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Veterinary immunology > Lecture tests - questions and answers > Flashcards

Lecture tests - questions and answers Flashcards

1
Q

Which immune system related cells are produced in primary lymphoid organs?

A

T and B cells

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2
Q

In case of intracellular infection, these infected cells are usually killed by…?

A

T cells

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3
Q

CD8 is only found on cytotoxic T cells, to which receptor does it bind?

A

MHC I

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4
Q

Large quantities of MHC class I protein are usually found on the surface of…

A

healthy cells

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5
Q

CD4 receptor is almost always found only on T helper cells, but to which receptor does it usually bind?

A

MHC II

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6
Q

Which cells usually bring the antigen to lymph nodes for presentation?

A

dendritic cells

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7
Q

Penicillin is a well known antibiotic with small molecule size, but if it binds to an albumin molecule, then it can become antigenic, this newly formed molecule is called in immunology …

A

hapten

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8
Q

Virus antigenic shift means…

A

radical changes in antigenic structure and protective immunity is lost.

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9
Q

LPS (lipopolysaccharide) is part of Gram-negative bacteria cell walls and can cause strong immune reaction. What is the most common reason why gram-negative bacteria release massive amount of LPS in short period of time?

A

large amount of Gram-negative bacteria die at the same time

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10
Q

Hapten is…?

A

a small molecule which binds to body proteins and can cause immune reaction

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11
Q

In order to avoid immune system response viruses, bacteria and parasites have to change their surface antigens, this process is called…

A

antigenic variation

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12
Q

Innate immunity can recognize invading microorganism by…?

A

PAMPs (pathogen-associated molecular patterns)

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13
Q

Histiocytes can be found in connective tissue, from which cell to they originate?

A

monocytes

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14
Q

What do macrophages do after they have phagocytized a pathogenic microorganism?

A

present antigen to adaptive immune system

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15
Q

A situation where huge number of antibodies bind to antigen and form clumps is called…

A

agglutination

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16
Q

Which immunoglobulins are produced the most during the primary immune response?

A

IgMs and IgGs

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17
Q

Germinal center in lymphoid organs are mostly composed of…

A

B cells

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18
Q

Largest fraction of immunoglobulins which are produced during the secondary immune response are…

A

IgGs

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19
Q

If one wishes to assess immune response strength over a certain time period (for example two weeks) to a specific antigen, then most often this test is used…

A

antibody titration

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20
Q

A vaccine containing an agent that has been treated in such a way that it can no longer replicate in the host, is called…

A

inactivated vaccine

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21
Q

What type of vaccine is a lipopolysaccharide O antigen vaccine?

A

subunit vaccine

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22
Q

What type of vaccine is a serotype-1 capsular polysaccharide coupled with bacterial protein- vaccine?

A

glycoconjugate vaccine

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23
Q

What type of vaccine is a Pasteruella multocida empty cell envelope- vaccine?

A

bacterial ghost vaccine

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24
Q

What type of vaccine is incorporates use of a virus shell?

A

virus-like particle vaccine

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25
Q

What type of vaccine uses naked DNA?

A

DNA-plasmid vaccine

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26
Q

Which of vaccine is not used in veterinary medicine commonly?

A

plasmid-DNA vaccines, VLPs (virus like particles), RNA vaccines

27
Q

Which type of hypersensitivty is flea-bite allergic dermatitis

A

type I

28
Q

In case of type I (Immediate) hypersensitivity reaction and especially in its late phase reaction most of the tissue damage is caused by…

A

neutrophils via chemotaxis to site

29
Q

Which type of hypersensitivty is asthma

A

type I hypersensitivity (immediate Hypersensitivity) disease

30
Q

What usually happens if large amount of mast cells are activated and start degranulation in respiratory tract?

A

mucus secretion and bronchospasm

31
Q

Calcineurin inhibitor ciclosporin directly affects immune system functions by …

A

blocking production of key cytokines - IL-2 and IFN-gamma

32
Q

How do reptiles develop fever?

