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Veterinary immunology > Practice exams compiled > Flashcards

Practice exams compiled Flashcards

1
Q

What is the differentiation system of different cell membrane molecules called (including leukocytes)?

a.
antigen determining region
b.
complementarity determing region
c.
cluster of differentiation
d.
cytocompatibility molecules

A

c.
cluster of differentiation

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2
Q

There are 3 major barriers which protect animal from invading microorganisms. Which one of these do they encounter first?

a.
Adaptive immunity

b.
Physical barriers

c.
Innate immunity

A

b.
Physical barriers

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3
Q

Antibodies are produced by…

a.
B cells

b.
dendritic cells

c.
macrophages

d.
T cells

A

a.
B cells

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4
Q

What is the main principle how innate immune system recognizes invading bacteria and viruses?

a.
Bacteria and viruses are so small in size that it is very easy to differentiate them from normal animal tissue

b.
Bacteria and viruses are structurally and chemically different from animal tissue

c.
Bacteria and viruses make a specific noise which attracts immune system to destroy them

d.
Bacteria and viruses move from tissue to tissue

A

b.
Bacteria and viruses are structurally and chemically different from animal tissue

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5
Q

Innate immune system molecules can…

a.
coat bacteria and viruses so other immune system cells can kill them

b.
combine and form T cells

c.
make adaptive immune system produce lysozyme

d.
start immediate production of specific antibodies

A

Feedback
The correct answer is: coat bacteria and viruses so other immune system cells can kill them

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6
Q

How long does it usually take for acquired immunity to adequately respond to invading microorganisms?

a.
minutes

b.
hours

c.
months

d.
days

A

Feedback
The correct answer is: days

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7
Q

Innate immune system proteins actively…

a.
bind to bacteria and viruses in tissues and blood

b.
track and seek out tissue which was damaged by viruses and bacteria

c.
track and seek out bacteria and viruses in tissues and blood

d.
search for potentially pathogenic bacteria and viruses

A

Feedback
The correct answer is: bind to bacteria and viruses in tissues and blood

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8
Q

If we collect blood from a horse who has survived tetanus infection and collect serum from it and inject it to “tetanus naive horse”, then that horse would be protected against tetanus. Which component of the serum protects naive horse immediately?

a.
antibodies against horse tetanus toxoid receptors

b.
antigens against tetanus toxoid

c.
antibodies against Clostridium tetani (bacterium which causes tetanus)

d.
antibodies against tetanus toxoid

A

Feedback
The correct answer is: antibodies against tetanus toxoid

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9
Q

Which of these from the following list, does the immune system protect animal the best?

a.
bacterial toxins

b.
nuclear radiation

c.
poor animal welfare

d.
ultraviolet light

A

Feedback
The correct answer is: bacterial toxins

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10
Q

Which of these bactericidal molecules can you find in neutrophil’s cytoplasmic granules…
a.
leukotriene

b.
bradykinin

c.
lysozyme

d.
opsonin

A

c.
lysozyme

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11
Q

One of the most important role of dendritic cell is…

a.
to process DAMPs and initiate T cell proliferation

b.
to activate mast cells response to viruses

c.
to process antigens and thus initiate adaptive immune response

d.
to activate eosinophils response to fungal infections

A

c.
to process antigens and thus initiate adaptive immune response

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12
Q

First stage of neutrophil extravasation is…

a.
tethering and rolling

b.
transmigration and chemotaxis

c.
firm adhesion

d.
endothelial activation

A

endothelial activation

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13
Q

What is one of the main strategies how newly formed phagolysosome inside of a macrophage should destroy a captured bacterium?

a.
Injecting unoxidized iron molecules into bacterium cytoplasma

b.
Isolating bacteria from food sources and starving it to death

c.
By physically squeezing the captured bacterium

d.
By lowering the pH

A

d.
By lowering the pH

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14
Q

Which of these animals mainly use liver macrophages to clear viruses and bacteria from blood?

a.
cats

b.
horse

c.
dogs

d.
pigs

A

c.
dogs

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15
Q

Eicosanoids are a group of signaling molecules which are derived from arachidonic acid. What are the 2 most important molecule groups which belong to eicosanoids group?

