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PHEW > Veterinary Public Health > Flashcards

Veterinary Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

What is the RCVS definition of veterinary public health?

A

“ Veterinary Public Health encompasses the whole “Farm to Fork” area and includes aspects of husbandry of animals, their welfare and health at production and the slaughter stage…occupational zoonoses….”

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2
Q

What is the WHO definition of public health?

A

“the sum of all contributions to the physical, mental and social well-being of humans through an understanding and application of veterinary science”

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3
Q

The “farm to fork” concept includes what types of products?

A

Any product of animal origin: Meat Milk Eggs

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4
Q

What is the vets role in ftf?

A

Throughout the process vets are responsible for the health of the animals (mental and physical) and the pathology, microbiology and risk assessment of the food.

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5
Q

FBO + examples.

A

Food Business Operator Farmer, abattoir manager, cheese maker, butcher, supermarket.

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6
Q

Carcass dressing

A

Removal of the hide, appendages and viscera.

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7
Q

What current legislation exists to protect animals at slaughter?

A

WATOK - The Welfare of Animals at the Time of Killing (England) Regulations 2013 (new domestic legislation which will be made in 2013). 1099/2009 WASK - The Welfare of Animals (Slaughter or Killing) Regulations 1995 (existing domestic legislation) AWA - Animal Welfare Act 2006

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8
Q

Regulation 1099/2009 outlines this procedure for bleeding animals at the slaughterhouse.

A

“For simple stunning and slaughter without prior stunning, the two carotid arteries or vessels shall be systematically severed.”

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9
Q

Regulation 1099/2009 defines a slaughter house as….. +2 examples

A

“any establishment used for slaughtering terrestrial animals which falls within the scope of Regulation 853/2004” eg white meat slaughter houses or on-farm slaughter facilities.

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10
Q

Two circumstances not defined as slaughter horses by Reg 1099/2009

A

1) on-farm slaughter of less than 10,000 poultry and lagomorphs per year; 2)on-farm slaughter of poultry and lagomorphs where the number of animals slaughtered are over 10,000 but the farmer is a member of an appropriate assurance scheme and either dry plucks by hand or slaughters for less than 40 days per year, and the supply is local.

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11
Q

Regulation 1099/2009 defines a killing house as… +2 examples

A

Establishments where terrestrial animals are killed for commercial purposes other than for human consumption, including associated facilities for moving and lairaging animals. eg knackers yard or collection centres

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12
Q

Traceability records of animal products leaving the farm must include.. (x3)

A

Name and address of the businesses to which you supplied the products, nature and quantity of the products supplied, date on which the supplies left your farm.

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13
Q

What specific hygiene rules are made for poultry egg producers in the UK?

A

Eggs must be kept: Clean and dry, away from sources of strong odours, protected from shocks, out of direct sunshine.

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14
Q

Outline the schedules covered by WASK.

(x12)

A
  1. The licensing procedure for slaughtermen
  2. All aspects of slaughterhouses and knackers’ yards
  3. Animals awaiting slaughter or killing
  4. Restraining of animals
  5. Permitted methods of stunning or killing animals
  6. Requirements for bleeding or pithing animals.
  7. Gas mixtures for killing pigs, domestic fowls or turkeys.
  8. Slaughtering or killing of horses.
  9. Requirements for slaughtering for disease control.
  10. Requirements for killing mink and fox.
  11. Requirements for hatchery waste killing
  12. Relgious slaughter rules
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15
Q

Antemortem inspection of animals must be undertaken by who?

What do they check for?

A

Official or approved vetenarian appointed by the FSA.

  • checking records, including food chain information
  • examining the animals
  • issuing the health certificate.
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16
Q

Name three traditional and three modern methods of meat preservation.

A
  1. Traditional - cooking, curing, drying, salting, smoking etc
  2. Modern - Irradiation, chemical, packaging (tinning)
17
Q

What is the vets role in food microbiology?

A

Protect consumer health and secure food trade

18
Q

Draw and describe the graph of microbial growth phases.

A
19
Q

D value

A

D-value refers to decimal reduction time and is the time required at a certain temperature to kill 90% of the organisms being studied.

20
Q

What is the D60 value of Salmonella, Campylobacter and E. faecalis?

What is meant by D60?

A

D60 is the D value at 60oC

  • Salmonella - 3-6.5
  • Campy - 0.2-0.4
  • E. faec - 5-20
21
Q

Z value

A

The z-value is a measure of the change of the D-value with varying temperature. Specifically, the increase in temperature required to decrease D to 1/10 of its previous value.

