Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Veterinary immunology > Veterinary immunology deck I > Flashcards

Veterinary immunology deck I Flashcards

1
Q

Name 4 types of immune system dysregulation.

A

hypersensitivity/allergy
immunodeficiency
autoimmune disease
immune neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define antigen

A

Molecules that can stimulate a specific immune-response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are CD markers?

A

The cluster of differentiation is a protocol used for the identification and investigation of cell surface molecules present on leukocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a plasma cell?

A

also called plasma B cells or effector B cells

Plasma cells are differentiated B-lymphocyte white blood cells capable of secreting immunoglobulin, or antibody.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the two major branches of the adaptive immune system?

A

defense against extracellular invaders &
defense against intracellular invaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

immunity to extracellular invaders is mainly the function of what cell type?

A

B cells (B-lymphocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

B lymphocytes produce what?

A

antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the humoral immune response?

A

B-cell-mediated immune response incorporating antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

immunity to intracellular invaders is mainly the function of what cell type?

A

T-cells (T-lymphocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the cell-mediated immune response?

A

T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the 3 types of T-cell?

A

cytotoxic T cells (kill cells)
helper T cells (provide signals to activate adaptive immune responses, memory T cells are helpers)
regulatory T cells (regulate immune responses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

natural killer cells are part of what type of immunity?

A

innate immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is referred to as the humoral part of adaptive immunity?

A

immunoglobulins (= antibodies)
the complement system (complementary molecules that enhance or induce)
note: the complement system is also innate immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is referred to as the cell mediated part of adaptive immunity?

A

T cells
B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

are natural killer cells innate or adaptive

A

Classically, NK cells are regarded as members of the innate immune system, but recent studies have elucidated that NK cells are part of both the innate and adaptive immune response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are PAMPs

A

pathogen-associated molecular patterns

are molecules recognized by pattern-recognition receptors (PRRs), which play a key role in innate immunity in the recognition of pathogens or of cellular injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are DAMPs

A

damage-associated molecular patterns

include proteins capable of recognizing molecules released by damaged cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are PRRs

A

pattern-recognition receptors

are proteins capable of recognizing molecules frequently found in pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name 4 types of Innate immunity cells:

A

neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic and mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Lysozyme

A

an antimicrobial enzyme produced by animals that forms part of the innate immune system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is Lactoferrin

A

a key molecule in immune and inflammatory processes.

a mediator of both innate and adaptive responses.

can bind iron which bacteria need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cytokine definition

A

Cell-derived soluble protein messenger molecules that regulate the cells involved in the defense of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are TLRs

A

toll-like receptors

can bind DAMPs and PAMPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

where are TLRs found

A

mainly on sentinel cell surfaces likely to encounter invaders
eg. neutrophils, macrophages, epithelial cells, enterocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are LPS?

A

lipopolysaccharide

are large molecules consisting of a lipid and a polysaccharide, are bacterial endotoxins.

generally found on gram- bacterial cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is lipoteichoic acid?

A

is a major constituent of the cell wall of gram+ bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

lectin definition

A

circulating carbohydrate-binding proteins involved in innate immune defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are sentinel cells?

A

cells such as macrophages, dendritic cells and mast cells, which embed themselves in tissues such as skin and act as the body’s first line of defense

innate immunity, PRRs found on sentinel cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

name 3 major cytokines

A

tumor necrosis factor-alfa
interleukin-1
interleukin 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is COX-2

A

cyclooxygenase-2

an enzyme responsible for inflammation and pain

some nsaids target this enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

define acute-phase protein

A

those proteins whose serum concentrations increase or decrease by at least 25 percent during inflammatory states.

Such proteins are termed either positive or negative acute phase reactants (APR), respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are chemokines produced by and what do they do

A

small proteins produced by sentinel cells

they induce leukocyte chemotaxis (response to a chemical gradient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the 5 cardinal signs of acute inflammation

A

heat (calor)
redness (rubor)
swelling (tumor)
pain (dolor)
loss of function (functio laesa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

leukotriene definition

A

biologically active complex lipid, local inflammatory hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is lysozyme?

