Veterinary Nursing Flashcards

1
Q

On what basis is the maximum blood collection volume calculated for blood donors of any species?

A

Lean body weight

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2
Q

Exuberant granulation tissue (proud flesh) would be most likely to complicate the healing of a wound on a horse in which location?

A

Fetlock
Exuberant granulation tissue is most likely to develop on equine wounds over high motion areas and/or distal to the carpus or hock

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3
Q

Which choice correctly matches the animal with its type of placentation?

A. Rabbit - endotheliochorial
B. Sow - hemochorial, discoid
C. Bitch - zonary
D. Queen - epitheliochorial
E. Mare - cotyledonary

A

C. Bitch - zonary

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4
Q

A small dairy goat farm has had an abortion storm. The veterinarian send out some of the fetuses for necropsy.

The pathologist finds the organism causing the abortions, which is also the organism responsible for Q-fever.

What organism was identified?

A

Coxiella burnetti

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5
Q

What is the most common cause of acute renal failure in horses?

A

Toxic medications (aminoglycosides, NSAIDs)

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6
Q

Which of the following statements about tetanus antitoxin in horses is correct?

A. It should be administered to every injured horse, regardless of vaccination history
B. It should be administered annually, unless an injury occurs and last dose was >6 months prior
C. It should only be administered to horses with wounds whose vaccination status is unknown
D. It cannot be administered at the same time as the tetanus toxoid
E. It should never be administered to horses with open lacerations

A

C. It should only be administered to horses with wounds whose vaccination status is unknown

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7
Q

Which direction is abaxial?

A

Away from the midline of the limb

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8
Q

What is the definition of ranula?

A

A swelling under the tongue caused by an accumulation of saliva within the local tissues

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9
Q

What is the correct description of a mucocele?

A

A salivary mucocele is a disorder in which saliva accumulated in surrounding tissues after trauma to the salivary duct or gland.

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10
Q

During initial evaluation, an adult German Shepherd dog is breathing at 25 breaths per minute.

The respiration rate is?

A

Normal

A normal range for a dog’s respiration is about 15 to 30 breaths per minute

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11
Q
A
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12
Q

A capnograph measures what?

A

CO2 in inhaled and exhaled air

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13
Q

Which one of the following groups is most likely to be infected with feline immunodeficiency virus?

A. Adult, free-roaming males
B. Cats living indoors in households with pet birds
C. Multiparous queens in catteries
D. Young kittens in crowded catteries

A

A. Adult, free-roaming males

FIV is a retrovirus spread between cats primarily by bites and sexual activity.

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14
Q

A bitch was bred several times during estrus, but the specific date of ovulation is unknown.

If the dog is pregnant, when can she be expected to whelp?

A

58-72 days

Gestation in dogs is about two months long; approx. 64-66 days from ovulation as determined by progesterone or LH monitoring, or 58-72 d from breeding at an unknown stage of estrus.

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15
Q

What is the flehman response?

A

A normal stallion response to pheromones and new smells, a sign of colic, or associated with granulosa cells tumors in mares.

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16
Q

Which of the following types of blood pressure monitors relies on the transfer of motion of the arterial wall to a cuff placed over a peripheral artery?

A. Oscillometric
B. Photoplethysmography
C. Capnograph
D. Doppler

A

A. Oscillometric

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17
Q

Approximately what width should a blood pressure cuff be in a dog or cat as compared to the limb at the site of cuff placement?

A

40% circumference of limb

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18
Q

Using a 5-point condition score (BCS), an animal that is normal weight and body condition would score what?

A

3/5

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19
Q

Which of the following choices is the most important clinical issue associated with a broken blood feather in a bird?

A. Hemorrhage
B. Cyst formation
C. Permanent feather deformation
D. Infection
E. Flight impairment

A

A. Hemorrhage

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20
Q

What is the average length of estrus (“heat”) in a dog?

A

9 days
Estrus in dogs generally lasts 9 days (range 2-21 days, but 6-12 is typical).

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21
Q

What is the best way to diagnose a rhythm disturbance in a dog (or horse) that is not identified during routine ECG?

A

A Holter monitor recording

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22
Q

How long should a neonatal large animal patient (such as a foal) be kept in sternal recumbency after administering oral medications, and why?

A

More than one minute; decrease risk of aspiration

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23
Q

How much colostrum should a calf receive after birth, and within what time interval from birth?

A

10-12% of their body weight in colostrum, at least half within 4-6 hours after birth

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24
Q

A late-term mare has a waxy deposit on the end of each teat. What is the most likely explanation?

A

About to go into labor. “Waxing” happens in about 95% of mares 6-48 hours before foaling

25
Q

Which one of the following phrases most correctly describes immunoglobulin E (IgE)?

