Histoplasma at room temperature?

A. Characteristic budding yeast forms with a surrounding clear capsule on India ink preparation of CSF

B. Large, thick walled, broadly based yeast form

C. Small, budding yeast form

D. Large spherical containing endospores “bag of spores”

A
  • A. Characteristic budding yeast forms with a surrounding clear capsule on India ink preparation of CSF - Cryptococcus*
  • B. Large, thick walled, broadly based yeast form- Blastomyces*

C. Small, budding yeast form- Histoplasma

D. Large spherical containing endospores “bag of spores”- Coccidioides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Disseminated Candida fungi often exhibit microabcessess in multiple visceral organs, especially in which of the following when candida is deeply invasive?

A. Chorioretina

B. Brain

C. Kidney

D. Heart

E. All of the above

F. All except A

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following fungi is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV/AIDS patients?

A. Candida glabrata

B. Candida parapsilosis

C. Candida tropicalis

D. Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most common etiologic mold of human opportunistic infections?

A. Aspergillus

B. Pneumocystis jirovecci

C. Candida tropicalis

D. Candida glabrata

A

Aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In cancer cases where fungal superinfection is suspected, it is difficult to distinguish between aspergillus and mucormycosis. Which of the following presentations would make mucormycosis more likely the one present?

A. Cutaneous and GI manifestations

B. Increased pulmonary nodularity, pleural effusion or concomitant sinusistis

C. Fever and diffuse rash over trunk and lower extremities

D. Hypopigmentation around the mouth and feet

A

Increased pulmonary nodularity, pleural effusion or concomitant sinusistis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following correctly describes a cyst as it relates to protozoa?

A. Motile form of protazoa following ingestion by the host

B. Round, armored form of protazoa that is infective when ingested

C. Palpable mass that adheres to our cells externally or internally

D. Invasive protazoan form

A

Round, armored form of protazoa that is infective when ingested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following correctly describes a trophozoite as it relates to protozoa?

A. Motile form of protazoa following ingestion by the host

B. Round, armored form of protazoa that is infective when ingested

C. Palpable mass that adheres to our cells externally or internally

D. Invasive protazoan form

A

Motile form of protazoa following ingestion by the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

There are 5 intenstinal protazoa that cause diarrhea, and are grouped below according to the characteristics of the diarrhea produced. What group causes bloody diarrhea?

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Giardia lamblia and Cyclospora cayetanesis

C. Creyptosporidium and Isospora bella

D. All of the above

A

Entamoeba histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

There are 5 intenstinal protazoa that cause diarrhea, and are grouped below according to the characteristics of the diarrhea produced. What group causes severe diarrhea only in individuals who are immunocompromised?

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Giardia lamblia and Cyclospora cayetanesis

C. Cryptosporidium and Isospora bella

D. All of the above

A

Cryptosporidium and Isospora bella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

There are 5 intenstinal protazoa that cause diarrhea, and are grouped below according to the characteristics of the diarrhea produced. What group causes non-bloody diarrhea?

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Giardia lamblia and Cyclospora cayetanesis

C. Cryptosporidium and Isospora bella

D. All of the above

A

Giardia lamblia and Cyclospora cayetanesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Entamoeba histolytica is a classic amoeba that moves using pseudopodia. While the incidence of infection by Entamoaba histolytica is unknown, we know that infection is highest in which of the following groups?

A. First world countries and 2nd generation immigrants

B. Recent immigrants to the US only

C. Developing nations only

D. Developing nations and recent immigrants to the US

A

Developing nations and recent immigrants to the US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Old prevalence data regarding Entamoeba histolytica was flawed because it utilized stool microscopy that was unable to differentiate between it and what other non-pathogenic intestinal parasite?

A. Entamoeba happi

B. Entamoeba desperado

C. Entamoeba dispar

D. Entamoeba meepi

A

Entamoeba dispar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

While most infections of Entamoeba histolytica are asymptomatic, in its trophozoite form it cruises around eating bacteria, protazoa, intestinal and RBC cells and causes abdominal pain and diarrhea as it starts to invade and erode the intestinal mucosa. E. histolytica can continue and penetrate the portal circulation forming abcesses in the liver, and spread to what location that often leads to formation of abcesses and death?

A. Stomach and diaphragm

B. Lung and diaphragm

C. Kidney and lungs

D. GI and lungs

A

Lung and diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following findings would suggest the host is in an active disease state caused by Entamoeba histolytica?

A. Cysts without internalized RBCs

B. Trophozoites without internalized RBCs

C. Trophozoites with RBCs in their cytoplasm

D. A and B

E. A and C

A

Trophozoites with RBCs in their cytoplasm

NOTE:

That without RBCs internalized in either trophozoites or cysts, we can only assume that the host is an asymptomatic carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following tests is the most sensitive and specific test available for dx infection with E. histolytica?

A. Antigen detection assay on stool

B. Antigen detection assay on serum

C. All of the above

D. None of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A man comes in with complaints of abdominal pain and diarrhea. While collecting his history you learn that he went camping recently, and as he continues to describe the abundant beavers and rodents and how great the crystal clear mountain stream water, you recall the protazoan he might be infected with. Which of the following describes the morphology this protazoan?