A

are a family of enzymes with antimicrobial activity characterized by the ability to cleave peptidoglycans.

forms part of the innate immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the complement system

A

an essential innate defense subsystem consisting of enzymes, regulatory proteins and receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

name 3 pathways for complement activation

A
  • the alternative
  • the lectin (mannose binding)
  • the classical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the classical pathway for complement activation triggered by?

A

antibodies (so its associated with the adaptive immune system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the alternative and lectin pathways for complement activation triggered by?

A

microbial carbohydrates so PAMPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

the most abundant complement protein found in serum?

A

C3

a disulfide-linked heterodimer with alfa and beta chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

which pathway for complement activation does the majority of activation?

A

the alternative pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

which pathway for complement activation is the oldest?

A

the lectin pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is FH?

A

factor H
a critical component of the alternative complement pathway
inactivates component C3b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

antigens are associated with what type of immunity?

A

adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

dendritic cell function?

A

antigen-presenting cells

they link innate and adaptive immunity. The main function of these innate cells is to capture, process, and present antigens to adaptive immune cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

3 basic examples of DAMPs

A

host DNA
ATP
HMGB proteins (High mobility group box)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is HMGB1?

A

high mobility group box 1

Intracellular, very potent DAMP -protein

triggers many cells associated with inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is flagellin?

A

bacterial protein, a PAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is Unmethylated DNA?

A

DNA from single-cell organisms (mammal DNA is
methylated), is a PAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

PRR function?

A

Recognition of molecules/molecule groups,
signal to nucleus,
initiation of immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are RLRs and what do they recognize?

A

RLRs = RIG-1-like receptors
(retinoic acid-inducible gene)

recognize viral RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are NLRs and what do they recognize?

A

NOD-like receptors
(nucleotide-binding oligomerization domain)

recognize intracellular bacteria and viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are CLRs?

A

C-type lectin receptors
(soluble, extracellular PRRs, require Ca+)
recognize carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What type of TLR can bind glycoproteins?

A

Transmembrane TLRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What type of TLR can bind bacterial and fungal proteins?

A

Surface TLRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What type of TLR can bind bacterial and viral RNA and DNA?

A

Intracellular TLRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

name the 3 most important TLRs?

A

TLR2, 4 and 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is an inflammasome?

A

Protein complex e. g. inside macrophages

Require two signals from PAMPs or DAMPs or both

Activation of caspase

Secrete big amounts of proinflammatory cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Steps of diapedesis?

A

1 – Endothelial activation
2 –Tethering
3 – Rolling (Selectins)
4 –Adhesion (Integrins)
5 – Crawling
Transmigration/Diapedesis/extravasation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

3 killing mechanisms of the innate system?

A

Phagocytosis (intracellular killing)
Release of antimicrobial products for extracellular killing
NK cell-mediated cytotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

name 3 phagocytic cell types

A

Neutrophils
Macrophages
Dendritic cells (DCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

define phagosome

A

Bacterium enclosed into a phagocytic cell in a vacuole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

define neutrophil left shift

A

immature, ungranulated neutrophils released into the systemic blood in the event of acute inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is meant by ‘respiratory burst’?

A

is characterized by the rapid release of ROS, superoxide anion and H2O2, predominately from neutrophils, for pathogen killing. (but also macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are NETs?

A

Neutrophil extracellular traps using dna filaments to create a net

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what leukocyte is important in response to parasitic infection?

A

eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what leukocyte is important in response allergies and hypersensitivity responses?

A

basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what leukocyte releases histamine upon degranulation?

A

mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

nervous tissue macrophages are called?

A

microglial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

connective tissue macrophages are called?

A

histiocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

hepatic macrophages are called?

A

kuppfer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

dendritic cells found in the skin are called?

A

langerhans’ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

4 subtypes of DCs

A

Langerhans cells (skin)
Migratory
Resident (secondary immune organs)
Plasmacytoid (type-1-IFN response to viruses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

WHat are ILCs?

A

ILCs: innate lymphoid cells, similar to T-cells,
react immediately,
their specific functions and use so far unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are NK-cells?

A

NK-cells: natural killer cells;
play role in innate immune response, recognize abnormal host cells, are actually lymphocytes
Note: do not confuse with NKT-cells!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

After macrophages have phagocytized a pathogenic microorganism they do what?

A

present antigen to adaptive immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Innate immunity can recognize invading microorganism by what?

A

PAMPs (pathogen-associated molecular patterns)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

describe an M1 macrophage

A

defend against microbes and produce proinflammatory cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

describe an M2 macrophage

A

reduce inflammation and produce cytkines that suppress immune responses

promote tissue repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

the 3 steps of clearance of soluble antigen from the blood stream

A

distribution
catabolism
immune elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is GM-CSF?

A

Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor,
a hematopoietic growth factor that functions as a cytokine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

define efferocytosis

A

the process by which apoptotic cells are removed by phagocytic cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is SAP?

A

serum amyloid P, the major acute phase protein in rodents

it is a PRR (like CRP is)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is SAA?

A

serum amyloid A, a major acute phase protein in cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is AGP?

A

Alpha-1 acid glycoprotein

is a significant acute phase protein in mammals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is haptoglobin (hp)?

A

acute-phase marker of RBC destruction.

Its value decreases and may even be absent when RBCs are destroyed at twice the normal rate.

Binds hemoglobin, inhibiting microbe iron uptake and prevents kidney damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is hepcidin?

A

an acute phase protein that regulates iron availability

prevents efflux of iron from enterocytes by binding ferroportin which makes iron unavailable to hemoglobin synthesis and thus results in infection related anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is MAP?

A

also called pig-MAP, a major acute phase protein

major in pigs, but also found in cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is a neg. APP and name a couple.

A

a negative acute phase protein where levels fall during acute inflammation

eg. albumin and transferrin which serve as sources of amino acids during infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is SIRS

A

systemic inflammatory response syndrome

lethal form of shock resulting from overwhelming exflux of DAMPs into the bloodstream

is a cytokine storm/ hypercytokinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

WHat is DIC?

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation

a severe syndrome characterized by the dysregulation of the clotting and fibrinolytic cascades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is MODS?

A

multiple-organ dysfunction syndrome

usually sequal to septic shock, poor prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is amyloidosis?

A

deposition of insoluble amyloid proteins in organs.

pathogenesis: amyloids are formed from erroneously formed protein chains

can eventually lead to tissue destruction and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the 2 general types of intercellular signals?

A

volume transmission
network transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what is volume transmission

A

one of the 2 general types of intercellular signaling

involves a released mediator molecule that diffuses through extracellular fluid to the receiving cell where it binds to cell surface receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what is network transmission

A

one of the 2 general types of intercellular signaling

involves two cells coming into direct contact using complementary receptors, signals are transmitted through these 2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what is an interleukin

A

a type of cytokine (immune messenger/mediator molecule) that signals between lymphocytes and other leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How many interleukins are currently known and numbered?

A

39

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what is an interferon

A

a type of cytokine that is produced in response to viral infections or immune stimulation

they interfere with viral RNA/protein synthesis so have antiviral activity

100
Q

what are the 3 major types of interferon?

A

Type I interferons (IFN-alfa & IFN-beta)
Type II interferon (IFN-gamma)
Type III interferons (IFN-lambda)

101
Q

What cell type produces the tumor necrosis factors?

A

macrophages and T cells

102
Q

define pleiotropic

A

producing more than one effect

so in relation to cytokines - they affect many different cells

103
Q

3 most important pathways that trigger cytokine release?

A

antigens acting on TCR (T cell receptors) or B cell antigen receptors (BCR)

PAMPs binding to PRRs on sentinal cells

antigen-antibody complexes binding to FcR(antibody receptors) on phagocytic cells

104
Q

What is FcR?

A

means Fc receptor

is a protein found on the surface of immune cells,
name is derived from its binding specificity for a part of an antibody known as the Fc (fragment crystallizable) region.

105
Q

define tyrosine kinase

A

an enzyme/protein integrated cell surface receptor
signal transducers

can phosphorylate
(transfer a phosphate group from ATP to the tyrosine residues of specific proteins inside a cell)

106
Q

what is G-CSF

A

granulocyte colony stimulating factor

107
Q

what is a STAT protein?

A

stands for signal transducers and activators of transcription

108
Q

cytokine signaling is regulated in what 3 ways?

A

by changes in receptor expression
by the presence of specific binding proteins
by cytokines exerting opposite effects

109
Q

What is the NF-kB pathway?

A

Nuclear factor kappa-light-chain-enhancer of activated B cells is a protein complex

the most significant signal transduction pathway in the immune system

110
Q

What are NODs?

A

NOD-like receptor

are a specialized group of intracellular proteins that play a critical role in the regulation of the host innate immune response.

sensors of PAMPs and DAMPs

111
Q

what is the NF-AT pathway?

A

Nuclear factor of activated T-cells (NFAT) is a family of transcription factors shown to be important in immune response.

112
Q

what is the NF-AT pathway?

A

Nuclear factor of activated T-cells (NFAT)

signal transduction through T cell antigen receptors

NF-AT is a family of transcription factors shown to be important in immune response.

113
Q

What is the JAK-STAT pathway?

A

a signal transduction pathway

The binding of extracellular ligand leads to pathway activation via changes to the receptors that permit the intracellular JAKs associated with them to phosphorylate one another.

114
Q

What are STAT proteins?

A

signal transducers and activators of transcription, mediate many aspects of cellular immunity

115
Q

What is the significance of C3?

A

complement component 3 (or C3)

It covers microbes to destroy them.
High C3 complement levels indicate inflammation in the body.

116
Q

What are the most important opsonizers?

A

complement system and its molecules
antibodies produced by B cells

117
Q

name 3 functions of complement

A

bacteria lysis
phagocyte chemotaxis
bacteria opsonization

118
Q

Where is mannose found?

A

on the walls of bacteria and fungi

119
Q

Name 4 triggers of the alternative pathway

A

• Bacteria
• Fungi
• Viruses
• Tumor cells

120
Q

Name 4 triggers of the classical pathway

A

• Immune complexes
• Apoptotic cells
• Certain viruses
• gram-negative bacteria

121
Q

What is MAC?

A

membrane attack complex

a complement system complex that inserts into microbial cell well to induce cell lysis

122
Q

Complement activator proteins deficiency can
cause?

A

increased susceptibility to some bacterial
infections.

123
Q

Complement regulator proteins deficiency can
cause?

A

autoimmune-like diseases and
uncontrollable system-wide inflammation.

124
Q

Name 3 most important proinflammatory cytokines.

A

IL-1
TNF-alfa
IL-6

125
Q

Name 3 most important proinflammatory cytokines.

A

IL-1
TNF-alfa
IL-6

all can behave systemically as well as locally

126
Q

Name 3 most important proinflammatory cytokines.

A

IL-1
TNF-alfa
IL-6

all can behave systemically as well as locally
all of these are pyrogens

127
Q

2 effects of histamine release in tissues

A

local vasodilation & increased endothelia permeability

causing redness, swelling and pain/itching

128
Q

name 2 mediators that can induce retraction of endothelial cells

A

histamine
NO (nitric oxide)

129
Q

what is VEGF?

A

vascular endothelial growth factor

130
Q

define Granuloma

A

An inflammatory lesion characterized by chronic inflammation with mononuclear cell (mostly monocytes) infiltration and extensive fibrosis.

131
Q

Define phagolysome.

A

a vacuole in the cytoplasm of a cell, containing a phagocytosed particle enclosed within a part of the cell membrane.

132
Q

Define eicosanoids.

A

A group of signaling molecules
derived from the oxidation of fatty acids.

eg. leukotrienes and prostaglandins
– play important roles in mediating inflammation.
– derived from arachidonic acid

133
Q

leukotrienes and prostaglandins are synthesized using what precursor?

A

arachidonic acid

134
Q

define pyrogen

A

a substance, typically produced by a bacterium, which produces fever when introduced or released into the blood.

135
Q

how does fever upregulate the innate immune response?

A

increases neutrophil release, infiltration and respiratory burst

136
Q

how does fever upregulate the adaptive immune response?

A

speeds dendritic maturation, phagocytosis and cytokine action and T-cell emigration

137
Q

how does fever affect T cells?

A

increases T-cell adhesion and transmigration to tissues.
Fever enhances immune surveillance during infection.

138
Q

What is SCC?

A

somatic cell count and also known as california milk test, CMT

using reagent and milk to test for leukocyte content in milk indicating inflammation or infeciton

139
Q

What is TGF-β?

A

transforming growth factor-β

a multifunctional cytokine, is anti-inflammatory and also regulates T cells

140
Q

define serovar

A

another word for serotype

relating to variation within serotypes of a species of bacteria

e.g.salmonella enterica sp. has 2500 different serotypes based on antigenicity

141
Q

what are K antigens

A

bacterial capsular antigens are collectively termed K antigens. this includes some pili and fimbriae of gram- bact.

not to be confused with cell wall polysaccharide antigens called O antigens

142
Q

what are O antigens

A

bacterial polysaccharide cell wall antigens are called O antigens

not to be confused with capsular polysaccharide antigens called K antigens

143
Q

what are F and K antigens?

A

the pili & fimbriae of some gram- bacteria are called F and K antigens

144
Q

bacterial pili function?

A

bind bacteria together and play a role in bacterial conjugation and movement

145
Q

bacterial fimbriae function?

A

bind bacteria to cell surfaces

146
Q

what are H antigens?

A

flagellar antigens

bacterial flagella consisting on flagellin that aid bacterial movement

147
Q

define toxoid

A

toxins modified by treatment with a mild denaturing agent which removes toxicity but retains antigenicity are toxoids

they may be used as vaccines eg. clostridium tetani

148
Q

define virion

A

a complete viral particle

149
Q

define epitope

A

the part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself.

“antigenic determinants”

150
Q

how much is a dalton (Da)

A

defined as 1⁄12 of the mass of an unbound neutral atom of carbon-12

(in its nuclear and electronic ground state and at rest)

151
Q

define hapten

A

are small molecules that can only function as epitopes when bound to larger molecules

152
Q

how are macrophages activated?

A

by certain cytokines such as:
- TNFα
- IFN-gamma
- IL-4 and -13 etc.

153
Q

name 2 types of antigen processing cells

A

dendritic cells and macrophages

154
Q

What are MHC molecules?

A

major histocompatibility complex molecules are specialized antigen-presenting receptors that attach to antigens

T-lymphocytes then “read” or recognize these complexes and an immune response is initiated

155
Q

what are exogenous antigens vs endogenous antigens

A

exogenous ones are usually bacteria that grow in tissues and extracellular fluid

endogenous ones are usually viral and invade cells

156
Q

what classes of MHC molecules are there?

A

class I
class II

157
Q

what are class I MHC molecules

A

major histocompatibility complex molecules made by all nucleated cells and present endogenous antigens

158
Q

what are class II MHC molecules

A

major histocompatibility complex molecules made by specialized antigen-processing cells and present exogenous antigens

159
Q

what are the 3 main cell types to present exogenous antigens?

A

dendritic cells (most important ones)
macrophages
B cells

160
Q

what are FcRs?

A

Fc receptors

bind to antibodies that are attached to infected cells or invading pathogens.
Their activity stimulates phagocytic or cytotoxic cells to destroy microbes, or infected cells by antibody-mediated phagocytosis or antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity.

161
Q

What are Th1 cells?

A

helper 1 (T) cells

stimulate cell-mediated immune responses to protect against intracellular organisms

162
Q

What are Th2 cells?

A

helper 2 (T) cells

stimulate antibody-mediated immune responses to protect against extracellular invaders

163
Q

what is PGE₂

A

Prostaglandin E₂

an inflammatory mediator that regulates the activation, maturation, migration, and cytokine secretion of several immune cells, particularly those involved in innate immunity

164
Q

What is IgA in immunology?