22
Q

F value

A

The F value is the time in minutes at a specific temperature (usually 250ºF or 121.1ºC) necessary to kill a population of cells or spores

23
Q

What are the intrinsic factors affecting microbial growth?

(x5 - briefly describe how each affects microbes)

A
  1. Antimicrobial factors - eg egg white proteins, shell and cuticle, milk proteins, nitrates and wood smoke compounds
  2. Water availability - aw, microbe dependent, affected by environment and processing
  3. Redox potential - +/- electrons, microbe and food dependent
  4. pH and buffering capability - affects transmembrane transport of nutrients, ATP synthesis, enzyme stability, growth and metabolism.
  5. Nutrients - Microbe dependent
24
Q

What are the preferred nutrient conditions of fungi?

A

High sugar content

eg Fruit added to yoghurt

25
Q

What is the preferential pH of:

  1. Bacteria
  2. Yeasts
  3. Filamentous fungi?
A
  1. B - 6-8 - remember aciduric and alkali
    1. lactobacilli - 5-6
  2. Y - 4.5-6
  3. FF - 3.5-4
26
Q

Outline the pH of these different food commodities:

  • Muscle
  • Fish
  • Milk
  • Egg white
A
  • M - 5.6
  • F - 6.2-6.5
  • M - 6.4-6.6
  • EW - 9.2
27
Q

What redox potenitals are preferreb by oligate anaerobes and obligate aerobes?

Name an example of each of these and match tem with a food commodity they would like to grow in.

A
  1. Obligate anaerobe - low or negative RP - Clostridia - Cooked sausages and meat
  2. Obligate aerobes - high RP - Pseudomonas - Mince meat and lemon
28
Q

What methods can be used to decrease the aw value of foods?

A
  • drying
  • freezing
  • solutes such as NaCl/ sugar added
  • altered microstructure of foods
29
Q

Aw value

A

Water activity is defined as the ratio of water vapor pressure of the food substrate to the vapor pressure of pure water at the same temperature

30
Q

How does the water environment preference/capability differ between halophilic, osmophilic and xerophilic microorganism?

A
  1. Halophilic - High salt concentrations
  2. Osmophilic - High ionized substances (sugars)
  3. Xerophilic - Dry foods
31
Q

What extrinsic factors affect microbia growth?

(x3 - briefly explain)

A

Extrinsic - ie environmental factors

  1. Relative humidity - affects water
  2. Gaseous atmosphere - affects redox potential
  3. Temperature - microbe dependent
32
Q

Which microorganisms are characteristics of these gross signs of spoilage on meat?

  1. White spots on meat surface
  2. Green-blue mould
  3. Black spots on chilled carcasses
A
  1. Sporotrichum carnis
  2. Penicillium
  3. Cladosporium herbarum
33
Q

Which two gases are often utilised in modified atmosphere packaging?

What effects do they have which reduce microbial growth? (x2)

A

CO2 and N2

  1. pH - when mixed with water produces carbonic acid, reducing surface contamination
  2. weak organic acid which affects membranes altering nutrient transport and enzyme avaliablity
34
Q

Which terms describe the preference of gaseous atmosphere of microorganisms?

(x4 - briefly describe)

A
  1. Aerobic - O2 required
  2. Facultative anaerobic - +/- O2
  3. Strictly anaerobic - only absence of O2
  4. Micro-aerophilic - prefer atosphere with reduced O2 tension
35
Q

Which terms desribe the temperature preferences of microorganisms?

(x4 - describe)

Which are most important when preserving food?

A
  1. Thermophiles - 40-90
  2. Mesophiles - 5-47
  3. Psychrophiles - -5-20
  4. Psychrotrophs - -5-35

Mesophiles and psychrotrophs are most important in food preservation.

36
Q

Name microorganisms which fit into each of these temperature categories.

  • Psychrophile
  • Psychrotroph
  • Mesophile
  • Thermotolerant
  • Thermophile

Which types of foods would be at risk in each category?

A
  • P - Thamnidium elegans - frozen
  • P - Listeria monocytogenes - chilled
  • M - E. coli, Salmonella, Staph. aureus - room temp
  • T - Bacterial and fungal spores - pasteurized
  • T - C. botulinum - canned
37
Q

What implicit factors affect microbial growth?

(x4 - describe)

A
  1. Growth rate - bact>mould on fresh meat
  2. Mutualism - one helps another
  3. Antagonism - lactic fermentation restricts bact
  4. Physiological status - strain and adaptation
38
Q

Describe some features of the microbial stress response.

A

The stress response alters bacterial behaviour, increasing survivial.

  • Temp change - change in membrane lipids
  • Salmonella stress response genes - increases growth rate, virulence and adaptive behaviour

PHEW (6 decks)

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