A. Binucleated precyst with chromatoid bodies

B. Tetranucleated cyst

C. Variable trophozoite form with pseudopodia

D. Binucleated kite shaped trophozoite

A

Binucleated kite shaped trophozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the effects of Giardia lamblia on the intestinal tract?

A. Consuming RBCs and intestinal epithelial cells

B. Coating of intestinal cells that results in interferance of fat absorption

C. Erosion and of small intestinal cells

D. None of the above

A

Coating of intestinal cells that results in interferance of fat absorption

NOTE:

  • this effect is why Giardia lamblia causes fatty, greasy, frothy diarrhea with a terrible order
26
Q

Which of the following is ingested as round oocysts which contain 4 motile sporozoites, and completes its life cycle within the intestinal epithelial cells?

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Giardia lamblia

C. Cyclospora cayetanesis

D. Cryptosporidium

E. Isospora bella

D. All of the above

A

Cryptosporidium

27
Q

Isospora and cyclospora are acid fast protazoa, and usually implicated in food bourne outbreaks of which of the following foods especially?

A. Chicken

B. Raspberries

C. Pork

D. Blueberries

A

Raspberries

28
Q

A female comes in complaining of thin, watery, frothy, malodorous discharge. She explains shes only had sex with one partner, but he doesn’t seem to be having any symptoms. Examination of her partner and her own urine would likely reveal which flagellated protazoan?

A. Trichomonas vaginalis

B. Giardia lambia

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

29
Q

Below are the free-living meningitis causing amoebas. All of them tend to be acquired through the respiratory route and breaks in the skin, EXCEPT which of the following that penetrates through the nasal mucosa and passes through the cribiform plate to the brain and CSF?

A. Acanthamoeba

B. Balamuthia mandrillaris

C. Naegleria fowleri

A

Naegleria fowleri

30
Q

Naegleria fowleria is known for “fowl play” as it causes death within 1 week of those infected. Patients will present with fever, headache, stiff neck, nausea and vomiting just like a bacterial meningitis. All of the following findings might indicate that Naegleria fowleri is at play and not bacterial meningitis, EXCEPT which one?

A. Gram stain and culture reveals no bacteria

B. CSF reveals high neutrophil count, high glucose and protein

C. Hx reveals the patient went swimming one week prior

D. All of the above are correct

A

B. CSF reveals high neutrophil count, high glucose and protein

31
Q

People get NABbed by these 3 meningitis amoebas in fresh water or infected pools in the summer time. What are their names?

A

Naegleria fowleri

Acanthamoeba

Balamuthia mandrillaris

32
Q

Which of the following might cause corneal infection leading to blindness in immunocompetent people who don’t regularly clean their contacts?

A. Naegleria fowleri

B. Acanthamoeba

C. Balamuthia mendrillaris

A

Acanthamoeba

A-can-thee sounds a lot like “I can’t see”

33
Q

Which of the following is true of balamuthia mandrillaris, and contributes to a differentiator between it and acanthamoeba?

A. Causes acute meningoencephalitis in normal hosts

B. Causes chronic meningoencephalitis in immunocompromised hosts only

C. Causes chronic meningoencephalitis in both normal or immunocompromised hosts

D. Cysts and mature amoeba are found in brain tissue

A

C. Causes chronic meningoencephalitis in both normal or immunocompromised hosts

34
Q

For each of the free-living meningitis causing amoebas we find both mature amoebas and cysts in brain tissue, EXCEPT for which of the following where only mature amoebas are found in brain tissue?

A. Naegleria fowleri

B. Acanthamoeba

C. Balamuthia mendrillaris

A

Naegleria fowleri

this thing is always mature and ready to kill

35
Q

For each of the free-living meningitis causing amoebas might we find granulomatous skin lesions?

A. Naegleria fowleri

B. Acanthamoeba

C. Balamuthia mendrillaris

A

Balamuthia mendrillaris

36
Q

What are the 2 parasites that cause severe, chronic diarrhea in AIDS patients?

A

Cryptosporidium

Isospora

37
Q

Encephalitis by which of the following parasites is the most common CNS infection in AIDS patients?

A. Trichomona

B. Toxoplasma gondii

C. Cryptosporidium

D. Isospora

A

Toxoplasma gondii

38
Q

Toxoplasma gondii is usually acquired through which of the following?

A. Ingesting undercooked meat or food contaminated with cat feces

B. Ingesting rasperries

C. Swimming in fresh water and/or infected pool water

D. Drinking clear mountain water

A

Ingesting undercooked meat or food contaminated with cat feces

39
Q

T/F: toxoplasma gondii causes disease by reactivation of latent infection in immunocompromised hosts, or as a primary infection in pregnant women

A

True

40
Q

Toxoplasma gondii infection can present in the many ways listed below, but which of these is most frequent infection?