A

IgE is the principle antibody produced during an allergic reaction

26
Q

Mr. Conway has made an appointment to bring in Jaspurr, a 2-yr-old male cat for pruritis. What is the problem?

A

Itching

27
Q

What is the appropriate deworming protocol for puppies and kittens?

A

Pyrantel poamoate every 2 weeks, for 3 doses, starting at 2 weeks

28
Q

Which hormone is produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation?

A

Progesterone

29
Q

A client is bringing in a seven-year-old Shar Pei dog with epiphora. What is the problem?

A

An overflow of tears from the eye

30
Q

What disease can cause abortions, neurologic disease, and upper respiratory tract disease in horses?

A

Equine herpesvirus

Highly contagious via aerosolization, respiratory secretions, fomites, and aborted fetuses.

31
Q

What correctly explains why piglets are very susceptible to hypothermia?

A

Low subcutaneous body fat and no fur

32
Q

Which of the following choices does not procue energy when ingested?

A. Cellulose
B. Protein
C. Mineral
D. Carbohydrate
E. Fats

A

C. Mineral

33
Q

At what point after parturition in cattle, is a placenta determined to be retained?

A

12 hours

Typically the placenta will be passed within 2-4 hours

34
Q

What is a balling gun used for?

A

Administering large capsules and pills to cattle and small ruminants

35
Q

What is ketosis in cattle?

A

A metabolic problem in high producing dairy cattle. Ketosis is a common name for acetonemia.

36
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an example of which type of immunological process?

A

An example of failure of self-tolerance

37
Q

At what age can both puppies and kittens stand and have good postural reflexes?

A

Puppies and kittens can stand and should have good postural reflexes by 3 weeks of age.

38
Q

What is the best option to support a down cow to stand for prolonged periods?

A

Hydroflotation

It involves maintaining a cow in a specialized float tank

39
Q

What is the most common underlying cause of ptyalism (slobbers) in guinea pigs?

A

Dental abnormality

40
Q

A busy small animal clinic has several wards to help separate animals by species and types of diseases. Which of the following should have its cage cleaned first in the morning?

A. A pair of rabbits who are boarding
B. Dog getting immunosuppressive chemotherapy
C. Cat recovering from a routine ovariohysterectomy
D. Puppy with parvovirus diarrhea

A

B. Dog getting immunosuppressive chemotherapy

An immunosuppressed animal should be handled and have its cage cleaned first to prevent infection by other organisms.

41
Q

How can benign tumors cause significant problems?

A

Benign tumors can cause impaired tissue function by taking up space (crowding) in the tissue

42
Q

What is a thrombus?

A

A blood clot that forms and remains attached to the wall of the vessel, where it can obstruct blood flow

43
Q

The bulbus gland is is found where in dogs?

A

The bulbus gland is is found at the base of the penis, when engorged, it helps to form a mating tie with the female in heat

44
Q

Which hormones assists in the secretion and release of milk after parturition?

A

Oxytocin

45
Q

What causes milk fever in cows?

A

Low blood calcium

46
Q

What is the common name for hyomagnesemia in lactating cows and sheep?

A

Grass tetany

Hypomagnesemia: Low blood magnesium

47
Q

What is a trichobezoar?

A

Hairball

48
Q

What is the maximum amount for blood that can safely be drawn from a 220-gram neonatal puppy over the coarse of one week if the puppy has a circulating blood volume of 15-20 mls?

A

2 mls

No more than 10% of the patient’s circulating blood should be drawn over the coarse of a week.

49
Q

Where is the medial canthus found?

A

Inside corner of the eye.

50
Q

What is the correct description of an allergen?

A

A substance that provokes an allergy

51
Q

What is cria?

A

A neonatal or very young camelid

52
Q

What does Escherichia in Escerichia coli represent?

A

Eschericheria is the genus, coli is the species

53
Q

Natriuresis is best defined as what?

A

Sodium wasting or excessive loss of sodium in the urine

54
Q

Which of the following diseases can be epizootic?

A. Transmissible gastroenteritis in swine
B. Gastric dilation volvulus in dogs
C. Demodex canis, demodectic mange
D. Clostridium tetani infection, Tetanus

A

A. Transmissible gastroenteritis in swine

55
Q

What is a safe occupational level of exposure to chemotherapeutic drugs?

A

None. There is no safe level of occupational exposure to chemotherapeutic medications.

56
Q

Which neonatal large animal species routinely requires supplemental heat for the first few weeks of life?

A

Piglets

57
Q

What is the definitive host for Cuterebra spp.?

A

Rabbits

58
Q

What makes the feline penis unique?

A

Backward-projecting cornified spines in the glans.