A

leukotrienes and prostaglandins

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16
Q

One of the symptoms of acute inflammation is swelling which is mainly caused by…

a.
increased vascular permeability and increased blood flow

b.
increased vascular permeability and neutrophil emigration

c.
nerve damage and increased production of cytokines

d.
nerve damage and increased blood flow

A

b.
increased vascular permeability and neutrophil emigration

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17
Q

Interferons are generally acting as…

a.
anti-viral cytokines

b.
anti-tumoral cytokines

c.
anti-bacterial cytokines

d.
anti-parasitic cytokines

A

a.
anti-viral cytokines

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18
Q

Which of these complement proteins is most abundant in the blood serum? It is synthesized by liver cells and macrophages.

a.
C12

b.
C9

c.
C1

d.
C3

A

d.
C3

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19
Q

What is usually the main trigger for release of vasoactive molecules?

A

Tissue damage

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20
Q

What could be the worst outcome from a systemic inflammatory response triggered by massive cytokines concentration increase?

A

death (via cytokine storm AKA Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS))

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21
Q

Hapten is…?

A

a small molecule which binds to body proteins and can cause immune reaction

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22
Q

Viral antigenic drift causes most likely …

a.
radical changes in antigenic structure of the virus, but protective immunity remains.

b.
small changes in antigenic structure of the virus and protective immunity is lost.

c.
small changes in antigenic structure of the virus, but protective immunity remains.

d.
radical changes in antigenic structure of the virus and protective immunity is lost.

A

c.
small changes in antigenic structure of the virus, but protective immunity remains.

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23
Q

Which of these properties of antigen determines (antigenicity) how well the immune system can react to it?

a.
temperature of antigen

b.
presence of prostaglandins

c.
electric charge

d.
size

A

d.
size

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24
Q

Which of these cells has a key function in restoring tissue homeostasis after inflammation by clearing apoptic neutrophils and promoting wound repair?

a.
macrophages

b.
Langerhans cells

c.
Kuppfer cells

d.
dendritic cells

A

a.
macrophages

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25
Q

Which of these listed bacterial cell wall types are most resistant to phagocytosis?

a.
Gram-negative bacterial wall

b.
Spirochetic cell walls

c.
mycobacterial cell wall

d.
Gram-positive bacterial wall

A

c.
mycobacterial cell wall

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26
Q

Which one from the following list is not considered to be part of animal’s normal microbiota?

a.
viruses

b.
protozoa

c.
bacteria

d.
all of these are part of normal microbiota

e.
arthropods

A

d.
all of these are part of normal microbiota

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27
Q

One of the main roles for the spleen is to capture…

a.
blood-borne antigens

b.
antigens from intestines

c.
antigens from epithelium and connective tissue

d.
antigens from feces and urine

A

a.
blood-borne antigens

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28
Q

Which immune system related cells are produced in primary lymphoid organs?

a.
T and dendritic cells

b.
macrophages

c.
B and dendritic cells

d.
T and B cells

A

d.
T and B cells

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29
Q

Secondary lymphoid organs most important function is to…

a.
switch MHC I to MHC II receptors

b.
be the source for lymphocytes and place where they mature

c.
check TCR and BCR self-antigens

d.
trap and respond to foreign antigens

A

d.
trap and respond to foreign antigens

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30
Q

CD4 receptor is almost always found only on T helper cells, but to which receptor does it usually bind?

a.
MHC I

b.
CD8

c.
MHC II

d.
TCR

A

c.
MHC II

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31
Q

TCRs (T cell receptors) variable part is generated…

a.
specifically against specific pathogen

b.
at random

c.
from MHC I molecules

d.
little bit at random, but mostly against specific pathogen

A

b.
at random

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32
Q

Proteasomes are cellular structures that break intracellular proteins into peptides. Why is this important?

a.
for sending threat signal to the nucleus

b.
this is needed to start production of pro-inflammatory cytokines

c.
this is the only way in cell to break down proteins

d.
only if peptide is small enough it can be fitted to MHC molecule

A

d.
only if peptide is small enough it can be fitted to MHC molecule

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33
Q

APCs (antigen presenting cells) can (and will) present self-antigens on MHC molecules, but why T cells don’t react to them?

a.
TCRs (T cell receptors) are generated in a way that they are unable to react self-antigens

b.
AVRIL gene complex helps the T-cells not to produce self-reacting thymocytes

c.
all the strongly self-antigen reacting T cells have already been killed in thymus

d.
T cells have complex regulatory mechanisms which can recognize self-antigens

A

c.
all the strongly self-antigen reacting T cells have already been killed in thymus