A

They can induce it through behaviour

33
Q

The main difference between MHC class 1 and 2 is that

A

MHC class 1 molecules present antigens to cytotoxic T cells with CD8+ receptors

whereas MHC class 2 molecules present antigens to helper T cells with CD4+ receptors

34
Q

Macrophage and lymphocyte-derived cytokines that can exert a direct toxic effect on neoplastic cells are called…

A

tumor necrosis factors (TNF)

35
Q

Antiserum is a…

a.
serum that contains specific antibodies and is used for treatment

b.
serum which is against specific pathologic serum

c.
vaccine against serum sickness

d.
collection of antibodies which are against serum proteins

A

a.
serum that contains specific antibodies and is used for treatment

36
Q

Mast cells can release cytokines during activation which usually cause…

a.
migration of cytotoxic T-cells to inflammasome

b.
B cells differentiation into IgE production

c.
direct cytotoxicity

d.
inflammation and leukocyte recruitment

A

d.
inflammation and leukocyte recruitment

37
Q

Type IV (delayed type-)hypersensitivity reactions are mostly represented in case of this disease…

a.
atopic flea dermatitis

b.
serum sickness

c.
hemolytic disease of the newborn

d.
allergic contact dermatitis

A

d.
allergic contact dermatitis

38
Q

What could be a serious side effect to long treatment period with glucocorticoids?
Select one:

a.
Complement deactivation

b.
Opportunistic infections

c.
Nonsense. Glucocorticoids are harmless drugs.

d.
Huge decrease of immunoglobulins concentration

A

b.
Opportunistic infections

39
Q

Immunostimulatory agents usually are made out of…
Select one:

a.
extracts from microorganisms or plants

b.
vitamins

c.
mineral and organic salts

d.
adjuvants

A

a.
extracts from microorganisms or plants

40
Q

Where do B-cells mature in birds?

a.
Harderian gland

b.
Spleen

c.
Bursa of Fabricius

d.
Thymus

A

c.
Bursa of Fabricius

41
Q

Nontoxic derivates of toxins used as antigens to immunize animal against it is called…

a.
toxic antigen

b.
tolerogen

c.
antitoxicogen

d.
toxoid

A

d.
toxoid

42
Q

Period of time when there is insufficient maternally derived immunoglobulin to protect a young animal from infection, but sufficient maternal immunoglobulin to prevent onset of the endogenous immune response in that animal is called…

a.
immunity gap

b.
The Window of unsusceptibility

c.
The Window of susceptibility

d.
lag period

e.
disease period

A

c.
The Window of susceptibility

43
Q

Flea-bite allergic dermatitis is the single most important allergic skin disease in dogs. Which of the following mechanisms is mostly triggering the symptoms?

a.
IgE (against flea antigens) binds to mast cells and eosinophils

b.
cytotoxic T cell reaction against flea antigens

c.
immune complexes formation near the biting site and triggering complement system activation

d.
hypergammaglobulinemia (mostly IgG) against flea allergens with glomerulonephritis

A

a.
IgE (against flea antigens) binds to mast cells and eosinophils

44
Q

Th (T helper), NK (natural killer) and cytotoxic T-cells are closely related to…

a.
type IV hypersensitivity (Delayed type-hypersensitivity)

b.
type I hypersensitivity (Mast cell and eosinophil-mediated hypersensitivity)

c.
type III hypersensitivity (Neutrophil-Mediated Hypersensitivity)

d.
type II hypersensitivity (Antibody-mediated hypersensitivity)

A

a.
type IV hypersensitivity (Delayed type-hypersensitivity)

45
Q

What kind of immunodeficiency is cyclic hematopoiesis (neutropenia) in gray collie dogs?
Select one:

a.
Congenital immune deficiency

b.
Virally induced immune deficiency

c.
Acquired immune deficiency

d.
Secondary immunodeficiency

A

a.
Congenital immune deficiency

46
Q

Agammaglobulinemia is situation where…
Select one:

a.
there are no immunoglobulins in blood against specific pathogen

b.
there are no antibodies in blood

c.
B-cells are unable to produce antibodies

d.
only IgG is present in the serum and all the other isotypes are missing

A

b.
there are no antibodies in blood

47
Q

A vaccine containing an agent that has been treated in such a way that it can no longer replicate in the host, is called…

a.
inactivated vaccine

b.
attenuated vaccine

c.
live vaccine

d.
modified live vaccine

A

a.
inactivated vaccine

48
Q

Which of these vaccines would not be able to trigger formation of long-term immune memory?

a.
Bacterin vaccines

b.
DNA-Plasmid Based Vaccines

c.
Glycoconjugate vaccines

d.
Virus-like particles (VLPs) vaccine

A

c.
Glycoconjugate vaccines

49
Q

Defects in T cell function predisposes animal mostly to…
Select one:

a.
prion infections

b.
parasites infections

c.
bacterial infections

d.
virus infections

A

d.
virus infections

50
Q

The main immune mechanism of tumor eradication is killing of tumor cells by…

a.
anti-tumor complement system activation

b.
CTLs (cytotoxic T leukocytes) specific against tumor antigens

c.
antibodies specific against tumor antigens

d.
NK (natural killer) cells specific against tumor antigens

A

b.
CTLs (cytotoxic T leukocytes) specific against tumor antigens

51
Q

If a cell is infected with a oncogenic virus, which of these cells would recognize specific antigen presented on infected cell MHC I and kill it?

a.
CD8+ cell

b.
CD4+ cell

c.
NK cells

d.
B cell

A

a.
CD8+ cell

52
Q

Vaccines which contain viruses whose virulence has been reduced so that they can replicate in the host but cannot cause disease in normal animals are called…

a.
naked DNA vaccines

b.
inactivated vaccines

c.
live vaccines

d.
killed vaccines

A

c.
live vaccines

53
Q

The interval between administration of antigen and the first detection of antibody is called …

a.
Immunity gap

b.
Immunosupression

c.
Primary immune response

d.
Lag period

A

d.
Lag period

54
Q

Allergic rhinitis causes sneezing and serous nasal discharge in animals. Affected patients can have seasonal or year-round clinical signs based on the offending allergen. For example, cattle housed on certain types of flowering pastures in late summer and early autumn can suffer from “summer snuffles.” Which of the following methods is LEAST appropriate for the diagnosis of allergic rhinitis in animals?

a.
Intradermal skin test

b.
Antihistamine drug trial

c.
Cytology of nasal exudate

d.
Removal of the offending allergen

A

a.
Intradermal skin test

55
Q

Positive tuberculin reaction in cattle means that…

a.
this animal is with 99.9% confidence infected with Mycobacterium bovis, M. tuberculosis or M. avium paratuberculosis (Johne’s disease)

b.
this animal could be infected with Mycobacterium bovis, M. tuberculosis or M. avium paratuberculosis (Johne’s disease)

c.
this animal has developed strong and effective humoral immune response against Mycobacterium bovis

d.
this animals mother was also infected with Mycobacterium bovis, M. tuberculosis or M. avium paratuberculosis (Johne’s disease)

A

b.
this animal could be infected with Mycobacterium bovis, M. tuberculosis or M. avium paratuberculosis (Johne’s disease)

56
Q

Is it possible for tumor to spread from one animal to another?

a.
yes. As an allograft

b.
no. Cancer cells will not survive in new host

c.
no. Cancer cells always perform apoptosis if they detect new host cells

d.
no. Cancer cannot be infectious

A

a.
yes. As an allograft

57
Q

Which cells of birds are analogous to neutrophils in mammals?

a.
Heterophils

b.
Eosinophils

c.
Thrombocytes

d.
Basophil

A

a.
Heterophils

58
Q

A type III hypersensitivity (Neutrophil-Mediated Hypersensitivity) response to the administration of foreign serum as a result of the development of immune complexes in the bloodstream is called…

a.
antibody plaque

b.
serum sickness

c.
anaphylaxis

d.
septic shock

A

b.
serum sickness

59
Q

One of the key-mechanisms in the prevention of autoimmunity is to control if the T cells strongly react to self-antigens. If they do then these T cells …

a.
perform apoptosis

b.
are sent into reserve (become Th17 cells)

c.
modify self-antigen recognizing receptors

d.
do nothing, as it is impossible to create self-reactive T-cells

A

a.
perform apoptosis

60
Q

Secondary immunodeficiencies are…
Select one:

a.
resulting from (usually) known, non genetic cause

b.
only found in specific animal breeds

c.
inheritable immunodeficiency diseases

d.
usually affecting all the litter-mates after waning of maternal immunity

A

a.
resulting from (usually) known, non genetic cause

61
Q

What kind of immunodeficiency is Canine C3 deficiency?
Select one:

a.
Acquired immune deficiency

b.
Secondary immunodeficiency

c.
Complemental immune deficiency

d.
Congenital immune deficiency

A

d.
Congenital immune deficiency

62
Q

Which of these factors will help the tumor cell to evade NK cell response?

a.
Production of immunosupressive agents

b.
Fails to present proper MHC I molecule on its surface

c.
Expression of the stress-induced activating ligand

d.
Detection of attached antigen-antibody complex on tumor cell

A

a.
Production of immunosupressive agents

63
Q

The appearance of monoclonal immunoglobulins at high concentration in serum, is commonly, but not always, associated with the presence of a myeloma. How is this phenomena called?

a.
agammaglobulinemia

b.
hypergammaglobulinemia

c.
leukemia

d.
monoclonal gammopathy

e.
polyclonal gammopathy

A

d.
monoclonal gammopathy

64
Q

Where do lymphocytes originate in birds?

a.
Spleen

b.
Yolk sac

c.
Harderian gland

d.
Bursa of Fabricius

A

b.
Yolk sac

Veterinary immunology (3 decks)

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