A

Immunoglobulin A is the first line of defence in the resistance against infection, via inhibiting bacterial and viral adhesion to epithelial cells and by neutralisation of bacterial toxins and virus, both extra- and intracellularly.
important role in mediating the adaptive humoral immune defence at mucosal surfaces

165
Q

What is the NF-kB pathway?

A

NF-κB (nuclear factor kappa light chain enhancer of activated B cells)

is a family of highly conserved transcription factors that regulate many important cellular behaviours, in particular, inflammatory responses, cellular growth and apoptosis.

166
Q

What is a TCC

A

terminal complement complex
a complex of proteins typically formed on the surface of pathogen cell membranes as a result of the activation of the host’s complement system, and as such is an effector of the immune system.

167
Q

what is cathelicidin

A

an antibacterial peptide that is primarily stored in the lysosomes of macrophages and polymorphonuclear leukocytes

168
Q

what are the 5 types of Ig?

A

A
D
E
G
M

169
Q

What is the bacterial heat shock protein response?

A

bacteria begin to produce more of these highly antigenic proteins when they are “stressed” such as during fever

170
Q

what is NOS2

A

Nitric oxide synthase 2

is an enzyme which is encoded by the NOS2 gene and expressed in activated macrophages, generates nitric oxide (NO) from the amino acid L-arginine, and thereby contributes to the control of replication or killing of intracellular microbial pathogens.

171
Q

define bacterin

A

vaccines containing killed bacteria

172
Q

polyvalent vaccine

A

a vaccine containing multiple serovars for the same spp. of bacteria or other microorganism for which it is meant to inoculate

173
Q

name 2 living bacterial vaccines

A

brucella abortus vac.
Bacillus anthracis vac.

174
Q

hyphae definition

A

each of the branching filaments that make up the mycelium of a fungus.

175
Q

define Th17 cells

A

T helper 17 cells are a subset of pro-inflammatory T helper cells defined by their production of interleukin 17

176
Q

define adsorption

A

the adhesion of atoms, ions or molecules from a gas, liquid or dissolved solid to a surface.

177
Q

define provirus

A

is a virus genome that is integrated into the DNA of a host cell.

178
Q

what is ADE

A

Antibody-dependent Enhancement (or disease enhancement)

an adaptive immune response phenomenon in which binding of a virus to suboptimal antibodies enhances its entry into host cells, followed by its replication, thus worsening disease.

can result from natural infection or from vaccination.

179
Q

What type of response do Th1 cells cause?

A

Th1 cells lead to an increased cell-mediated response (primarily by macrophages and cytotoxic T cells), typically against intracellular bacteria and protozoa.

are triggered by the polarizing cytokine IL-12 and
their effector cytokines are IFN-γ and IL-2.

180
Q

What type of response do Th2 cells cause?

A

Th2 cells lead to a humoral immune response, typically against extracellular parasites such as helminths.

are triggered by the polarizing cytokines IL-4 and IL-2, and
their effector cytokines are IL-4, IL-5, IL-9, IL-10, IL-13 and IL-25.

The main effector cells are eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells as well as B cells, and IL-4/IL-5 CD4 T cells.

181
Q

define protozoa

A

is an informal term for single-celled eukaryotes, either free-living or parasitic, which feed on organic matter such as other microorganisms or organic tissues and debris.

182
Q

What is a type 1 vs type 2 immune response?

A

Type 1 immunity is critical for defence against many intracellular pathogens, bacteria, viruses and other microorganisms. By contrast, type 2 immunity promotes immunity against extracellular parasites and helminths, helps to maintain metabolic homeostasis and regulates tissue repair following injury

183
Q

what is a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A

is also known as an immediate reaction and involves immunoglobulin E (IgE) mediated release of antibodies against the soluble antigen. Are allergies.

occurs within minutes of antigen exposure. It results from antigen binding to mast cell-associated IgE

This results in mast cell degranulation and release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators.

184
Q

define mitogen

A

is a small bioactive protein or peptide that induces a cell to begin cell division, or enhances the rate of division.

Mitogenesis is the induction of mitosis, typically via a mitogen.

185
Q

define Bacteriophages

A

also known as phages, are viruses that infect and replicate only in bacterial cells.

186
Q

MHC class I region mainly codes for?

A

MHC molecules expressed on most nucleated cells

187
Q

MHC class II region mainly codes for?

A

usually MHC molecules restircted to professional antigen-presenting cells

188
Q

MHC class III region mainly codes for?

A

for a mixture of proteins many of which are important for the innate immune system such as complement

189
Q

The four key antigen receptors of the immune system

A

TCR(T cell receptor),
MHC class I, MHC class II,
BCR (B cell receptor)

190
Q

Function of MHC I

A

Presents all the peptides produced in the cell (like viruses bits)
For controlling what is produced in the cell

191
Q

Function of MHC II

A

APC’s present captured antigens

192
Q

What are Proteasomes

A

are cellular structures that digest intracellular proteins into short stretches of linear polypeptides and are essential to normal antigen processing.

193
Q

Where are MHC I found

A

all nucleated cells (except for gametes)

194
Q

Where are MHC II found

A

sentinel cells (DCs, macrophages etc.) and B cells

195
Q

What type of response do CD4+ T cells promote

A

usually promote humoral immune response
- production of antibodies
- Induction of inflammation
- Macrophage activation

196
Q

What type of response do CD8+ T cells promote

A

usually promote cell-mediated immune response
- production of cytotoxic cells
- killing of abnormal cells

197
Q

Th 1 cell function

A

generally promote cell-mediated responses through macrophages.

198
Q

Th 2 cell function

A

primarily involved in antibody responses through B cells.

199
Q

Th 17 cell function

A

promote neutrophilic inflammation/ so neutrophil recruitment

200
Q

Treg cell function

A

immunosuppression

201
Q

to which type of MHC does CD4 bind?

A

CD4 binds to MHC class II molecules. (which is what APC’s use to present captured antigens)

202
Q

to which type of MHC does CD8 bind?

A

CD8 binds to MHC class I molecules. (which was what infected/abnormal cells use to present the peptides produced in the cell like viruses bits or abnormal to stuff that needs destroying)

203
Q

main function of MHC molecules?

A

to present antigens to teh immune system

204
Q

on what type of cells is CD8 found on?

A

cytotoxic T cells

205
Q

which Ig are most abundent during primary immune response?

A

IgM

206
Q

which Ig offer protection at mucosal surfaces

A

IgA

207
Q

which Ig are most abundent in plasma?

A

IgG

208
Q

which Ig have an anti-helminthic effect?

A

IgE

209
Q

antibodies’ primary function?

A

opsonization

210
Q

what type of T cell kills virus infected cells?

A

CD8+ T cells

211
Q

Th2 function relating to B cells?

A

B-cell isotype switching and thus antibody production

212
Q

Th1 main function?

A

activation of macrophages

213
Q

During adaptive immune response, which Ig appear first?

A

IgM

214
Q

2nd most common Ig (in most mammals)?

A

IgM

215
Q

3rd highest concentration Ig?

A

IgA

216
Q

which one is the smallest Ig molecule?

A

IgG

217
Q

which Ig is most abundent during secondary immune response?

A

IgG

218
Q

define lyophilize

A

freeze-drying

(so the vax that need reconstitution)

219
Q

define vaccine adjuvant

A

an adjuvant is a substance that increases or modulates the immune response to a vaccine

220
Q

3 potential reasons for failure of passive transfer?

A

production failure
ingestion failure
absorption failure

221
Q

what 3 species absolutely require colostrum (because of a lack of transplacental transfer)

A

horses,
ruminants,
swine

222
Q

Attenuated antigen is found in what type of vaccine?

A

In living vaccine

223
Q

describe a Type I response

A

dominated by CD8+ cytotoxic T cells
(endogenous antigen)

  • Th1 helper cells
  • interferon gamma
  • macrophage activation
224
Q

describe a type II response

A

dominated by CD4+ T cells and antibodies

(exogenous antigens)

225
Q

How are hypersensitivities classified?