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34
Q

The main function of MHC I molecule is to present antigen to…

a.
cytotoxic T cells

b.
Treg cells

c.
B cells

d.
monocytes

A

a.
cytotoxic T cells

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35
Q

TCR (T cell antigen receptor) on T cells is important…

a.
to recognize antigens presented on erythocytes cells MHC I receptors

b.
to recognize antigens presented on dendritic cells MHC II receptors

c.
to recognize antigens presented on TCR on T cell

d.
to recognize antigens presented on B cells BCR receptors

A

b.
to recognize antigens presented on dendritic cells MHC II receptors

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36
Q

In which order is the antibody production triggered by B cells?

a.
T helper cells present antigen to antigen-presenting cells. Antigen-presenting cells present antigen to B cells. B cells differentiate into plasma cells.

b.
T helper cells present antigen with TCR (T cell receptor) to B cells. B cells differentiate into plasma cells. Antigen-presenting cells present antigen to T helper cells.

c.
Antigen-presenting cells present antigen to T regulator cells. B cells differentiate into plasma cells. T regulator cells present antigen with TCR (T cell receptor) to B cells

d.
Antigen-presenting cells present antigen to T helper cells. T helper cells present antigen with TCR (T cell receptor) to B cells. B cells differentiate into plasma cells.

A

d.
Antigen-presenting cells present antigen to T helper cells. T helper cells present antigen with TCR (T cell receptor) to B cells. B cells differentiate into plasma cells.

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37
Q

When secondary immune response is taking place against a specific antigen, then what has changed in the immune system?

a.
anti-pathogen cytokines production would be immensely increased

b.
acquired immune system has formed antigen specific memory cells and immune response would be quicker and stronger

c.
during secondary immune response only the innate immune system response against specific antigen would be stronger

d.
primary and secondary immune responses don’t differ from each other significantly, thus immune system is always ready to fight all kind of different pathogens at maximum strength

A

b.
acquired immune system has formed antigen specific memory cells and immune response would be quicker and stronger

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38
Q

IgA can mainly be found…

a.
on mucosal surfaces

b.
in blood serum

c.
under nerve sheets

d.
in brain tissue

A

a.
on mucosal surfaces

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39
Q

Th2 mediated immune response is generally related to the…

a.
direct cytotoxic response to intracellularly infected cells

b.
cellular immune response through macrophage activation

c.
innate immune response through neutrohil activation

d.
humoral immune response through B cells activation

A

d.
humoral immune response through B cells activation

40
Q

Th1 mediated immune response is generally related to the…

a.
humoral immune response through B cells activation

b.
innate immune response through neutrohil activation

c.
direct cytotoxic response to intracellularly infected cells

d.
cellular immune response through macrophage activation

A

d.
cellular immune response through macrophage activation

41
Q

Antibodies are soluble receptors of these cells…

a.
TCR (T cell antigen receptor)

b.
PRR (pattern recognizing receptor)

c.
MHC II (major histocompatibility complex) receptor

d.
BCR (B cell antigen receptor)

A

d.
BCR (B cell antigen receptor)

42
Q

Central part of the cellular immunity are…

a.
T-cells

b.
mast cells

c.
B-cells

d.
basophiles

A

a.
T-cells

43
Q

Myeloma is a tumor, which originates from …

a.
plasma cells

b.
T cells

c.
myeloid cells

d.
dendritic cells

A

a.
plasma cells

44
Q

What would be the main impact to the secondary immune response if the T-cells wouldn’t be helping B-cells during the primary immune response?

a.
nothing, B cells don’t need T cells to help in order to form B memory cells

b.
dendritic cells wouldn’t have been able to present antigen to B cells

c.
antibody isotype switching wouldn’t have happen

d.
the production of IgM wouldn’t have started

A

c.
antibody isotype switching wouldn’t have happen

45
Q

In which organ do antigen presenting cells, T cells and B cells meet to form immune response against specific antigen?

a.
bone marrow

b.
thymus

c.
brain

d.
lymphnodes

A

d.
lymphnodes

46
Q

Immunoglobulins which are against specific toxin is called…

a.
antitoxicosis

b.
antitoxin

c.
untoxin

d.
antipoison

A

b.
antitoxin

47
Q

If something has gone wrong in vaccine production and the non-pathogenic microorganism in vaccine can still cause the disease when injected, then this situation is called…

A

residual virulence

48
Q

A suspension of killed bacteria used for immunization is called…

A

bacterin

49
Q

Eosinophils are polymorphonuclear leukocytes containing granules which stain strongly. Which type of hypersensitivity usually triggers increase of their concentration in blood?

A

I hypersensitivity (Immediate Hypersensitivity)

50
Q

What is adoptive immunity?

