Virology M/C Questions from document Flashcards

1
Q

The term “viral virulence” relates to:

a. The ability of the virus to cause disease in its natural host species.
b. The ability of the virus to cause cytopathic effects (CPE) in cell culture.
c. The ability of the virus to cause disease in humans.
d. The ability of the virus to spread systemically and infect a variety of tissues.
e. The ability of the virus of cause disease in a specified host.

A

e. The ability of the virus of cause disease in a specified host.

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2
Q

Choose the best answer to finish the sentence: Swabs for virological investigation should be collected…

a. Into a commercially available aerobic bacteriological swab - the medium provided with these swabs is suitable for both viral and bacteriological samples.
b. Into a commercially available anaerobic bacteriological swab - the medium provided with these swabs is suitable for both viral and bacteriological samples.
c. Dry into a sterile container (e.g. red top blood tube), so that any viruses present will not be diluted by the medium.
d. Into a viral transport medium, which contains proteins to stabilize the virus and antibiotics to prevent bacterial growth.
e. Into a sterile EDTA blood tube if the swab contains bloody discharge, so that it won’t coagulate during transport to the laboratory.

A

d. Into a viral transport medium, which contains proteins to stabilize the virus and antibiotics to prevent bacterial growth.

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3
Q

The samples for virological investigation should be transported to the laboratory:

a. As soon as possible, preferably within 24 hours of collection. The samples should be put in a freezer immediately after collection and then thawed when ready for transport. The samples should be transported cold with ice packs.
b. As soon as possible, preferably within 24 hours of collection. The samples should be kept cold, but not frozen after collection and during transport.
c. Within a week of collection, providing they are kept in a fridge.
d. As soon as possible, preferably within 24 hours of collection. If the samples are transported to the laboratory soon after collection there is no need to maintain the cold chain during transport.
e. Any time after collection as long as the samples are maintained in the fridge. If the samples were collected using sterile technique all viruses will survive in the fridge for extended periods of time.

A

b. As soon as possible, preferably within 24 hours of collection. The samples should be kept cold, but not frozen after collection and during transport.

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4
Q

Which of the following statements about virus size and complexity is most true?

a. The smallest viruses are smaller than viroids.
b. The largest viruses are about as complex as Escherichia coli.
c. The largest viruses can replicate independently of living cells.
d. The smallest viruses consist only of protein
e. The smallest viruses are larger than prions.

A

e. The smallest viruses are larger than prions.

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5
Q

Which of the following is least useful as a basis for classifying viruses
into families?

a. DNA or RNA genome.
b. Double-stranded or single-stranded genome.
c. Intranuclear or intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies.
d. Helical, icosahedral, or complex structural symmetry.
e. Enveloped or non-enveloped virions.

A

c. Intranuclear or intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies.

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6
Q

Which of the following stages in the virus replication cycle is the drug Tamiflu thought to target?

a. Adsorption.
b. Attachment.
c. Uncoating.
d. Synthesis.
e. Release.

A

e. Release.

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7
Q

Soluble CD4 has been used experimentally as an anti-HIV drug and may yet prove useful in veterinary medicine. Which of the following stages in the virus replication cycle is it thought to target?

a. Adsorption.
b. Attachment.
c. Uncoating.
d. Synthesis.
e. Release.

A

b. Attachment.

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8
Q

Which of the following is the most commonly and widely used method for the cultivation of mammalian viruses?

a. Organ cultures.
b. Experimental animals.
c. Primary cell cultures.
d. Secondary cell cultures.
e. Continuous cell lines.

A

e. Continuous cell lines.

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9
Q
  1. A cytopathic effect (CPE) is sometimes observed when cultivating viruses in vitro. Which of the following statements about CPE is most correct?
    a. Some kinds of virus cause a characteristic CPE. For example, herpesviruses tend to cause formation of syncytia.
    b. Dead cells, killed by the virus, tend to look large, angular, and paler than surrounding healthy, uninfected cells.
    c. It may take weeks for a CPE to develop. Multiple cell passages may have to be done before CPE can be observed.
    d. Some kinds of virus grow very well in cell culture but cause no CPE whatsoever.

e. If CPE develops very rapidly, it may be difficult to distinguish it from cytotoxicity
due to a toxic substance in the clinical specimen (i.e., the inoculum).