A

based on their pathogenic mechanisms

226
Q

What are Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A

are inflammatory responses that result from the release of contents of
mast cell,
basophil &
eosinophil cytoplasmic granules.

227
Q

How is Type I hypersensitivity granule release triggered?

A

when antigens bind to IgE on the surface of mast cells or basophils

as a consequence of the molecules released, eosinophils are also attracted to the site

228
Q

IgE production is characteristic to what type of hypersensitivity response?

A

Type I

229
Q

What characterizes atopy immunologically?

A

the excessive production of IgE

3 key cells:
mast cells
eosinophils
basophils

230
Q

The central event of Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A

the degranulation of mast cells

231
Q

What cytokine is crucial for induction of type 2 immune responses?

A

IL-33

232
Q

Name 2 inflammatory eicosanoids

A

leukotrienes
prostaglandins

bonus
platelet-activating factor (PAF) is also one

233
Q

What is TSLP?

A

Thymic stromal lymphopoietin (TSLP)

is an epithelial cell-derived cytokine expressed in skin, gut, lungs, and thymus.

234
Q

What do T cells recognize?

A

peptides

235
Q

what is ISCOM

A

immune stimulating complexes used as vaccine adjuvants

gives a “depot effect”

Formation of depot at the site of injection antigen trapping and slow release at the site of injection ensures constant stimulation of the immune system for production of high antibody titers.

236
Q

What is a T dependent antibody response?

A

Antigens that require the help of T cells for B cell activation are thymus-dependent (T-dependent) antigens.

A thymus-dependent antigen is an immunogen that requires T cell cooperation with B cells to synthesize specific antibodies.

Presentation of thymus-dependent antigen to T cells must be in the context of MHC class II molecules.

TH2 cells specifically recognize class II-presented antigenic determinants and drive B-cell activation, leading to isotype class switching and antibody secretion.

237
Q

What is a T independent antibody response?

A

Antigens that can stimulate B cells without the help of T cells are thymus- independent (T-independent) antigens.

T-independent antigens cannot induce an immunoglobulin switch or immunological memory.

T-independent responses to repeating carbohydrate epitopes stimulate antibody production but do not lead to maturation of the antibody response.

238
Q

Type I hypersensitivity also called? (2)

A

Immediate Hypersensitivity

Mast cell and eosinophil-mediated hypersensitivity

239
Q

Where are mast cells found?

A

in connective tissues and
mucosa including the resp. tract

240
Q

antibodies’ 2 main parts?

A

the constant (base)

the variabale (the end of the receptor parts that can vary)

241
Q

What are you testing for in intradermal allergen prick tests?

A

the presence of allergen specific antibodies in the animal

242
Q

3 major mediators associated with pruritus

A

histamine
TSLP
IL-31

243
Q

general mechanism behind type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A

IgE mediated release of antibodies.
&
mast cell degranulation and release of histamine etc.

e.g. atopic dermatitis

244
Q

general mechanism behind type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Antibody-mediated hypersensitivity & Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

refers to an antibody-mediated immune reaction in which antibodies (IgG or IgM) are directed against cellular or extracellular matrix antigens

result in cellular destruction, functional loss, or damage to tissues. Damage can occur through multiple mechanisms.

e.g. HDN/neonatal isoerythrolysis

245
Q

general mechanism behind type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Neutrophil-Mediated Hypersensitivity

Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity

the formation of antigen-antibody aggregates called “immune complexes.”

They can precipitate in various tissues, and trigger the classical complement pathway.

e.g. MPGN & RAO

246
Q

general mechanism behind type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Delayed (type-)hypersensitivity

T-cell mediated hypersensitivity

involves activated T cells (which release cytokines and chemokines)
and macrophages and cytotoxic CD8+ T cells that are attracted by these

e.g. allergic contact dematitis & tuberculin test

247
Q

MPGN

A

membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

= when immune complexes are deposited in the glomeruli and stimulate basement membrane thickening and glomerular cell proliferation

associated with Type III hypersensitivity reactions

Veterinary immunology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions