CNAF Glossary COPY Flashcards

1
Q

When can you deviate from CNAF?

A

Deviation from specified flight and operating instructions is authorized in emergency situations when, in the judgment of the pilot in command (PIC), safety justifies such a deviation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Actual Instrument Approach

A

When actual instrument conditions are encountered below 1000 feet above the airport/flight deck elevation during an instrument approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Actual Instrument Conditions

A

Conditions external to the aircraft in flight that do not permit visual reference to the horizon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Aerobatic Flight Maneuvers

A

An intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in aircraft attitude, intentionally performing spins, or other maneuvers requiring pitch/dive angles greater than 45 degrees, bank angles greater than 60 degrees, or acceleration greater than 2g’s. a maneuver that conforms to the model NATOPS manual (autorotations) is not considered to be aerobatic flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aircraft Class

A

A broad classification as to the general mission purpose of the aircraft design.

I.e. - attack, helicopter, patrol, fighter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aircraft Commander Time

A

The individual flight time during which an individual, designated as a qualified aircraft commander in the aircraft model being flown, is serving as pilot in command. Aircraft commander time is a measure of command experience rather than of pilot experience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Aircraft Model

A

The basic mission symbol and design number.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Aircraft Series

A

The specific version of aircraft within the same model.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Aircraft type

A

The broadest classification of aircraft as to physical characteristics.

I.e fixed wing, rotary wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aircrew

A

A collective term that applies to all categories of personnel in a flight status either as crew member or non-crew member.

AIRCREW ARE MILITARY PERSONNEL ON COMPETENT FLIGHT ORDERS or civilian personnel whose duties require frequent and regular participation in flights to perform in flight functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Controlling custodian

A

The command exercising administrative control of assignment, employment, and logistic support of aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Crew Resource Management

A

The use of specifically defined behavioral skills as an integral part of every flight to improve mission effectiveness by minimizing crew preventable errors, maximizing crew coordination, and optimizing risk management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cross-country Flight

A

A flight that either does not remain in the local flying area or remains in the local flying area and terminates at a facility other than an active military facility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Definition of flight time for helos

A

A flight begins when the aircraft lifts from a rest point or commences ground taxi and ends after airborne flight when the rotors are disengaged or the aircraft has been stationary for 5 minutes with rotors engaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Flight Crew DELETE

A

Personnel whose presence is required on board a manned aircraft or at a control station for a UAV in supposed of an assigned mission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Flight Time DELETE

A

The elapsed time computed in accordance with the definition of flight. Flight time is logged in hours and rents of hours and is creditable to the aircraft, personnel, and equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hazard

A

A condition with the potential to cause injury, death, property damage or mission degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Instrument meteorological Conditions

A

Conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceiling less than the minimums specified for visual meteorological conditions. IMC CONDITIONS EXSIST ANYTIME A VISIBLE HORIZON IS NOT DISTINGUISHABLE

19
Q

Instrument Time

A

The portion of pilot time in either day or night under actual or simulated instrument conditions.

Actual Instrument time will be logged by both pilots in a dual piloted aircraft during flight in actual Instrument conditions.

Simulated instrument time shall be logged only by the pilot actually at the controls.

20
Q

Local Flight

A

A flight that remains within the local flying area and terminates at either the same facility or another military facility with which the originating station has direct station to station communications.

21
Q

Local Flying Area

A

That area in the vicinity of an air installation in which locally-based aircraft can operate during an average/typical sorties flight time

The local flying area shall not exceed 350 miles from an air installation and be designated as such in the Air Operations Manual by the Commanding Officer

In so far as practicable, local flying areas shall be bounded by prominent terrain features and/or air navigation aid radials/distances.

22
Q

Multi piloted aircraft

A

Aircraft that has 2 sets of flight controls and instruments operated by 2 pilots, both of which meet the NATOPS qualification for that model.

23
Q

Night Time

A

Total portion of flight time during darkness (i.e. between the official times of sunset and sunrise on the surface below the aircraft in flight) regardless of whether visual or instrument conditions exist

24
Q

Officer in Tactical Command

A

The senior officer present eligible to assume command or the officer whom he has delegated tactical demand.

25
Q

Official Business

A

The necessity to contact personnel, units, or organizations in order to conduct transactions in the service of or in the interest of the United States government

26
Q

Operational Necessity

A

A mission associated with war or peacetime operations in which the consequences of an action justify accepting the risk of loss of aircraft and crew.

27
Q

Operational Risk Management

A

The process of dealing with the risk associated with military operations, which include risk assessment, risk decision making and implementation of effective risk controls.

28
Q

Orientation Flight

A

A continuous flight in a DoD aircraft within the local flying area and terminating at the point of origin intended to further the understanding of particular programs concerning the roles and missions of the DOD

29
Q

Passenger

A

An individual who is not a part of the aircrew traveling in an aircraft configured for passenger carrying capability on a point-to-point flight.

30
Q

Pilot in Command

A

The pilot assigned responsibility for safe and orderly conduct of the flight.

31
Q

Risk

A

An expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability.

32
Q

VIP

A

Are defined as flag Officers, DOD officials equal to or senior to flag officers, high profile public figures, elected members of Congress, etc.

33
Q

Simulated Instrument Approach

A

An instrument approach flown under simulated instrument conditions.

34
Q

Simulated Instrument Conditions

A

Conditions external to the A/C in flight are VMC, but pilots vision is limited primarily to the interior of the A/C.

35
Q

Visual Meteorological Conditions

A

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, cloud distance, and ceiling that are equal to or better than specified minimums.

36
Q

FNAEB

A

Field Naval Aviator Evaluation Board

37
Q

JANAP

A

Joint Army, Navy, Air Force pubs

38
Q

NITE

A

Night imaging and threat evaluation

39
Q

SHARP

A

Sierra Hotel Aviation Readiness Program

40
Q

Reporting Custodian

A

An organizational unit of the lowest echelon of command accepting responsibility (involving accountability to CNO) for aircraft as designated either by CNO or by the controlling custodian of the aircraft

41
Q

Control (Radar):

Advisory:

Close:

Positive

A

Pilot receives directions and recommendations. Aircraft commanders are not relieved of responsibility for safety of flight.

Pilot receives orders. Pilot will not deviate unless given permission or unless immediate action is required for safety of flight.

Pilot receives orders and the responsibility for safety of flight resides with those giving orders. Ultimate safety of flight is still pilots responsibility

42
Q

Formation flight

A

A flight of more than one aircraft operating by prior arrangement as a single aircraft with regard to altitude, navigation, and position reporting, and where the seperation of the flight rests with the pilots in that flight.

43
Q

Mission Commander Time

A

Flight Time during which an individual, designated as a qualified mission commander in model is serving as mission commander.

44
Q

NALCOMIS

A

Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management info sys.