A. Fever and lymph node enlargement

B. Liver enlargement

C. Spleen enlargement

D. Pneumonia

E. Meningeal and brain enlergement

A

Meningeal and brain enlergement

41
Q

What are the two most common protazoan infections seen in AIDS patients with CD4 T cell count below 200?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

Pneumocystis jiroveci

42
Q

T/F: Examination of the retina will reveal retinal inflammation with toxoplasma exposure, or CT scan can be used for dx

A

True

43
Q

T/F: Pneumocystis jitoveci can live comfortable in the lung without causing symtoms in immunocompetent people

A

True

44
Q

A woman with an absolue CD4 T cell count is found to have pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. A silver staining or immunoflourescent staining alveolar lung secretions should reveal what?

A. Kite like parasite

B. Flying saucer appearing fungi

C. Psedopodia

D. Round oocysts

A

Flying saucer appearing fungi

45
Q

What are the 5 different protazoa that cause malaria? Hint: They all start with plasmodium

A

Falciparum

Knowlesi

Malariae

Ovale

Vivax

FuKn MOVe there’s malaria pandamonium

46
Q

The malaria protazoa grow in liver cells and spread to RBCs, where they burst and cause systemic symptoms like fever, sweats, and chills. Different plasmodium species burst at different intervals. All of the following burst cycles occur every 48 hours, except which of the following that is on a 72 hour cycle?

A. Plasmodium falciparum

B. Plasmodium malariae

C. Plasmodium ovale

D. Plasmodium vivax

A

Plasmodium malariae

NOTE:

Plasmodium malariae is the only quartan malarie, while ovale and vivax are tertiary malarie, and falciparum is in a league of its own

47
Q

Which of the following proteins most directly leads to the cerebral malaria associated with Plasmodium falciparum infection?

A. PfEMP1

B. TNFa

C. IL-1

D. IFN-y

A

PfEMP1

NOTE:

PfEMP1 causes sequestration of RBCs and blocks blood flow, which leads to to decreased tissue perfusion and ischemia that contributes to dev. of cerebral malaria

48
Q

Which of the following malaria causing protazoa is able to continuously reproduce in the liver?

A. Plasmodium falciparum

B. Plasmodium oval and Plasmodium vivax

C. Plasmodium knowlesi

D. Plasmodium malariae

A

Plasmodium oval and Plasmodium vivax

49
Q

Which of the following plasmodia is the most aggressive, and the only one able to continously reproduce within circulating RBCs?

A. Plasmodium falciparum

B. Plasmodium oval and Plasmodium vivax

C. Plasmodium knowlesi

D. Plasmodium malariae

A

Plasmodium falciparum

NOTE: fever and chills tends to be erradic with this one

50
Q

Understand the life cycle of plasmodia and how they go through: Mosqito stage, Liver cell stage, RBC stage

A
51
Q

How is Babesiosis, a similar infection to malaria, spread?

A. Mosquitos

B. Spiders

C. Ticks

D. Ants

A

Ticks

NOTE:

babesiosis is different from malaria in that its spread from ticks, and does not infect liver cells and thus there’s no exo-erythrocytic phase

52
Q

Leishmania and Trypanosoma are transmitted by the bite of blood-sucking insects. Which og these is zoonotic and transmitted to humans by the bites of a sandfly?

A

Leishmania

53
Q

Leishmania and Trypanosoma are transmitted by the bite of blood-sucking insects. Which og these is zoonotic and transmitted to humans by the bites of a tsetse fly?

A

Trypanosoma

54
Q

Leishmanias has 5 disease causing family members which all have the ability to invade phagocytic cells. However, the clinical presentation of infection differs based on the invasiveness and the host’s immune response. Which of the following cause Visceral Leihmaniasis, a disease that predominantly affects malnourished children that are later seen the massive spleenomegaly and hepatomegally?

A. Lesihmania tropica

B. Leishmania chagasi

C. Leishmania donovani

D. Leishmania braziliensis

E. Leishmania major

A

B. Leishmania chagasi

C. Leishmania donovani

55
Q

West African sleeping sickness is notable for slowly progressing fevers, wasting, and late neurological symptoms. This disease is caused by an infection of which of the following?

A. Trypanosoma cruzi

B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

D. None of the above

A

Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

56
Q

East African sleeping sickness is more severe than the west-african version. After the formation of the hard, red, painful ulcer with subsequent healing, there is a rapid progression from recurrent fevers to early neurologial diseae that causes death within weeks to months. This disease is caused by an infection of which of the following?

A. Trypanosoma cruzi

B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

D. None of the above

A

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

57
Q

Chagas disease is the American disease caused by trypampsoma. This disease begins with a chagoma (a hard reddened area where the parasite entered), and then systemic symptoms, and lastly cardiac arrhthmias and megaly, megacolon, and painful swallowing. This kissing disease is caused by which of the following?

A. Trypanosoma cruzi

B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

D. None of the above

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

58
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi causes chagas disease and is spread from rodents, opposums, and armadillos to humans via which of the following vectors?

A. Mosquitos

B. Tsetse fly

C. Sandfly

D. Reduviid bug

A

Reduviid bug

59
Q

Which of the following is primarily transmitted throuhg deer tick?

A. Leishmania tropica

B. Babesia microti

C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

D. Plasmodium vivax

A

Babesia microti

60
Q
A

MOD-Exam 3 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions