Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pediatrics (Ref: Topnotch notes) > Viral Infections > Flashcards

Viral Infections Flashcards

0
Q

Virus that causes measles

A

Paramyxoviridae (RNA VIRUS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Period of communicability of measles

A

4 days before and 4 days after the onset of rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prodrome of measles

A

High grade fever
Conjunctivitis
Colds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Branny desquamation

A

Measles (rash)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do you give to prevent measles complications?

A

Vitamin A single dose
100,000 iu orally for 6-12month old
200,000 iu > 1 yr old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Post exposure prophylaxis for measles

A
  1. Measles Ig witihin 6 days (0.25 ml/kg) Im

2. Measles active vaccine for > 1 yr old within 72hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This is a chronic complication of measles with delayed onset

A

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Stage 1 SSPE

A

Irritable
Temper outbursts
Reduced attention span

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Stage 2 SSPE

A

Myocolnus (inflammation of the basal ganglia)

Consciousness is maintained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Stage 3 SSPE

A 
Choreoathetosis
Immobility
Dystonia
Lead pipe rigidity
Deterioration of sensorium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Stage 4 SSPE

A

Loss of critical centers for breathing, HR, BP

DEATH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Three day measles

A

Rubella

German measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Viral Cause of rubella

A

Togaviridae (RNA virus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Period of communicability of rubella

A

7 days before and 7 days after onset of rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most characteristic sign of rubella

A

Retroauricular, posterior cervical and postoccipital lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Forscheimer spots

A

Rubella

Discrete rose spots on the soft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Blueberry muffin skin lesions

A

Congenital rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

IUGR, congenital cataracts, microcephaly, sensorineural hearing loss, structural heart defects, later sequelae of motor and mental retardation

A

Congenital rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Viral cause of mumps

A

Paramyxovirodae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Usual presenting sign of mumps

A

Painful enlargement of parotid glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Period of communicability of mumps

A

1-2 days before onset of parotid swelling until 5 days after its onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Alarming manifestations of mumps

A

Edema of homolateral pharynx and soft palate
Edema of larynx
Edema over manubrium and upper chest wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most frequent complication of mumps

A

Meningoencephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Other less common complication of mumps

A

Orchitis and epididymitis
Oophoritis
Dacryoadenitis or optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Nagayama spots

A

Roseola

Ulcers in the uvulopalatiglossal jx in asians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cause of roseola

A

Human herpes virus type 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Latent type of roseola

A

Type A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Type of roseola that causes > 99% of cases

A

Type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Fever for 3-5 days with fussiness

A

Roseola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Primary varicella infection

A

Chicken pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Reactivation of varicella infection

A

Herpes zoster/shingles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dewdrop on a rose petal

A

Rash of varicella zoster

Starts on trunks
Vesicular centrifugal rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cause of varicella

A

Neurotropic Human herpes virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Period of communicability of varicella

A

1-2 days before onset of rash until 3-7 days adter its onset and when all lesions have crusted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Skin lesion with zigzag scarring associated with atrophy of the affected limb

A

Cicatrix

In congenital varicella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Stigmata of VZV fetopathy

A

Skin
Extremities
Eyes
Brain

36
Q

Lifetime risk for herpes zoster

A

10-15%

With 75% of cases occuring after 45 yo

37
Q

Ramsay hunt syndrome

A

Aka herpes zoster oticus

Sx: facial nerve paralysis, vesicles over the ears

Involvement of the geniculate ganglion

38
Q

When best to give acyclovir in herpes zoster

A

Most effective within 24 hrs of onset of rashes

39
Q

Post exposure prophylaxis for herpes zoster

A

Active vaccine within 3-5 days exposure

Anti vzv Ig for immunocompromised, pregnant, newborns exposed to maternal varicella: within 96 hrs ( 125 units/10kg IM)

Newborns with moms positive for varicella infection 5 days before to 2 days after delivery

40
Q

Cause of hand foot mouth disease

A

Coxsackie virus A16

41
Q

Gold standard in the diagnosis of HSV infection

A

Virus culture

42
Q

Management for disseminated HSV infection

A

Acyclovir 30mg/kg/day 3 doses as one hr IV infusion for 14-21 days

43
Q

Management for genital herpes

A

Topical acyclovir
Valacyclovir
Famciclovir

44
Q

Cause for poliomyelitis

A

Enterovirus from picornaviridae

45
Q

Cause of herpangina

A

Coxsackievirus A

46
Q

Cause of erythema infectiosum

A

Parvovirus B19 (only single stranded DNA virus)

47
Q

Fifth disease

A

Erythema infectiosum

48
Q

Slapped cheek as hallmark sign

A

Erythema infectiosum

49
Q

Lacy reticulated appearance esp on extensors

A

Erythema infectiosum

Central clearing of macular erythema

50
Q

Exanthem subitum

A

Aka roseola

51
Q

Sixth disease

A

Roseola

52
Q

Rashes appear when fever abates

A

Roseola

53
Q

Rash and aplastic crisis

A

Erythema infectiosum

54
Q

Parts of brain affected by HSV

A

Frontal lobe
Temporal lobe
Limbic system

55
Q

Hallmark: Skin vesicles and shallow ulcers

A

Herpetic gingivostomatitis

56
Q

Mode of transmission of poliomyelitis

A

Fecal oral

57
Q

Most common clinical form of poliomyelitis

A

Abortive (nonspecific febrile illness)

58
Q

Specimen of choice when diagnosing poliomyelitis: end of 1st week

A

Blood (virus isolation)

59
Q

Specimen of choice when diagnosing poliomyelitis: end of 2nd week

A

Throat

60
Q

Specimen of choice when diagnosing poliomyelitis: end of 3rd week

A

Feces

61
Q

Cause of infectious mononucleosis

A

Epstein-barr virus (member of herpesvirus)

Man is the SOLE SOURCE

62
Q

Mode of transmission of infectious mononucleosis

A

Sexual intercourse; oral secretions

63
Q

Classic triad of infectious mononucleosis in adolescents

A

Fatigue
Pharyngitis
Generalized lymphadenopathy

64
Q

Best known clinical syndrome due to Epstein-Barr virus

A

Infectious mononucleosis

65
Q

Serologic test to confirm infectious mononucleosis

A

Heterophile antibody (Paul- Bunnell antibodies)

Or

Specific EBV antibodies

66
Q

Most feared complication of infectious mononucleosis

A

Splenic rupture

67
Q

What syndrome?

  • Symmetrical rashes on cheek
  • Multiple erythematous papules
  • Looks like atopic dermatitis
  • Associated with infectious mononucleosis
A

Gianotti-Crosti syndrome

68
Q

MCC of congenital infection

A

Cytomegalovirus

69
Q 
Hepatosplenomegaly
Jaundice
Petechiae
Purpura
Microcephaly
A

Cytomegalic inclusion disease

70
Q

Pathognomonic for CMV infection

A

Strikingly enlarged epithelial or mesenchymal cells with large intranuclear inclusions

71
Q

Influenza virus -from what family

A

Orthomyxoviridae

72
Q

Influenza type: causes epidemic; primary; has animal host; causes myocarditis

A

Type A

73
Q

Influenza type: primary; causes epidemic; no animal host; myocarditis and myositis

A

Type B

74
Q

Influenza type: causes sporadic cases of URTI

A

Type C

75
Q

Diagnosis to confirm influenza

A

Hemagglutination inhibition

76
Q

Prophylaxis and treatment for Type A influenza outbreaks

A

Amantadine and Rimantadine

77
Q

Vector of dengue fever

A

Aedes aegypti

78
Q

Generalized maculopapular rash that spares palms and soles, appears 1-2 days after defervescence

A

Hermann’s rash

80
Q

Dengue with warning signs

A 
Abdominal pain
Persistent vomiting
Mucosal bleed
Clinical fluid accumulation
Lethargy, listlessness
Liver enlargement > 2 cm
Inc Hct with dec PLT
81
Q

In rabies, the most severe disease is evident in which part of the nervous system?

A

Pons and floor of 4th ventricle

82
Q

Seen in brain of rabid animal

A

Negri bodies

83
Q

Category of bites

A

Category 1:Licking, Nibbling of intact skin

Category 2: superficial abrasians without bleeding

Category 3: lacerations, transdermal bites, puncture wounds with bleed, all wounds on HEAD AND NECK with or without bleeding

84
Q

Active anti-rabies vaccination

A

0.5 ml IM on days 0,3,7,14,28

5th dose is optional

85
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis for category 3 bites

A

Coamoxiclav 40 mkD x 7 days

86
Q

Cells affected by HIV

A

Cells expressing CD4+ molecules and cells of monocyte-macrophage lineage

87
Q

Confirmatory test for HIV

A

Western immunoblot or IF assay

88
Q

Best single porgnostic indicator in HIV

A

Viral load

102
Q

Dengue without warning signs

A 
Rashes
Aches and pains
Nausea and vomiting
Tournique test positive
Leukopenia

Pediatrics (Ref: Topnotch notes) (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions