Verbatim Stuff COPY Flashcards

1
Q

Land Immediately

A

Execute a landing without delay.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Land soon as possible

A

land at the first site at which a safe landing can be made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Land soon as practicable

A

extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of flight are at the discretion of the pilot in command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Warning

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury, death, or loss of aircraft if not carefully observed or followed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Caution

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Note

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that must be emphasized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Shall

A

Is used only when application of a procedure is mandatory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Should

A

Is used only when application for a procedure is recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

May and Need Not

A

Are used only when application of a procedure is optional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Will

A

Indicates Futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Primary fuel

A

A fuel that the aircraft is authorized to use for continuous unrestricted operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Restricted fuel

A

A fuel that imposes operational restrictions on the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Emergency Fuel

A

A fuel which may be used for a minimum time when no other primary or restricted fuel is available in case of emergency or operational necessity.

i.e - weather evacuation or urgent military necessity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Primary, restricted, and emergency fuels

(NATOPS)

A

Primary: JP-5, JP-8, F24, TS1
Restricted: Jet A, Jet A1, Jet B
Emergency: JP8+100, F27

Premixed PRIST only, no aerosol cans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Operational Necessity

A

A mission associated with war or peacetime operations in which the consequences of an action justify accepting the risk of loss of aircraft and crew.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Local Flight

A

A flight that remains with in the local flying area and terminates at the same facility or another military facility with which the originating station has direct station to station communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hazard

A

A condition with the potential to cause injury or death, property damage, or mission degradation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Operational Risk Management

A

The process of dealing with the risk associated with military operations, which include risk assessment, risk decision-making and implementation of effective risk controls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Weather mins for CVN?

LHD/LHA?

CRUDES?

A

Case 1: 3000/5
Case 2: 1000/5
Case 3: <1000/5, or a nighttime departure or recovery (one-half hour after sunset and one half hour before sunrise)

Case 1: 1000/3
Case 2: 500/1
Case 3: <500/1

DDG: 500/1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Risk

A

An expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Actual instrument approach

A

When actual instrument conditions are encountered below 1,000 feet above the airport/flight deck elevation during an instrument approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Aerobatic flight maneuvers

(CNAF)

A

An intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in aircraft attitude, intentionally performed spins, or other maneuvers requiring pitch/dive angles greater than 45°, bank angles greater than 60°, or accelerations greater than 2 gs. A maneuver that conforms to the model NATOPS manual (e.g., break, weapons delivery, autorotations, etc.) are not considered to be aerobatic flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cross Country Flight

A

A flight that either does not remain in the local flying area or remains in the local flying area and terminates at a facility other than an active military facility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Officer in Tactical Command

A

The senior officer present eligible to assume command, or the officer to whom he has delegated tactical command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

PIC

A

The pilot assigned responsibility for safe and orderly conduct of the flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Nonessential Flights

(CNAF)

A

The use of aircraft for nonessential flights shall not be authorized. Any flight open to misinterpretation by the public shall be avoided. Examples of flights that are considered nonessential are as follows:

  1. Flights of a routine business nature for which commercial or other military transportation could be more
    economically substituted
  2. Flights for any officer or group of officers, the sole purpose of which is the convenience and/or prestige of
    the officers concerned and not the performance of official duties or accomplishment of bona fide training
  3. Repeated flights to the hometown area of flight personnel concerned
  4. Flights coinciding with major sports events or civic celebrations.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Requirements to be a HAC

(CNAF)

A

To be qualified as a helicopter aircraft commander, the NATOPS manual shall establish the designation for the particular model, and an individual shall:

  1. Have completed the requirements for and possess to an advanced degree the knowledge, proficiency, and
    capabilities of a second pilot.
  2. Have a minimum of 500 total flight hours.
  3. Have 150 flight hours in rotary-wing aircraft.
4. Have pilot hours in class and model required by the commanding officer or higher authority and demonstrate the proficiency and judgment required to ensure the successful accomplishment of all tasks of the unit
mission.
  1. Demonstrate ability to command and train the officers and enlisted members of the flightcrew.
  2. Demonstrate the qualities of leadership required to conduct advanced base or detached unit operations as officer in charge when such duty is required as part of the units mission or method of operation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Passenger overwater flights at night

(CNAF)

A

Ship launches and recoveries shall be made during daylight hours. This constraint may be waived by the Strike Group Commander, Amphibious Squadron commander, Marine Air Ground Task Force (MAGTF) Commander or Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) in cases of operational necessity.

In cases of Medical Evacuations (MEDEVAC), a qualified medical attendant who is current in approved water survival training (non-aircrew underwater emergency egress as a minimum training requirement), and has been properly briefed on emergency egress procedures for that aircraft, may be transferred at night with approval from the ship’s Commanding Officer.

This does not preclude troop movement in support of amphibious exercises, visit board search and seizure (VBSS) level III operations, or SPECOPS training and operational missions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

OTC Embarked

(CNAF)

A

Wing, group, or squadron commander, if embarked on a mission involving aircraft of their command, retains full authority and responsibility regarding command, including the mission in which participating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Flag or general officer embarked

(CNAF)

A

The pilot in command of an aircraft with a flag or general officer eligible for command at sea or in the field embarked as a passenger shall be subject to the orders of such flag or general officer in accordance with U.S. Navy Regulations.

When such an embarked passenger exercises authority to command the aircraft, that passenger thereby assumes full responsibility for the safe and orderly conduct of the flight.

The embarked passenger shall give due consideration to the judgment of the pilot in command regarding items of flight safety such as hazardous weather and aircraft/crew limitations.

Flying rule violations, accident reports, and any other actions arising out of the flight will be referred to the embarked passenger as the responsible commander of the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Readiness Condition 1

(80T-105)

A

The aircraft shall be spotted for immediate launch, with rotor blades spread, starting equipment plugged in, and a
LSE, starting crewman, plane captain, and required plane handlers standing by. Unless otherwise directed by the aircraft handling officer, at least four tiedowns shall be attached to the aircraft. The flightcrew shall be ready for launch in all respects, with all personnel equipment attached and adjusted as in flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Readiness Condition 2

(80T-105)

A

The same conditions apply as for Condition I, except that flightcrews shall stand by in the ready rooms.

33
Q

Readiness Condition 3

(80T-105)

A

Main rotor blades may be folded and the aircraft need not be in position for immediate launch; however, it must be
parked so as to allow direct access to a suitable launch spot. A towbar shall be attached to the aircraft and a specific LSE, tractor driver, handling crew, and starting crewman shall be designated and assigned to each helicopter. These personnel must be thoroughly briefed so that when the order is given to prepare to launch, the aircraft can be safely and expeditiously moved into position and readied for launch. Flightcrews should be briefed for the launch and be standing by in a designated location.

34
Q

Readiness Condition 4

(80T-105)

A

This is similar to Condition III except that minor maintenance may be performed on the aircraft if no delay in launch is involved.

35
Q

Keyhole Diagram Name and Dimensions

(80T-105)

A

“Helicopter restrictions during fixed wing launch and recovery”

Not within 1 mile

From 150-190 not within 3 miles

From 340-020 not within 5 miles, from 5 to 10 miles below 200

Within 5 miles, below 300 on port and below 400 on starboard

Below 400 everywhere else

*No helicopter operations are allowed within the shaded area without air officer approval*

36
Q

Authorization for a flight SHALL be documented by a flight schedule or similar directive signed by a CO. It shall contain the following:

A

Names and flight function of all flight personnel

Designation of PIC/mission commander, and/or formation leader as appropriate

Chain of Command for form flights in the event of an abort by the designated flight leader

Aircraft Model assigned

Total mission or requirement code

Point of departure, destination, and en route stopover points

Date and time of estimated departure (ETD)

Estimated time en route (ETE) or estimated time of arrival (ETA)

37
Q

Before commencing a flight plan, the PIC shall be familiar with all available information appropriate to the intended operation. Such information should include but is not limited to…

A

DRAFTTNW Delays (anticipated traffic) Risk assessment Alternatives available if flight cannot be completed as planned Fuel Requirements Terminal Instrument procedures TFRs NOTAMs Weather reports and forecasts

38
Q

When are you permitted to go to a civilian airfield?

When can you remain over night?

A

Naval aircraft are permitted to operate at civilian airfields listed in the DOD enroute supplement when such operations contribute to mission accomplishment, add value to training or are otherwise in the interests of the government or tax payer.

RON: Required by mission accomplishment, and wing/group commander approval. RON is allowed if required for aircraft maintenance or following an emergency divert.

39
Q

Helicopter aircraft are authorized to land at other than airfield locations provided:

A

A military requirement exists

Adequate safeguards are taken to permit safe landing/takeoff without hazard to people or property

No legal objection to landing

CO’s may waive the above if aircraft is engaged in SAR operations

40
Q

If your destination weather is published mins up to 3000-3 you need what Wx at your alternate? What is the note for choosing an alternate?

A

Non-precision: published mins + 300-1 Precision: published mins + 200 - 1/2 If an alternate airfield is required, it shall have a published approach compatible with installed operable aircraft navigation equipment that can be flown without the use of two-way radio communication whenever either one of the following conditions is met: 1. The destination lacks the above described approach. 2. The forecasted weather at the alternate is below 3,000-foot ceiling and 3-statute-mile visibility during the period 1 hour before ETA until 1 hour after ETA.

41
Q

When do you need position lights

A

Shall be displayed during 30 minute period before sunset to 30 minute period before sunrise or at any time visibility from the cockpit is less than 3 SM. During these times they shall be displayed: 1) Any time the engines are running 2) When the aircraft is being towed unless otherwise illuminated 3) When the aircraft is parked and likely to cause hazard unless otherwise marked or illuminated

42
Q

Anti-collision lights shall be used _____________.

A

Immediately before engine start and at all times during operation, except when the use of such lights adversely affects ground operations. May be turned off during flight through clouds.

43
Q

Practice autorotations SHALL be conducted ________________ and ________________ they ____________.

A

Within the limits of the field boundary over a surface upon which a full auto can be safely completed Has readily available crash, rescue, and fire fighting equipment Require tower approval

44
Q

3000 ft avoidance of noise sensitive and wilderness areas must be complied with except when?

A

traffic pattern or approach pattern VR or IR route SPECIAL use airspace

45
Q

Safety belts and shoulder harnesses shall be worn prior to takeoff and until completion of the flight except when necessary activities require temporary removal.

Cabin seating requirements for helicopters may be eliminated when? What are the guidelines?

A

Operational environment or aircraft configuration/load requirements dictate for the accomplishment of essential training and operations with the following guidelines:

SPECOPS operational and training missions

Life saving efforts (Humanitarian and SAR operations)

Not to be used for routine operational training or personnel transfers, only when tactical or procedural requirements exist for the mission

When seats are removed, PAX will be restrained by other means

If mission requires removal of seats/belts for part of mission then pax will use restraints for all other parts of mission

46
Q

When shall anti-exposure suits be provided

A

When in the event of a mishap there would be a significant risk of water entry and either of the following two conditions prevail:

1) Water temp is 50*F or below

OAT is below 32*F

If water temp is between 50* and 60*F the CO or OIC of the unit must determine whether anti-exposure suits are necessary

47
Q

Aircraft fuel purchase must be made somewhere with contract fuel unless:

A

Mission required stopping at a facility without military or contract fuel services flight terminated as a result of an Emergency The flight terminates at an alternate in lieu of filed destination.

48
Q

What is the purpose of orientation flights?

A

Typically one time events and not to be used to circumvent training and are used: To familiarize people with an aircraft, its operations, capabilities, requirements, concept of employment, or limitations To familiarize them with a base complex from the air for official purposes other than merely sightseeing or goodwill To allow FAA personnel to perform official functions that require their infrequent embarkation on naval aircraft To perform other military duties not assigned to the flight crew

49
Q

Aircraft commanders are required for which flights?

A

Operational/tactical missions

Administrative missions in helicopters

Training flights, except those that are within the capabilities of pilots of lower classification and which, in the opinion of the commanding officer, are best suited to teach such pilots self-reliance and command responsibility

Flights in which PAX are involved

50
Q

What is PIC responsible for?

A

The safe, orderly flight of the aircraft and well-being of the crew

51
Q

All orientation flights shall:

A
  1. be conducted within the local flying area and terminate at the point of origin. 2. be flown by highly qualified personnel 3. be conducted at no additional cost to the Gov
52
Q

Released from briefing passengers while:

A

Engaged in

  1. SAR missions
  2. Transporting large troop contingents… when no opportunity is provided for aircraft to be shutdown prior to embarkation
  3. Shipboard ops when landing are precluded

In these circumstances, the briefing shall be the responsibility of the cognizant local commander

53
Q

Time above 10,000’ and who gives that permission?

A

Shall not exceed one hour and altitude shall not exceed 13,000’ CO/OIC or mission commander determined it is mission essential

54
Q

(Emergency and Humanitarian Operations) What emergencies are naval aircraft allowed to participate in? Who must be notified?

A

Forest fire, search, rescue, major calamities, and for humanitarian reasons involving life-threatening circumstances. CNO or CMC, as appropriate, and the responsible local commander, but without delaying action when time is an essential factor

55
Q

Can you have Civilian Law enforcement officials (LEOs) in the Helicopter?

A

yes, Embarkation of civilian LEOs is authorized for helicopters, tiltrotor, and non-ejection seat aircraft. LEO personnel should comply with aeromedical and survival training requirements when time and facilities permit

56
Q

Can passengers be carried on FCFs?

A

Shall not be carried

57
Q

Weather for FCFs? Can Unit Commanders change this?

A

Should be conducted during daylight hours within the local flying area in VMC

Yes, if necessary to accomplish the assigned mission, they can authorize checkflights under different conditions if in their opinion the flight can be conducted with an acceptable margin of safety.

58
Q

What is required to hover overwater at night?

A

Night/low visibility hover operations over water shall be conducted using aircraft equipped with operable automatic hover systems on all occasions when a natural horizon visible from the cockpit is not available to assist the pilot in establishing/maintaining a stable hover.

59
Q

NVD Compliant

A

Term that encompases NVD compatible, NVD shipboard friendly, and noncompatible systems that are dimmed, baffled, or hidden from direct line of sight of the aided operator

60
Q

NVD Compatible

A

Lighting systems that are only required by non-aided operators and are invisible to aided operators

61
Q

NVD Shipboard friendly

A

Lighting systems reuired to be seen by both unaided and aided operators. Can see it both on goggles and off.

Think hangar and deck surface wash lights. And HRZ bar.

62
Q

NVD Shipboard Covert

A

Can only been seen by aided operator and not the unaided operator.

ASGSI

63
Q

Types of radar control

A

Advisory

Close

Positive

64
Q

Advisory control

A

The tactical control of aircraft by a designated control unit in which the pilot receives directions and recommendations.

Aircraft commanders are not relieved of responsibility for their own safety and navigation.

65
Q

Close control

A

The tactical control of aircraft by a designated control unit, whereby the pilot receives orders affecting aircraft movements. The pilot will not deviate from controller instructions unless given permission or unless unusual circumstances require immediate action for the safety of the flight.

In either case, the pilot will inform the controller of the action taken. This type of control requires two-way radio communication and radar contact. The controller is responsible for the safe separation of the aircraft, and the pilot must be informed whenever the aircraft is not held on the radarscope for periods in excess of 1 minute or five sweeps of the radar and, as a result, is being dead reckoned. The ultimate safety of the aircraft is the responsibility of the pilot.

66
Q

Positive control

A
67
Q

CRUDES Levels of Operation

A

ONLY ONE REVERSED

Level 1 - IMC day/night operations

Level 2 - VMC day/night operations

Level 3 - VMC day only operations

68
Q

Flight deck jerseys…

LSE, FDC, PC

A

LSE: Green jersey/red helmet

FDC: Brown jersey, green or white helmet

PC: Brown jersey, red helmet

69
Q

Transfer of PIC in flight

A

The authority and responsibility of the pilot in command shall not be transferred during flight.

It shall not be transferred to another individual except as required by emergency, operational necessity, or as directed by the commanding officer of the unit to which the aircraft is attached.

70
Q

SOP: VERTREP Power Margin

A

???

71
Q

Ice Accumulation Numbers

A

An additional torque increase up to 14 percent per engine may be experienced due to ice buildup during normal operation of the blade deice system.

Warning: Ice accumulation resulting in a 20 percent torque increase indicates that normal autorotational rotor RPM may not be attainable should dual-engine failure occur

If torque required increases 20 percent above that required for level flight, at the airspeed being maintained prior to entering icing, exit the icing environment or land the aircraft as soon as possible.

Pitot heat SHALL be turned on when OAT is 5 degrees Celcius or below OR when visible moisture is present.

72
Q

All blocks on the A-Sheet

A

A- A/C Buno

T- T/M/S

R- Reporting Custodian

O – Oxygen

F- Fuel QTY and Grade

O- Oil grade and what was serviced

D- date of acceptance

R- Remarks/Ordnance/Special Equipment/Limitations

Block 9: PC

Block 10: SFF ot off going pilot on a hot seat

Block 11: PIC

73
Q

What is the PIC signing for on the A-sheet

A

The PIC shall review the ADB for aircraft discrepancies and corrective actions for at least the 10 previous flight, W & B is on file, and accept the aircraft for flight.

74
Q

What is the MESM

A

Mission essential subsystem matrix

C-K mean PMC (pretty sure K is shipboard)

L means no IMC

Z code is NMC

75
Q

Asylum

A

Protection and sanctuary granted by the US gov within its territorial jurisdiction or in international waters to a foreign nation who applies for such protection because of persecution or fear of persecution on account of race, religion etc. this is a higher authority decision

76
Q
A
77
Q

Temporary refuge

A

Protection afforded for humanitarian reasons to a foreign national in a DOD installation or vessel within territorial jurisdiction of a foreign nation under conditions of urgency in order to secure the life and safety of that person against imminent danger, such as pursuit by mob

Protection may be terminated only by sec nav or higher

78
Q

LTE Wind Envelopes?

A
79
Q
A