A

a. Some kinds of virus cause a characteristic CPE. For example, herpesviruses tend to cause formation of syncytia.
b. Dead cells, killed by the virus, tend to look large, angular, and paler than surrounding healthy, uninfected cells.
c. It may take weeks for a CPE to develop. Multiple cell passages may have to be done before CPE can be observed.
d. Some kinds of virus grow very well in cell culture but cause no CPE whatsoever.

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10
Q

Which of the following are viral non-structural proteins? Choose all correct answers (there may be more than one).

a. Integrase.
b. Reverse transcriptase.
c. Hyaluronidase.
d. Hexokinase.
e. Peplomerase.

A

a. Integrase.

b. Reverse transcriptase.

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11
Q

Which of the following statements about viral structure are true? Choose all correct answers (there may be more than one).

a. Structural symmetry facilitates virion self-assembly.
b. Cubic symmetry is a synonym for icosahedral symmetry.
c. Individual virus families contain viruses of helical or icosahedral symmetry, but not both.
d. Virions with complex symmetry have both helical and icosahedral symmetry.
e. Helical symmetry is a feature of the viral nucleocapsid, not of the envelope.

A

a. Structural symmetry facilitates virion self-assembly.
b. Cubic symmetry is a synonym for icosahedral symmetry.
c. Individual virus families contain viruses of helical or icosahedral symmetry, but not both.
e. Helical symmetry is a feature of the viral nucleocapsid, not of the envelope.

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12
Q

Laboratory results of virus isolation are usually available:

a. Within 24-48 hours. This is how long it takes for viral colonies to become visible on agar plates.
b. Within 2-3 days for positive samples, but it may take up to 1 week for negative samples, as these are typically passaged in the appropriate cells 2-3 times before being reported as negative.
c. Within 1-3 weeks for positive samples, but it may take up to one month or longer for negative samples, as these are typically passaged in the appropriate cells 2-3 times before being reported as negative.
d. Within 24-48 hours, as viruses multiply very fast and typically millions of viruses are produced from one infected cell within hours.
e. Within 1 week for negative samples, but it may take longer for positive samples, as the viruses cultured would have to be further identified.

A

c. Within 1-3 weeks for positive samples, but it may take up to one month or longer for negative samples, as these are typically passaged in the appropriate cells 2-3 times before being reported as negative.

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13
Q

Which of the following statements about viral genomes is least true?

a. Most DNA virus families have double-stranded genomes.
b. Some RNA viruses have segmented genomes, but there are no DNA viruses with segmented genomes.
c. There are no known RNA viruses with circular genomes.
d. DNA virus genomes vary in size much more than do RNA virus genomes.
e. There are no known RNA viruses with double-stranded genomes.

A

c. There are no known RNA viruses with circular genomes.

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14
Q

T/F Antiviral drugs inhibit specific steps in viral replication.

A

True

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15
Q

T/F Resistance to antiviral drugs is very rare, as viruses cannot change as rapidly as bacteria.

A

False

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16
Q

T/F Enveloped viruses are typically fragile and easily killed outside their hosts.

A

True

17
Q

Killed vaccines are safer and as such, killed vaccines are more commonly used in veterinary medicine than live vaccines.

A

False

18
Q

T/F A single serum sample positive for antibody to a virus indicates that the animal from which the blood was collected had been recently infected with this virus.

A

False

19
Q

A kitten with upper respiratory disease is most likely to be infected with which of the following viruses:

a. Feline immunodeficiency virus.
b. Feline herpesvirus.
c. Feline coronavirus.
d. Feline astrovirus.
e. Feline infectious peritonitis virus.

A

b. Feline herpesvirus

20
Q
  1. Choose the least correct statement regarding Pseudorabies:
    a. It is caused by Suid herpesvirus type 1.
    b. In dogs, it presents with clinical signs similar to rabies with incoordination, paralysis and convulsions.
    c. Adult swine infected with the Pseudorabies virus typically do not develop severe disease, but may abort.
    d. Dogs can become infected via ingestion of infected raw pig meat.
    e. It is a zoonotic disease.
A

e. It is a zoonotic disease.

21
Q

Which of the following viruses is least likely to cause neurologic disease
in a horse?

a. Equid herpesvirus type 4.
b. Equid herpesvirus type 1.
c. Borna disease virus.
d. Eastern equine encephalitis virus.
e. Feline infectious peritonitis virus.

A

e. Feline infectious peritonitis virus.

22
Q

Which of the following viruses is least likely to cause neurologic disease in a horse?

a. Equid herpesvirus type 1.
b. Borna disease virus.
c. Western equine encephalitis virus.
d. Equine influenza virus.

A

d. Equine influenza virus.

23
Q
  1. Which of the following viruses is least resistant to adverse environmental conditions:
    a. Canine parvovirus.
    b. Equid herpesvirus type 1.
    c. Orf virus.
    d. African swine fever virus.
    e. Bovine papillomavirus.
A

b. Equid herpesvirus type 1.

24
Q

One of the characteristics common to all herpesviruses is their ability to establish latency in their hosts. Choose the best statement describing the relationship between the host and a herpesvirus in a latent stage:

a. During latency there is a very limited production of progeny viruses.
b. During latency there is no production of progeny viruses, but limited transcription of the viral genome can occur.
c. All herpesviruses establish latency exclusively in neural tissues.
d. Once the virus enters a latent stage, it can be reactivated only if the host becomes re-infected with the same herpesvirus.
e. Vaccination against herpesviruses is typically effective in preventing development of latency.

A

b. During latency there is no production of progeny viruses, but limited transcription of the viral genome can occur.

25
Q

Choose the best option from the following.Herpesviruses:

a. Typically cause a short illness followed by recovery and elimination of the virus.
b. Stimulate solid (possibly life-long) immunity. Recovered animals are refractory to subsequent herpesviral infections.
c. Establish a life-long infection in their hosts, with a constant low-level production of infectious virus.
d. Are very resistant in the environment and as such, are easily transmitted by fomites over extended areas.
e. Typically establish a life-long infection due to their ability to become latent.

A

e. Typically establish a life-long infection due to their ability to become latent.

26
Q

You are asked to advise on biosecurity measures to control the spread of respiratory viruses in a cattery. Which of the following statements is least correct?

a. Feline calicivirus and Feline herpesvirus are the two most common respiratory viruses of cats.
b. Both viruses are fragile in the environment and don’t survive well outside their hosts.
c. Both viruses can be transmitted by aerosol.
d. There are vaccines available for both viruses.
e. Asymptomatic infections can occur with both viruses.

A

b. Both viruses are fragile in the environment and don’t survive well outside their hosts.

27
Q

Which of the following clinical presentations is least typical of herpesviral infection:

a. Encephalitis.
b. Ulcerative skin lesions.
c. Abortion.
d. Upper respiration disease.
e. Pancreatitis.

A

e. Pancreatitis.

28
Q

One of the characteristics common to all herpesviruses is their ability to establish latency in their hosts. Choose the least true statement describing the effects of latency on diagnosis and control of herpesviral diseases:

a. Detection of latently infected animals is difficult, as these animals appear clinically normal and are not shedding the virus.
b. Latently infected animals can re-activate the virus when stressed. As such, they can develop herpesvirus-associated disease even if not exposed to a source of an infectious virus (e.g. a clinically sick animal).
c. Latently infected animals can be detected by serological testing, as they are always positive for anti-herpesviral antibody, even though they are not shedding the virus.
d. Latently infected animals are not infectious. However, they do become infectious when they re-activate the virus.
e. Vaccination against herpesviruses is typically ineffective in preventing development of latency.

A

c. Latently infected animals can be detected by serological testing, as they are always positive for anti-herpesviral antibody, even though they are not shedding the virus.

29
Q

A serum sample from a mare that aborted due to a suspected Equid herpesvirus 1 infection tested positive for EHV-1 antibodies in a virus neutralisation test. Choose the incorrect interpretation of this result:

a. The positive result confirms that the mare aborted due to EHV-1 infection.
b. The mare might have aborted due to the EHV-1 infection, but in order to confirm a recent EHV-1 infection a four-fold rise in titre between the acute and convalescent serum samples would have to be demonstrated.
c. The positive result indicates that the mare has been likely exposed to EHV-1 at some point in the past, but tells us little about the timing of infection.
d. It is possible that the mare has never been infected with EHV-1, as the positive serum titre to EHV-1 may have resulted from either vaccination or infection with an antigenically similar virus EHV-4.
e. The mare has been exposed to either EHV-1 or EHV-4 at some point in the past. These two viruses cannot be distinguished serologically in a neutralisation test.

A

a. The positive result confirms that the mare aborted due to EHV-1 infection.

30
Q

Which of the following is least true of Malignant catarrhal fever in New Zealand?

a. It occurs sporadically.
b. It is caused by Alcelaphine herpesvirus type 1.
c. It features a characteristic vasculitis.
d. It is most important in farmed red deer.
e. It is epidemiologically linked to contact with sheep.

A

b. It is caused by Alcelaphine herpesvirus type 1.

31
Q

You are called to investigate an abortion “storm” that is occurring in a mob of heavily-pregnant mares. On close questioning, you learn that a ‘new’ mare has recently been introduced from another part of the country. Which of the following herpesviral causes should be at or near the top of your differential list?

a. Equid herpesvirus type 1.
b. Equid herpesvirus type 2.
c. Equid herpesvirus type 3.
d. Equid herpesvirus type 4.
e. Equid herpesvirus type 5.

A

a. Equid herpesvirus type 1.

32
Q

Which of the following disease manifestations is least typical of herpesvirus infections in mammals?

a. Respiratory disease.
b. Hepatitis.
c. Central nervous system changes.
d. Lymphoproliferative disorders.
e. Ulcerative skin lesions.

A

b. Hepatitis

33
Q

Which of the following statements are true of alphaherpesviral latency? Choose all correct answers (there may be more than one).

a. During latency, virus particles cannot be detected during any routine diagnostic test.
b. Because of latency, measurement of antiviral antibodies is uninformative.
c. There may be no viral protein whatsoever in the host’s body during latency.
d. During latency, virus can nevertheless be transmitted from host to host.
e. Latency is most often achieved in nerve ganglia and lymphocytes.

A

a. During latency, virus particles cannot be detected during any routine diagnostic test.
b. Because of latency, measurement of antiviral antibodies is uninformative.
c. There may be no viral protein whatsoever in the host’s body during latency.
e. Latency is most often achieved in nerve ganglia and lymphocytes.

34
Q

Which of the following is not a well recognised consequence of equid herpesvirus 1 infection?

a. Abortion.
b. Encephalomyelitis.
c. Upper respiratory disease.
d. Genital mucosal ulcerations.
e. Perinatal foal mortality.

A

d. Genital mucosal ulcerations.

35
Q

T/F
Following EHV-1 infection, horses develop a life-long immunity to re-infection, but the latent virus can still be re-activated.

A

FALSE

36
Q

T/F

Vaccination against EHV-1 is protective against the neurological form of disease.

A

FALSE

37
Q

T/F
Herpesviruses stimulate solid (possibly life-long) immunity. Recovered animals are refractory to subsequent herpesviral infections.

A

FALSE

38
Q

T/F

Infection with the Aujeszky’s disease virus causes fatal meningoencephalitis in cattle, sheep, dogs, foxes, and rabbits.

A

TRUE

39
Q

T/F

Herpesviruses typically cause a short illness followed by recovery and elimination of the virus.

A

FALSE