A

Immunity that results from the transfer of cells from an immunized animal to an unimmunized recipient.

51
Q

purpose of Aluminum salts based adjuvants?

A

Causes tissue damage, thus triggers releasing of DAMPs

52
Q

Mast cells excessive degranulation is characteristic to…?

A

I hypersensitivity (Immediate Hypersensitivity)

53
Q

The root cause of autoimmunity are usually…

a.
overproduction of complement

b.
macrophages, antibodies and B cells

c.
antibodies, Th and Tc (cytotoxic) cells

d.
antibodies and B cells

A

c.
antibodies, Th and Tc (cytotoxic) cells

54
Q

In case of rheumatoid arthritis, the key role of cartilage damage could be played by …

a.
cytotoxic T-cells and basophiles

b.
neutrohpiles, anti-collagen autoantibodies and immune complexes

c.
Autoantibodies blocking collagenase producing enzymes

d.
Eosinophiles, mast cells and IgE

A

b.
neutrohpiles, anti-collagen autoantibodies and immune complexes

55
Q

What might be one of the main causes which can activate self-reactive T cells and trigger autoimmune disease?

a.
over-regulated innate immune reaction

b.
production of self-reacting B cells

c.
overproduction of self-reacting T cells

d.
infection through local innate immune reaction

A

d.
infection through local innate immune reaction

56
Q

In case of hypersensitivity type II (Antibody-mediated) most of the tissue damage is caused by…

A

complement, neutrophils and macrophages

57
Q

In case of an autoimmune disease, most of the tissue damage is caused by…

A

hypersensitivity reactions

58
Q

Positive tuberculin reaction in cattle means that…

A

this animal could be infected with
Mycobacterium bovis,
M. tuberculosis or
M. avium paratuberculosis (Johne’s disease)

59
Q

Name the process, where parasites or other infectious microorganisms develop antigenic molecules which structure closely resembles antigens found in host itself.

A

molecular mimicry

60
Q

cytotoxic T-cells are associated with which hypersensitivity type?

A

type IV hypersensitivity

61
Q

immune complexes are associated with which hypersensitivity type?

A

type III hypersensitivity

62
Q

Antibodies are associated with which hypersensitivity type?

A

type II hypersensitivity

63
Q

IgE, eosinophiles and Mast cells are associated with which hypersensitivity type?

A

type I hypersensitivity

64
Q

If cattle develops positive tuberculin reaction then we can see inflammatory reaction in the injection site. This phenomenon occurs how much later and is called what type?

A

24 to 72 hours later and is called delayed hypersensitivity (IV)

65
Q

What type of sensitivity is allergic contact dermatitis

A

type IV hypersensitivity → allergic contact dermatitis

66
Q

What type of sensitivity is neonatal isoerythrolysis

A

type II hypersensitivity → neonatal isoerythrolysis

67
Q

What type of sensitivity is allergy

A

type I hypersensitivity → allergy

68
Q

What type of sensitivity is serum sickness

A

type III hypersensitivity → serum sickness

69
Q

Lack of immune response and immune memory is called…

A

immunotolerant

70
Q

Immunodeficiency affecting litter-mate animals after the loss of maternally derived immunity is called…

A

Congenital immune deficiency

71
Q

Primary immunodeficiencies are…
Select one:

a.
resulting from infection after birth

b.
resulting from known, non-genetic cause

c.
inherited immunodeficiency diseases

d.
disease which develop after autoimmune disease

A

c.
inherited immunodeficiency diseases

72
Q

Which of these infectious agents most commonly makes animals more susceptible to secondary bacterial infections?
Select one:

a.
stress

b.
Mycobacteria

c.
parasites

d.
viruses

A

d.
viruses

73
Q

Defects in T cell function predisposes animal mostly to…
Select one:

a.
virus infections

b.
bacterial infections

c.
prion infections

d.
parasites infections

A

a.
virus infections

74
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency disease in Arabian foals (SCID) is caused by defect in a gene which transcribes…
Select one:

a.
MHC

b.
TLR

c.
TCR

d.
BCR

A

c.
TCR

75
Q

There are commercially available vaccines against canine melanoma (active ingredient: naked DNA of human tyrosinase gene) and feline fibrosarcoma (active ingredient: feline interleukin-2 recombinant canarypox virus) what could be the main reason why don’t have 100% success rate in curing these disease?

a.
probably because these are not actually containing actual tumor antigen

b.
because of biological variability we can never have 100% success rate

c.
it is impossible to vaccinate against tumors

d.
the vaccines should contain live cytotoxic T-cells against tumor antigen

A

a.
probably because these are not actually containing actual tumor antigen

76
Q

Which proteins act as antigens in transplant rejection process?

a.
MHC

b.
TLR

c.
PRR

d.
TCR

A

a.
MHC

77
Q

What is a malignant tumor of hematopoietic stem cells named?

A

leukemia

78
Q

If one would vaccinate against specific tumor, when would it be effective?

a.
It is impossible to vaccinate against tumors

b.
Before onset of tumor

c.
At same time when first cell mutates into tumor cell

d.
After the onset of tumor. Vaccination can easily eradicate tumor

A

b.
Before onset of tumor

79
Q

Sometimes tumor cells fail to produce MHC I on its surface. What would be the consequence of that?

a.
NK cells would not be able to recognize and kill it

b.
these tumor cells would perform apoptosis

c.
it’s impossible for cell to stay metabolically active after loss of MHC I

d.
specific anti-tumor cytotoxic T cells would not find it

A

d.
specific anti-tumor cytotoxic T cells would not find it

80
Q

In case of a graft-versus-host disease…

a.
host’s cells kill all the cells in the transplant in very short time period

b.
cytokines from transplant cause serious illness to new host

c.
transplanted lymphocytes from transplanted organ attack new hosts cells

d.
transplanted lymphocytes die and release massive amount of DAMPs

A

c.
transplanted lymphocytes from transplanted organ attack new hosts cells

81
Q

What may be problematic about MHC in domestic birds?

a.
Almost no recombination, so the MHC 1 haplotype determines the immune response to certain pathogens

b.
They are smaller than mammal MHC, so the avian immune response is always weaker than the mammal immune response

c.
Diversity extremely low due to selective breeding of chicken

d.
Birds lack MHC entirely

A

a.
Almost no recombination, so the MHC 1 haplotype determines the immune response to certain pathogens

82
Q

what is CIA and found in what demographic

A

chicken infectious anemia → mainly in laying hens

83
Q

what is IBD and found in what demographic

A

Infectious bursal disease → before involution of Bursa of Fabricius

84
Q

what is MD and found in what demographic

A

​Marek’s disease → in older chicken

85
Q

what is RHD and found in what demographic

A

Rabbit hemorrhagic disease → in rabbits

86
Q

Where do avian T-cells mature?

A

Thymus

87
Q

Where do birds get maternal antibodies from?

A

Egg yolk

88
Q

In what way are avian lymph nodes different from mammalian ones?

A

They lack an outer capsule

89
Q

Which method is least suitable to vaccinate a large broiler flock?

a.
Day-one vaccination with a vaccinator machine

b.
Already in-ovo

c.
Intramuscular vaccination after measuring antibody titre at one week of age

d.
Via drinking water at three weeks of age

A

c.
Intramuscular vaccination after measuring antibody titre at one week of age

90
Q

Why is the first day of life so crucial for chicks?

a.
Transport stress and vaccinations make them susceptible to infections

b.
During transport they are exposed to immunosuppressive toxins, so it needs to be done as quickly as possible

c.
They need to receive colostrum within 24 hours in order to survive

d.
They have no maternal antibodies at all, so they need to be vaccinated immediately

A

a.
Transport stress and vaccinations make them susceptible to infections

91
Q

What is the GALT in poultry?

a.
An acute phase protein

b.
Intestinal lympohid tissue where B-cells can mature

c.
Peyer’s plaques

d.
A highly contagious viral disease in rabbits

A

b.
Intestinal lympohid tissue where B-cells can mature

92
Q

Which one is the main antibody isotype in birds?

A

IgY

93
Q

What is the so-called Deventer formula used for?

a.
To describe the ratio of T-cells and B-cells

b.
To estimate productive life-length of laying hens

c.
To calculate average mortality of a flock

d.
To find the optimal day to vaccinate a flock

A

d.
To find the optimal day to vaccinate a flock

94
Q

Most abundant components of colostrum are…

A

immunoglobulins

95
Q

NK (natural killer) cells kill cell which…

a.
are missing PRRs (pattern recognizing receptors)

b.
have self-antigen bind to MHC I or II (major histocompatibility complex)

c.
are missing MHC II (major histocompatibility complex)

d.
are missing MHC I (major histocompatibility complex)

A

d.
are missing MHC I (major histocompatibility complex)

Veterinary immunology (3 decks)

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