Virology Flashcards

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1
Q

T/F: all helical viruses are enveloped

A

True

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2
Q

T/F: all naked viruses are icosahedral

A

True

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3
Q

Which viral protein is responsible for evasion of host defense?

A

Antigenic (serotypic) variants

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4
Q

Lipid membrane is acquired as the virus exits from the cell in the process called

A

Budding

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5
Q

All enveloped viruses acquire envelope from plasma membrane except

A

Herpesvirus - from nuclear membrane

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6
Q

T/F: enveloped viruses are more stable and harder to inactivate

A

False

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7
Q

Infectious/not infectious?: naked nucleic acids of (-) strand ssRNA and dsRNA viruses

A

Not infectious

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8
Q

Infectious/not infectious?: purified nucleic acids of most dsDNA (except poxviruses and HBV)

A

Infectious

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9
Q

Infectious/not infectious?: (+) strand genome ssRNA viruses

A

Infectious

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10
Q

Cause of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies

A

Prions
Nonpathogenic as alpha-helix
Pathogenic as beta-pleated sheet

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11
Q

T/F: all viruses are haploid

A

False - retroviruses are not haploid

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12
Q

Viruses with segmented genomes

A
BOAR
Bunyaviruses
Orthomyxoviruses (influenza)
Arenaviruses
Reoviruses (Rotavirus)
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13
Q

Negative-strand RNA viruses

A
Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication
Arenaviruses
Bunyaviruses
Paramyxoviruses
Orhtomyxoviruses
Filoviruses
Rhabdoviruses
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14
Q

When one virus produces a protein that can be used by another virus

A

Complementation

Eg. Hepatitis D and B

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15
Q

2 different viruses infect the same cell

A

Phenotypic mixing

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16
Q

Responsible for causing epidemics

A

Genomic ressortment

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17
Q

Phase in viral growth curve: no virus is detectable

A

Phase 2 eclipse period

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18
Q

Phase in viral growth curve: amount of detectable viruses reached plateau

A

Phase 4 latent period

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19
Q

Phase in viral growth curve: derrangement if cell function –> lysis and cell death, remarkable amplification in number of viral particles

A

Phase 5 cytopathic effect

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20
Q

What are the phases of the viral growth curve?

A
Phase 0: entry
Phase 1: decline
Phase 2: eclipse period
Phase 3: rise period
Phase 4: latent period
Phase 5: cytopathic effect
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21
Q

Phase in viral growth curve: viruses decrease in number but continues to function

A

Phase 1: decline

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22
Q

Visual or functional change in infected cells

A

Cytopathic effect

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23
Q

Oncogenic viruses induce transformation and unrestrained growth

A

Malignant transformation

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24
Q

Infected cells appear normal but are producing large numbers of progeny viruses

A

Commensal symbiosis

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25
Q

Bind cytokines and block their ability to nteract with receptors on their intended targets

A

Cytokine decoys

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26
Q

Reduce the expression of antigen presenting cells and inactivate complement

A

Virokines

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27
Q

Produce viruse for long periods of time and can serve as a source of infection for others

A

Carrier state

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28
Q

Not producing virus at the present but can be reactivated at a subsequent time

A

Latent infections

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29
Q

Long incubation period, often measured in years

A

Slow virus infections

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30
Q

Laboratory diagnosis: definitive

A

Complement fixation, hemagglutination inhibition, neutralization, fluorescent-antibody assay, radioimmunoassay, ELISA

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31
Q

Gold standard in viral diagnosis

A

Presence of viral DNA or RNA

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32
Q

Killed vaccines

A
RIP Always
Rabies
Influenza
Polio (Salk's)
hepatitis A
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33
Q

Recombinant vaccines

A

Hepa B

HPV (types 6, 11, 16, 18)

34
Q

Live attenuated vaccines

A

MMR (only live-attenuated may be given to HIV+ pts)
Varicella
Sabin’s polio
Yellow fever

35
Q

DNA viruses

A

DNA viruses are HHAPPPPy viruses
Hepadna, Herpes
Adeno
Pox, Parvo, Polyoma, Papilloma

36
Q

The only DNA virus with a single-stranded DNA

A

Parvovirus (parvovirus B19)

37
Q

All DNA viruses have a LINEAR DNA..EXCEPT:

A

Papilloma
Polyoma
Hepadna

38
Q

The only DNA virus that do not have an icosahedral symmetry

A

Poxvirus - complex

39
Q

The ONLY DNA virus that replicated outside the nucleus

A

Poxvirus - because it cannot penetrate the nuclear membrane

40
Q

Parvovirus are transmitted via

A

Respiratory drolets

Transplacental

41
Q

Chronic B19 infection in immuodeficient patients can cause

A

Pancytopenia

42
Q

The only virus with pentofiber

A

Adenovirus

43
Q

Adenovirus infection in the GUT

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis

44
Q

Parvovirus B19 histopath finding

A

Cowdry type B intranuclear inclusions

45
Q

Naked virus with ds circular DNA, icosahedral nucleocapsid, infects squamous cells and induce formation of cytoplasmic vacuoles (koilocytes)

A

Human papilloma virus

Papovaviridae

46
Q

HPV: encode proteins that inactivate tumor suppresor genes

A

Gene E6 and E7

47
Q

HPV of skin and plantar warts

A

HPV 1-4

48
Q

HPV in condylomata accuminata, respiratory tract papillomas; most common viral STD

A

HPV 6 and 11

49
Q

HPV in carcinomas of the cervix, penis and anus

A

HPV 16, 18, 31 and 33

50
Q

HPV treatment for genital, skin and plantar warts

A

Genital warts: podiohyllin
Skin warts: liquid nitrogen
Plantar warts: salicylic acid

51
Q

2 types of viral symmetry

A

Spherical/ icosahedral

Helical

52
Q

This drug is an immune disease modifier approved to treat actinic keratosis, superficial basal cell carcinoma and condylomata accuminata

A

Imiquimod

53
Q

HSV 1&2 site of latency

A

HSV 1: trigeminal ganglia

HSV 2: lumbosacral ganglia

54
Q

Large, pink to purple intranuclear inclusions which can be found in adenoviruses and herpes sinolex viruses

A

Cowdry type A inclusions

55
Q

Tzanck smear: multinucleated giant cells

A

HSV

56
Q

Tx HSV that can shorten duration of lesions, reduce extent of shedding with no effect on the latent state

A

Acyclovir

57
Q

Dewdrop on rose petal appearance incubation period

A

Varicella 14-21 days

58
Q

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome involves which ganglion and cranial nerve

A

Geniculate ganglion

Facial nerve - paralysis

59
Q

Culture medium of CMV

A

Shell tubes

60
Q

Most common cause of congenital abnormalities especially in the 1st trimester

A

CMV

Congenital CMV infection

61
Q

Microcephaly, seizures, deafness, jaundice, blue berry muffin baby

A

Congenital CMV infection

62
Q

DOC for CMV

A

Ganciclovir

63
Q

Patient presents with fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Athlete is made to stop sports due to a rare but possible complication of

A

Splenic rupture
Infectious mononucleosis/ kissing disease
CMV

64
Q

African man with unilateral facial asymmetry

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

CMV

65
Q

Associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma manifesting with dark purple flat to nodular skin lesions appearing at multiple sites

A

Human Herpesvirus-8

Tx: surgery, radiation

66
Q

What is the brick-shaped poxvirus with linear dsDNA showing what intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions?

A

Variola virus
Smallpox
Guarnieri bodies

67
Q

Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions in molluscum contagiosun

A

Henderson-peterson bodies

68
Q

Tx of molluscum

A

Cidofivir

69
Q
Interpret:
HBsAg positive
Anti-HBs negative
Anti-HBc negative
HBeAg positive
A

Incubation period

70
Q
Interpret:
HBsAg positive
Anti-HBs negative
Anti-HBc positive IgG
HBeAg negative
A

Chronic carrier

71
Q
Interpret:
HBsAg negative
Anti-HBs positive
Anti-HBc negative
HBeAg negative
A

Vaccinated

72
Q
Interpret:
HBsAg positive
Anti-HBs negative
Anti-HBc positive IgM
HBeAg positive
A

Acute infection

73
Q
Interpret:
HBsAg negative
Anti-HBs negative
Anti-HBc positive IgM
HBeAg negative
A

Window period

74
Q
Interpret:
HBsAg negative
Anti-HBs negative
Anti-HBc positive IgG
HBeAg positive
A

Chronic active

75
Q
Interpret:
HBsAg negative
Anti-HBs negative
Anti-HBc positive IgM
HBeAg negative
A

Complete recovery

76
Q

HepB infection is associated with which autoimmune vasculitides

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

77
Q

HepB treatment

A

Interferon- alpha

Lamivudin

78
Q

All RNA viruses have single-stranded RNA except

A

Reovirus and Rotavirus

79
Q

All RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm except

A

Influenza

Retrovirus

80
Q

All Picornaviridae viruses are transmitted via oro-fecal except

A

Rhinovirus